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MRCS Other > Doctors Academy - Abdomen and Pelvis COPY > Flashcards

Doctors Academy - Abdomen and Pelvis COPY Flashcards

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1
Q

What structures are found in the transpyloric plane?

A
  1. end of spinal cord
  2. L1 vertebral body
  3. origin of SMA (superior mesenteric artery)
  4. origin of portal vein
  5. neck of pancreas
  6. pylorus of stomach
  7. 2nd part of duodenum
  8. sphincter of oddi
  9. hylum of each kidney
  10. DJ flexure
  11. splenic flexure
  12. route of the transverse mesentery
  13. fundus of the gall bladder
  14. tips of 9th costal cartilages
  15. hilum of spleen
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2
Q

What structures are found in the Obturator Foreman?

A
  1. Obturator vein
  2. obturator artery
  3. obturator nerve
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3
Q

What structure divides the greater sciatic foremen in to two?

A

The Piriformis muscle

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4
Q

What structures pass through the greater sciatic foraman

A

Suprapiriform foramen:

  • Superior gluteal artery, vein & nerve

Infrapiriform foramen: (PPIINNS)

  • Pudendal nerve
  • Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
  • Inferior gluteal vessels (artery and vein) and nerve
  • Internal pudendal vessels (artery and vein)
  • Nerve to obturator internus
  • Nerve to quadratus femoris
  • Sciatic nerve
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5
Q

What structures pass through the lesser sciatic foraman?

A
  • Pudendal nerve
  • Internal Pudendal Artery and Vein
  • Nerve to obturator internus
  • Tendon of the Obturator Inernus

PINT

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6
Q

Which structures pass through both the greater and lesser sciatic foraman?

A
  1. Pudendal nerve
  2. Internal pudendal artery
  3. Nerve to obturator internus
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7
Q

What structures are found within the pudendal canal?

A
  1. Inferior rectal nerve
  2. Perineal nerve
  3. dorsal nerve of the penis / clitoris
  4. pudendal artery

NB: these are all branches of the pudendal nerve

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8
Q

Diaphragm Openings

What structures pass through the diaphragm at T8

A
  • IVC
  • Right phrenic Nerve
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9
Q

Diaphragm Openings

What structures pass through the diaphragm at T10

A
  1. Oesophagus
  2. Posterior vagal trunk
  3. hemiazygous vein
  4. Lesser Splenic Artery
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10
Q

Diaphragm Openings

What structures pass through the diaphragm at T12

A
  • Aorta
  • Thoracic Duct
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11
Q

What is the blood supply to the diaphragm

A
  1. superior phrenic artery
  2. inferior phrenic artery
  3. pericardiophernic artery
  4. musculophernic artery
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12
Q

Where in the diaphragm are Bochdalek and Morgagni hernias found

A

Bochdalek:

  • Left posterior diaphragm

Morgangni:

  • Right anterior diaphragm
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13
Q

Hernia’s

Descibe the following hernias:

  • Littres
  • Spigelian
  • Richters
  • Panaloon
  • Maydls
A

Littres - Contains a meckles diverticulum

Spigelian - found at the junction of the semilunaris

Richters - protrusion of the anti mesenteric small bowel

Pantaloon - both a direct and an indirect hernia on the same side

Maydls - Contains two loops of bowl and another loop of bowel on the inside

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14
Q

What abdominal layers would you go through in a pfannenstiel incision

A
  1. Skin
  2. subcutaneous fascia
  3. anterior rectus sheath
  4. rectus abdominis
  5. pyramidalis
  6. transversalis fascia
  7. pre and para vesical spaces
  8. peritoneum
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15
Q

what abdominal layers would you go through in a lanz incision

A

Skin, SC Fascia, external oblique, internal oblique, transverse abdominus, transversalis fascia, pre preitoneal fat, perioneum

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16
Q

where is the location of the deep inguinal ring

A

1.5cm above the mid point of the inguinal ligament

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17
Q

what is the hasslebachs triangle and what are its boarders

A

it is the weakest part of the abdominal wall as there is no rectus sheath.

