Disorders of RBCs Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q

Where does hematopoiesis occur in the fetus at 3 weeks, 3 months, and the third trimester

A

At 3 weeks, in the yolk sac
3 months, kidney
3rd trimester, occurs in the bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of bone has hematopoietic marrow and where is it contained?

A

Spongy bone in the intratubular space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the formula to determine cellularity of the bone marrow?

A

100%-age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is erythropoietin and where is it produced?

A

A growth factor that stimulates differentiation of red blood cells, made in the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the name for the cell in the last stage of RBC production in the bone marrow?

A

Orthochromatic erythroblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A reticulocyte will show what kind of staining? Due to?

A

Polychromatic staining due to RNA machinery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

The volume of red blood cells per unit of blood expressed as a percentage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two ways of classifying anemia?

A

Red cell morphology and underlying mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two mechanisms for anemia?

A

Increase in RBC loss or decrease in production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where does RBC destruction occur in extravascular hemolysis?

A

Spleen and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes intravascular hemolysis, is it more or less common than extravascular?

A

mechanical forces or biological agents, less common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What substance levels change in intravascular hemolysis?

A

Increased lactate dehydrogenase and decreased haptoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is immunohemolytic anemia?

A

When there is premature destruction of RBCs due to antibodies binding to them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What test is used to determine one has hemolytic anemia?

A

The Coombs test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two types of immunohemolytic anemia?

A

Warm and cold antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the warm type what Ig is present? At what temperature are they active?

A

IgG, 37 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the primary cause of the warm type?

A

Idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which drugs can cause the warm type?

A

Penicillin and alpha-methyldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do you treat the warm type?

A

Intravenous Ig, prednisone, and splenectomy as a last resort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the cold type, what Ig is present? Describe the mechanism for this disease?

A

IgM, the IgM causes C3b to bind to the RBCs. When the RBCs reach warmer areas of the body the IgM is lost but the C3b remains which activates the complement system. The RBCs are then destroyed in the spleen and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acute and chronic cases of the cold type are associated with?

A

Acute with infectious agents, chronic with lymphoma or they can be idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the sites for bone marrow biopsy?

A

The tibia in neonates and the sternal crest in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the most common hereditary hemolytic anemia in the world?

A

Sickle cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What causes sickle cell?

A

A point mutation on the 6th position of the beta globin gene substituting a valine for a glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Autosplenectomy as seen in sickle cell leads to increased susceptibility to infection by?
Encapsulated organisms
26
What is the most common cause of death in children with sickle cell?
Septicemia and meningitis
27
What leads to an aplastic crises in those with sickle cell?
Transient cessation of erythropoiesis due to infection of erythroid progenitor cells by parovirus B19
28
What can be used to raise HbF levels and reduce the symptoms of aplastic crises?
Hydroxyurea
29
What causes thalassemias?
Genetic defects leading to decreased synthesis of either the alpha or beta chains of HbA
30
What happens to the production of the unaffected chain?
It exists in relative excess
31
Where is thalassemia endemic?
To areas where malaria is common such
32
What happens in beta thalassemia?
In beta zero there is no production of the beta chain and in beta plus there is decreased production
33
Describe the pathogenesis of beta thalassemia
Alpha chains aggregate and Hb level decreases as a result, RBCs are then destroyed by the spleen, systemic iron overload is possible
34
What are the 4 types of alpha thalassemia?
Silent carrier is when there is one gene for the alpha chain missing Alpha thalassemia trait is when two genes are missing Hemoglobin H disease is when 3 are missing Hydrops fetalis is when 4 are missing (the fetus will usually die in utero)
35
Megaloblastic anemia stems from deficiencies in?
b12 and folate
36
What is the term used for anemia as a result of folate deficiency?
Pernicuous anemia
37
What manifestations are seen in the oral cavity as a result of anemia?
Atrophic glossitis, angular chelitis, and apthous stomatitis Atrophy of the lingual papillae, fissuring of the oral commissures, and canker sores respectively
38
What is pancytopenia and why does it lead to hyperplasia of bone marrow?
When there is a reduced cell count in all lines not just RBCs. There is an increase in erythropoietin and this causes marrow to produce precursors for all cell lines and leads to hyperplasia
39
During digestion B12 binds to what substance in the stomach?
Haptocorrin
40
After B12 is released from the B12 haptocorrin complex it binds to?
Intrinsic factor
41
What substance in the plasma does B12 bind to allowing it to be transported to the rest of the body?
Transcobalamin
42
What is a site for storage of B12?
The liver
43
What is the most frequent cause of B12 deficiency?
Pernicuous anemia
44
What is pernicious anemia?
An autoimmune attack on gastric mucosa and the intrinsic factor itself
45
What will you see in the stomach and intestine in someone who has pernicious anemia?
Intestinal metaplasia, presence of goblet cells in the stomach, and atrophic glands
46
How does pernicious anemia affect the CNS?
Demyelination of the dorsal and lateral tracts of the spinal cord
47
What are possible causes of B12 deficiency other than pernicious anemia?
Decreased intake, increased need such as in pregnancy or cancer, gastrectomy so no IF is made, and a fish tapeworm
48
What is folate used for?
Intermediate in carbon transfer during purine synthesis, specifically thymidine
49
How does the megaloblastic anemia as a result of folate deficiency differ from B12?
No neurological changes
50
How is folate deficiency diagnosed?
Decreased levels of folate deficiency in the blood and increased homocysteine level
51
What is an antagonist of folate that can inhibit absorption?
Methotrexate
52
What is the most common cause of anemia?
Iron deficiency
53
What is the etiology or cause of iron deficiency?
Lack of it in diet, celiac disease or gastrectomy, increased requirements, or chronic blood loss
54
The levels of what substance in plasma correlates with total body iron stores?
Ferritin
55
What delivers iron to erythroid precursors?
Transferrin
56
Why regulates iron metabolism?
Hepcidin
57
What does hepcidin inhibit that reduces iron uptake?
Ferriportin
58
Hepcidin has the effect of suppressing release of iron from
macrophages
59
Anemia of chronic disease is most often seen in ?
Hospital settings
60
Inflammatory mediators such as ____ cause anemia because they stimulate production of?
IL-6, hepcidin, prevents the release of iron from macrophages
61
What is aplastic anemia?
A syndrome of bone marrow failure due to suppression of multi potent stem cells
62
What inherited disease can cause aplastic anemia?
Fanconi anemia
63
What is the pathogenesis of aplastic anemia?
The stem cell attacked by environmental insult and becomes genetically altered leading to attack by T cells or decrease in proliferation
64
In aplastic anemia only one cell line is initially affected but over time all of them are, this is called?
Pancytopenia
65
Is the spleen enlarged in aplastic anemia?
No never