Boarders:

Medially: Rectus abdominus

Laterally: Inferior epigastric vessels

Inferiorally: Inguinal Ligament

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18
Q

What are the boarders of the inguinal canal

A

The borders of the inguinal canal can be recalled using the mnemonic MALT:2

Roof (Muscles): Transversus abdominis muscle, internal oblique muscle

Anterior wall (Apeunerosis): Aponeurosis of the internal and external oblique muscle

Floor (Ligaments): Inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament

Postior wall (T’s): Conjoint tendon, transversalis fascia

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19
Q

What is the contents of the inguinal canal

A
  • Ilioinguinal nerve
  • Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve
  • The round ligament of the uterus (Females)
  • Spermatic cord (Males)

Extra:

Spermatic Cord contents:

3 fascial layers: external spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia/ muscle, internal spermatic fascia

3 arteries: artery to vas (ductus) deferens, cremasteric artery, testicular artery

3 nerves: ilioinguinal nerve, genital branch of genitofemoral, sympathetic and visceral afferent nerve fibres

3 other: pampiniform plexus, vas deferens, testicular lymphatics

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20
Q

which ligament supplies the most support to the uterus

A

Transverse Ligament

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21
Q

what is the innervation of the scrotal skin?

A

Anterior:

  • Ilioinguinal Nerve
  • Genital nerve or the genitofemoral nerve

Posterior:

  • Pudendal
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22
Q

which nerves are responsible for the cremasteric reflex (L1)

A
  • Ilioinguinal Nerve
  • Genital branch of the genitofemoral
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23
Q

list the retroperitoneal structures

A

SAD PUCKER

  • Suprarenal (Adrenal) Glands
  • Aorta
  • Duodenum (parts 2/3)
  • Pancreas (Appart from the tail, thats intraoperitoneal)
  • Ureters
  • Colon (Assecnding and descending)
  • Kidneys
  • Esophagus
  • Rectum (Lower part)
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24
Q

what are the boarders of callots triangle and what does it contain

A

Boarders:

Superior: Livery

Medial: Common hepatic Duct

Lateral: Cystic Duct

Contents:

  • Cystic Artery
  • Right hepatic artery
  • Sentinile lymph node
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25
what is the blood supply of the CBD
* Gastroduodenal artery * retroduodenal artery * right hepatic artery
26
what are the layers of the scrotum? Also, these layers are continuation of abdominal fascia, for each name the abdominal fascia they are a continuation of.
Scrotal Layers (Abominal layers are in brackets): Some Damn Englishman Called It the Testes * Skin (N/A) * Dartos (scarpas fascia) * External Spermatic fascia (External Oblique) * Cremastieric Spermatic Fascia (Internal Oblique) * Internal Spermatic Fascia (Transversalis fascia ) * Tunica Vaginalis (Peritoneum) * Tunica Alberginea
27
what nerves control acid secreition of the stomach
vagus nerve - causes acid secreion Greater / lesser spanchlic nerves + hypogastric plexus - decrease acid secretion
28
What are some of the classic complications of a whipples?
* Delayed gastric emptying * dumping syndrome * brittle diabetes * pancreatic fistula
29
Which part of the pancreas has the highest concentration of langerhans cells
The tail of the pancreas
30
which genetic mutation is associated with hereditory pancreatitis
SPINK1
31
which part of the gastrointestinal tract contains brunners glands
Duodenum
32
what types of mucosa are the most common in meckles diverticulum
Meckles are most commonly lined with ideal mucosa they can also contain gastric and pancreatic mucosa
33
what cells line the epithelium of the majority of the GI tract and what are the exceptions
Most of the GI tract is columnar appart from Oesophagus and anal canal which is squamous
34
What are the branches of the SMA
* Iliocolic artery * right colic * middle colic artery * inferior pancreatodudenum * jejunal * ileal
35
what are the branches of the IMA
* Left colic * Sigmoid * Superior rectal artery
36
What is the only structure the ureters cross?
RULE: the ureters are always crossed by other structures, appart from when it crosses the common ileac
37
what is the order of structures in the hilum of the kidney (anterior to postior)
Renal vein, renal artery, ureter
38
what structures join the IVC directly and what structures join the portal system
Join IVC: * Renals (including suprarenals) * gonadals * Lumbar * Left hepatic * Right Hepatic Join Portal System: * SMV * IMV * Splenic Vein * Gastric veins * Hepatic portal vein (formed from Splenic, IMV, SMV and Gastric veins)
39
What is the blood supply and venous drainage of the adrenal glands?
Blood Supply: 1. Superior suprarenal (inferior phrenic) 2. middle suprarenal (aorta) 3. inferior suprarenal (renal artery) Venous drainage: Right: Right adrenal vein (IVC) Left: Left adrenal vein (left renal vein)
40
what is the blood suppply and venous drainage of the rectum?
Arterial Supply: * Superior rectal (IMA) * Middle rectal (Internal Ileac) * Inferior rectal (Internal pudendal, branch of the internal ileac) Venous Supply: * IMV * Internal Ileac
41
what is the site of absorbtion of vitamin B12 and Folate in the GI tract
distal ileum
42
What do the following facia cover: * Gerotas Fascia * Waldeyers fascia * colles fascia * gallaudets fascia * denovillers fascia * sibsons fascia * bucks fascia
* Gerotas = kidneys * Waldeyers = pre sacral fascia (behind rectum - stopes infection spreading from the rectum to the spine) * Colles = superficial fascia of the perineum * Galleudets = deep peroneal fascia * denovilliers - fascia between prostate and rectum * sibsons - apex of lung * bucks - deep fascia of the penis
43
at what anatomical location do the ureters enter the urinary bladder
posterolateral angles of the trigone of the bladder
44
which colonic polyps have the greatest malignant risk?
villous
45
What are the branches of the internal ileac?
* Inferior and superior vesical arteries (these give rise to artery to vas) * Middle Rectal Artery * Uterine artery * Internal pudendal artery * Obturator artery * superior and inferior gluteal artery * ileolumbar * lateral sacral Regions: buttock, inner leg, peroneum, bladder, uterus and rectum
46
What would be the cause of neurological signs + abdominal pain
Acute intermittent perforia or Lead poisoning
47
What is the urinary diagnostic marker for carcinoid syndrome?
5 hydroxidendolaecitic (5-HIAA)
48
What is SMA syndrome and what are the common symptoms?
This is where the 3rd part of the duodenum gets caught under the SMA Symptoms: * post prandial abdominal pain * nausea and vommiting of partially digested food * weight loss * often relieved by lying prone or to the left * high pitched bowel sounds
49
what is SMA stenosis and what are the common symptoms?
this is where you get calcification of the SMA. Symptoms: * hx of other vascular disease * abdo pain about 1 hour after eating
50
What is the contents of the spermatic cord?
Spermatic Cord contents: 3 fascial layers: external spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia/ muscle, internal spermatic fascia 3 arteries: artery to vas (ductus) deferens, cremasteric artery, testicular artery 3 nerves: ilioinguinal nerve, genital branch of genitofemoral, sympathetic and visceral afferent nerve fibres 3 other: pampiniform plexus, vas deferens, testicular lymphatics
51
What are the boarders of the femoral Triangle and what does it contain?
Boarders: Roof: Fascia Lata Floor: Pectineus, ileopsoas, adductor longus Lateral: Sartorius Medial: Adductor Longus Superior: Inguinal Ligament Contents: * Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve * femoral artery * femoral vein * femoral canal
52
What are the contents of the femoral canal?
lymphatics
53
What are the boarders of the Adductor canal?
**Anteromedial**: Sartorius. **Lateral**: Vastus medialis. **Posterior**: Adductor longus and adductor magnus.
54
What are the contents of the adductor canal?
* femoral artery * femoral vein (posterior to the artery) * nerve to the vastus medialis * saphenous nerve
55
What are the boarders of the femoral canal?
Laterally: Femoral vein Medially: Lacunar ligament Anteriorly: Inguinal ligament Posteriorly: Pectineal ligament
56
What is the gene associated with FAP Syndrome? and what are the symptoms?
Gene: APC gene Features: * Multiple Colonic polyps (adenoma) * age of onset about 30 years old
57
What is the gene associated with Peuz-Jager syndrome? and what are the features?
Gene: STK11 gene Features: * Multiple benign harmatomas * episodic obstruction and intersuseption * increased risk of breast, ovarian, cervical,pancreatic and testicular cancer
58
What is the gene associated with Cowdan sydnrome? and what are the common features?
Gene: PTEN Features: * Multiple harmatomas + Trichlemmones (benign tumour from the outer root of the hair folicule) * associated with breast and thryoid cancer.
59
What is the gene associated with Lynch syndrome? and what are the common features?
Gene: MMR / MSH2 Features: * Fewer polyps * Right sided colonic tumours * Microsatallite instabilities Associated with **Endometrial**, Gastric and pancreatic tumours
60
What is the gene associated with Li Fraumeni syndrome? and what are the common features?
Gene: P53 Features: * asscoiated with sarcomas and leukemias + adrenal tumours
61
What are the features of gardeners sydnrome?
* Epidermoid cysts * papillary thyroid cancers * desmoid tumours * osteomas and fibromas
62
A 34 year old lady undergoes an elective cholecystectomy for attacks of recurrent cholecystitis due to gallstones. Microscopic assessment of the gallbladder is most likely to show what?
Aschoff-Rokitansky sinuses
63
What symptoms do you get in plummer vincent syndrome?
* Iron deficient anemia * Oesophageal webs * dysphasia
64
From what cells do almost all pancreatic cancers arise?
Ductal epithelium
65
what is the blood supply of the pancreas
Head is supplied by the Pancreatoduodenal artery Tail is supplied by the splenic artery
66
If you are presented with a child with abdominal pain, who has a high pitched screem and is drawing their legs up, what is your main differential?
Intersusseption
67
what are the two main differential diagnosis for painful PR Bleeding?
Anal fissure and rectal ulcer syndrome (here you will have an abraision)
68
if the question mentions Melanosis coli is present, what is this a sign of?
Laxitive abuse
69
What are some of the histological features of UC?
* Crypt Abcesses * Pseudopolps * mucosal islands *
70
What is the surgical treatment for UC?
Panproctocolectomy + Ileostomy
71
where do the majority of gall bladder cancers arise?
in the fundus
72
what is the most common type of pancreatic cancer?
adenocarcinoma
73
what vaccinations are reuired post splenctomy?
1. Haemopholis Influenza type B 2. Menigiococal B 3. Pneumococcal 4. Influenza
74
what strucutres are at risk during caecal mobilisation?
gonadal vessels and ureters are most at risk of damge
75
What is the blood supply and venous drainage of the pancreas?
Arterial supply ## Footnote Head: pancreaticoduodenal artery Rest: splenic artery Venous drainage Head: superior mesenteric vein Body and tail: splenic vein
76
What are the structures of the porta hepatis?
Portal vein Hepatic artery Common hepatic duct
77
what are the constrictions of the oesophagus?
Constrictions of the oesophagus : ABCD A- Arch of the Aorta B- Left main Bronchus C- Cricoid Cartilage D- Diaphragmatic Hiatus
78
What is the first line treatment for a muconium ileus?
The first line treatment for uncomplicated cases is enemas of either dilute gastrograffin or N-acetyl cysteine.
79
what is the lymphatic drainage of the prostate?
internal ileac nodes
80
what is the blood supply to the prostate?
inferior vesical
81
What are the common features of carcinoid syndrome?
CARCinoid: * Cutaneous flushing * Asthmatic wheezing * Right sided valvular heart lesions * Cramping and diarhorrea
82
in a male Where is the first site of resistance to be encountered on inserting the catheter?
The membrenous urethra
83
What is the longest part of the male urethra?
Spongy urethra
84
What composition of renal stone is most common in staghorn calculi
Stuvate
85
What composition of renal stone is most common in malignancy
uric acid
86
What is the most common composition of renal stone
Calcium oxalate
87
What composition renal stones are radio-opaque
Calcium Oxalate Calcium Pyrophosphate Cystine
88
What composition of renal stone is most common in renal tubular acidosis
Calcium pyrophosphate
89
What tumour markers are raised in seminomas and non seminomatous testicular cancers?
Seminomas = HCG raised in 10%. AFP normal Non seminometous = AFP raised. HCG raised in 40%
90
what is the treatment of testicular cancer?
Inguinal orchidectomy + post operative chemotherapy
91
What is the treatment of adrenal adnenomas?
* \<2-4cm and non functioning: dishcarge * 4-6cm and non functioning: discuss possible removal * 4-6cm and functioning: laparoscopic removal * If \>6cm: remove open
92
What are the histological features / endoscopic feature of Crohns?
* Non caseating granulomas * Goblet cells * transmural inflamation * cobblestone appearence
93
What is the main blood supply to the omentum?
Gastroepiploic artery
94
Which vessels provides the greatest contribution to the arterial supply of the breast?
Internal Mammary Artery
95
Which nerve is the primary source of innervation to the scrotal skin?
* Anterior skin: Illioinguinal nerve + small contribution from genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve * Posterior Skin: Pudendal nerve
96
97
What type of liver pathology is common in patients who have worked in a PVC factory?
Angiosarcoma (or Hepatocellular carcinoma)
98
What cancers is BRACA1 gene associated with?
Breast and ovarian cancer
99
A 46 year old lady presents with symptoms of diarrhoea, weight loss of 10 Kg and a skin rash of erythematous blisters involving the abdomen and buttocks. The blisters have an irregular border and both intact and ruptured vesicles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
glucagonoma - these are associated with necrolytic erythema
100
Which organ is affected by a Klatskin tumour
bile ducts
101
at what anatomical site does anatomical sites does dormant tuberculosis most frequently reactivate?
apex of the lung
102
If a patient has portal hypertension or varices what can be given to reduce the portal pressure?
Turlopressin
103
What can increase gastric emptying post vagotomy
Erythromycin (Metoclopermides effects are decreased)
104
What is goodsals rule with regards to fistula in ano?
Anterior fistulae will tend to have an internal opening opposite the external opening. Posterior fistulae will tend to have a curved track that passes towards the midline.
105
what is the normal size of the CBD?
less than 6mm
106
where in the body is the most water reabsorbed?
Jejunum
107
what agent can increase the rate of empyting in a vagotamised stomach
erythromycin
108
what are the branches of the external iliac artery
inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac and femoral arteries (profunda femoris is a branch of the femoral)
109
what structures are contained within the hepatoduodenal ligament
* bile duct * portal vein * hepatic artery *
110
what is the blood supply of the omentum
gastroepiploic artery
111
Which sign is commonly present in a patient with retroperitoneal haemorrage?
grey turners sign
112
which sign would you commonly see in a patient with an intraperitoneal haemorrage or pancreatitis?
cullens sign
113
where are gastrinomas most commonly found
duodenum (50%) Pancreas (20%) - these are commonly solitary and display malignant behaviour
114
what is zollinger elison syndrome composed of
1. Non beta islet cell tumours of the pancreas 2. Hypergastrinaemia 3. Severe ulcer disease
115
what percentage of patients with colorectal cancer have a synchronus cancer?
5%
116
what are the Extraintestinal manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease?
* Aphthous ulcers * Pyoderma gangrenosum * Iritis * Erythema nodosum * Sclerosing cholangitis * Arthritis * Clubbing
117
what hepatobiliary disorders are most classically associated with ulcerative colitis?
Primary sclerosing cholangiits
118
which portion of the pancreas lies between the aorta and the SMA
uncinate process
119
what are the most common benign tumour of the oesophagus
leiomyoma's
120
where are peyers patches most commonly found?
ileum
121
how common are parastomal hernias
they occur in 10% of colostomies
122
what is the common position of the inferior epigastric vessels to direct hernias
direct hernias are most common in hasslebachs triangle. Here the epigastric vessels would be lateal to the hernia
123
what is a krunkenburg tumour
A Krukenberg tumor refers to a malignancy in the ovary that metastasized from a primary site, classically the gastrointestinal tract
124
what is the order of structures from anterior to posterior in the porta hepatis
common hepatic duct, hepatic artery and the portal vein (most posterior)
125
At what anatomical level does the aorta bifurcate?
L4
126
what is the most common cause of intersusception in children?
1. Hypertrophic Peyers patches (80%) 2. Meckles diverticulum (10%)
127
what are peyers patches and where are they found
these are aggregates of lymphoid tissue found in the small bowel
128
Which hernias are found in the following positions: 1. below and lateral to the pubic tubercle 2. above and medial to pubic tubercle
1. below and lateral to the pubic tubercle - femoral hernia 2. above and medial to pubic tubercle - inguinal hernia
129
Splenectomy increases your risk of infection to which organisms?
1. Pneumococcus 2. Meningococcus 3. H. Influenza
130
What is the most common composition of gallstones in a patient with crohns
Cholesterol
131
descibribe the differences between the ileum and the jejunan in terms of: 1. Site 2. Lumen 3. Arcades 4. Vasa recta
Jejunum: 1. Site - Left 2. Lumen - wide lumen and thick walled 3. Arcades: Less Arcades 4. Vasa recta: Long vasa recta Ileum: 1. Site - Right 2. Lumen - Narrow and thin walled 3. Arcades: more arcades 4. Vasa recta: short vasa recta
132
If there was a tumour in the transverse colon, which structure should be ligated close to its origin to maximise clearance of the tumour
Middle colic artery
133
What is the treatment of a carcinoid tumour
* Smaller than 1 cm and asymptomatic – local excision * Bigger than 2 cm – small-bowel resection and lymphatic clearance * Carcinoid syndrome (by definition metastatic) and other advanced disease – palliative
134
Where does fluid from a perforated peptic ulcer normally collect
Right paracollic gutter
135
Stimulation from which nerve causes gall bladder contraction
Vagus nerve
136
What is the blood supply of the gall bladder
Cystic artery (from the right hepatic artery)
137
What is the management of splenic lacerations
Grade 1 - laceration \<1cm + \<10% haematoma. Treatment = Conservative Grade 2 - Laceration 1-2cm + 10-80% haematoma. Treatment = Conservative Grade 3 - Grade 2 + intraparencymal bleed. Treatemnt if stable = observe. If undsatble = IR or pack Grade 4 - Grade 3 + hilar injury. Treatment = IR Grade 5 - shattered spleen. Treatment = Splenectomy
138
139
What is the blood supply to the omentum
Gastroepiploic arteries
140
What is the treatment of NEC?
Most are treated conservatively. If they dont settle conservatively you may have to undertake a laparotomy
141
What is the most common viral infection a patient gets following a solid organ transplant
Cytomegalovirus
142
What is the treatment for anal cancer
1. Chemoradiotherapy 2. APER
143
What is the treatment for a toxic mega colon
Subtotal collectomy + end ileostomy
144
What is an annular pancreas
This is a pancreas that wraps round the second part of the duodenum
145
From which muscle does the conjoint tendon arise
the internal oblique
146
which portion of the ascending and descending colon is retroperitoneal
the posterior surface
147
what macroscopic change is noted at the transition point of the sigmoid colon and the upper rectum?
at this point the teniae fuse
148
Where does the Foregut, Midgut and Hindgut begin / end
Foregut: Stomach and 1st part of the duodenum Midgut: 2nd part of the duodenum to ⅔ the way along the transverse colon Hindgut: distal ⅓ of the transverse colon to the anus
149
Where does the middle colic vein and the inferior mesenteric vein drain to
Middle colic drains to the Superior Mesenteric vein → Portal vein →SVC Inferior mesenteric vein drains to the Splenic vein → portal vein → SVC
150
what two arteries does the marginal artery connect
the SMA and the IMA
151
What is the nervous innervation of the internal and external anal sphincter
internal sphincter → Sympathetic nerves external sphincter → S2,3,4
152
Where do the testicular arteries arise from and where do the testicular veins drain to
Arteries: Arise from the aorta Veins: * Left drains in to the left renal veins * right drains to the IVC
153
What is found in the red and white pulp of the spleen?
White pulp - contains immune cells + Central trabecular artery. red pulp - contains vessels
154
What is the blood supply of the right and left lobe of the liver
Right → Right hepatic artery Left → left hepatic artery
155
How many liver lobes are there?
Right lobe (Segments 5,6,7,8) Left Lobe (2, 3) Quadrate lobe (segment 4 - anatomically part of the right lobe but functionally part of the left lobe) Caudate Lobe (segment 1 - part of the left lobe)
156
how many liver segments are there and in which lobe are these segments found?
There are 8 segments of the liver Right lobe: 5-8 +/- segment 1 Left Lobe: 2-4 +/- Segment 1 Segment 1 is the Caudate Lobe Segment 4 includes the quadrate lobe
157
How many ligaments are there in the liver?
5 ligmaments: Falciform Ligment - divides left and right lobes Round ligament - fibrous cord at the free edge of the falciform ligament Coronary Ligament - connects liver to the diaphragm superiorly Left Triangular ligament - connects left corner of the liver ot the diaphragm Right triangular ligament - connects the right corner of the liver to the diaphragm
158
What is the ligament teres in the liver?
This is a cord like ligmaent found in the falciform ligament that is a remnant of the umbilical vein
159
what is the ligament venous
a remnant of the ductus venosus

MRCS Other (19 decks)

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