DOH Health Programs Flashcards

1
Q

National TB Control Program key initiatives?

A
  1. Generate financial support
  2. Community participation
  3. TB task forces formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In the national TB program, DOTS stand for?

A

Directly Observed Treatment , Short-course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rifampicin side-effects?

A
  1. Orange or red-orange discoloration of body fluids (including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears)
  2. Gastrointestinal effects ( nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)
  3. Central Nervous System Effects ( Headache, fever)
  4. Dermatologic effects ( rash, itching, flushing)
  5. Hematologic effects ( thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, and acute hemolytic anemia)
  6. Pruritus (with or without rash)
  7. Flu like syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Primary diagnostic test for PTB?

A

Xpert MTB / Rif

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cut off for a positive TST in children regardless of BCG status?

A

10mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cut off for positive TST in immunocompromised patients?

A

5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A TB isolate was found to be resistant to both ethambutol and pyrazinamide . What is the classification based on drug resistance ?

A

Polydrug Resistant TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This is defined as resistance to both isoniazid and rifampicin?

A

Multidrug resistant TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In addition to resistance to isoniazid and Rifampicin, an isolate has additional resistance to Levofloxacin and Streptomycin. This is classified as?

A

Extensively Drug- Resistant TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The estrogen should be ________ in OC taken by patients being treated for TB infection.

A

Higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Level of ALT which warrants interruption of TB Treatment when seen together with signs of hepatitis?

A

3 x ULN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Level of ALT which warrants interruption of TB Treatment even without signs of hepatitis?

A

5x ULN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The goal for anti-malarial program?

A

By 2022 , Malaria transmission will have been interrupted in all provinces except Palawan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Characteristics of Aedes mosquito?

A
  1. Flying range about 400 meters
  2. Found in all continents except Antarctica
  3. Thrive most in contaminated , murky water
  4. Peak biting periods are early in the morning and in the evening before dusk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dengue virus features?

A
  1. With known placental transfer
  2. Four serotypes
  3. Spread by Aedes mosquito
  4. Not known to spread through breast milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Best way to eliminate dengue?

A

Vector control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Manifestations of severe dengue?

A

BPO : Severe bleeding, Severe Plasma leakage, Severe organ impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Erythematous maculopapular rash or morbiliform eruptions seen during the recovery phase of dengue infection ?

A

Herman’s Rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Role of DOH in the National Rabies Prevention & Control Program ?

A
  1. Ensure adequate supply of human anti-rabies vaccine in animal bite centers
  2. Provide post-exposure prophylaxis at minimum expense to individuals bitten
  3. Develop and maintain a human rabies surveillance system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A 10 yo / M was licked by his pet dog while feeding, he has no pre-existing wounds. This falls under what category of rabies exposure?

A

Category I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For Category I exposure to rabies , what vaccines should be given?

A

No vaccine or RIG needed. Pre-exposure prophylaxis for high risk individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Minor abrasions on the thigh secondary to dog bite may be categorized as what type of exposure?

A

Category II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

For Category II rabies exposure, what vaccines should be administered?

A

Rabies vaccine and Tetanus Vaccine depending on the previous tetanus immunization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Exposure to bats , ingestion of infected meat, and unprotected handling of carcasses are all categorized under what type of rabies exposure?

A

Category III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If their multiple transdermal dog bites, the patients should receive the following immunization?

A
  1. Rabies vaccine
  2. RIG
  3. Tetanus immunization based on the tetanus immunization status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Hypo-pigmented plaque with absence of sweating and pinprick sensation?

A

Hansens Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Spread via both droplet and airborne transmission?

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The most appropriate period to perform newborn screening ?

A

24-72 hrs of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

For infants needing intensive care, the 3 day rule may not be followed as long as testing done is within _______ days.

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When is the appropriate time to administer newborn hearing screening in hospital born patient?

A

On or after 24 hrs of life before discharged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hearing screening for out of hospital born infants should be done not later than what age?

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Vaccine given to newborns?

A

BCG, Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe BCG vaccine? (4)

A
  1. Active immunity
  2. Live attenuated vaccine
  3. Protection lasts for 20 years
  4. Vaccination scar is a result of amount of inflammation caused by the persons immune response and the persons healing ability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A fully immunized child is defined as an infant who received the following: (4)

A

a. 1 dose of BCG
b. 3 doses of Pentavax
c. 3 doses of OPV
d. 1 dose of Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pentavalent vaccine includes the following: (5)

A
  1. Diphtheria
  2. Pertusis
  3. Tetanus
  4. Hepatitis B
  5. Haemophilus B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

MNCHN strategy by DOH ?

A

Maternal Newborn Child Health and Nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Program components of the Mandatory Food Fortification program of DOH involving addition of one or more essential micronutrients to food to prevent demonstrated deficiency in a specific population?

A
  1. Salt Iodization
  2. Rice fortification with iron
  3. Cooking oil fortification with vit A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Micronutrients in nutrition?

A
  • Include vit A, C, E
  • Minerals: Iron Zinc Iodine
  • Nutrients measured in milligrams
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Macronutrients in nutrition?

A
  1. Protein
  2. Carbohydrates
  3. Lipids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Food items requiring Vit A fortification?

A
  1. Wheat flour
  2. Refined Sugar
  3. Cooking oil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Food items requiring iron fortification?

A
  1. Rice
  2. Wheat flour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Uses of data generated from the Operation Timbang Plus program of DOH?

A
  1. Determine magnitude and prevalence of malnutrition in the area.
  2. Submission to local executives for recording and funding purposes.
  3. Identify families that will compose the priority beneficiaries of the nitrition program.
  4. Locate and identify preschoolers who are wasted, stunted, under / overweight ( least important among the 4 mentioned)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Five infectious food and waterborne diseases in the Philippines?

A

(CHART )
Cholera
Hepatitis
Acute bloody diarrhea
Rotavirus
Typhoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Most common symptom of food and water borne disease?

A

Diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Etiologic agent in the pathogenesis of diarrhea where microbes cause damages in epithelial cell surface , thereby producing grossly bloody stool.

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Most threatening consequence of diarrhea?

A

Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Drug of Choice for Filariasis ?

A

Diethycarbamazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Drug of choice for schistosomiasis ?

A

Praziquantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Proportion of children 12-71 months old and are only fit during given point in time:

A

Orally Fit Child (OFC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Most common parasite infesting Filipino children?

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

51
Q

Most common complication of severe Ascariasis among school-aged children?

A

Lung infiltration

52
Q

Program features of the Integrated Helminth Control Program?

A
  1. School based teacher assisted helminth control program is done twice a year using benzimidazoles (Albendazole , Mebendazole) and was among the most effective public health interventions.
  2. Reduce by 50% the prevalence of soil transmitted helminths in children aged 1-12 years old.
  3. Other components of targeted mass deworming include Health education and WASH ( Provision of Safe Water, Environmental Sanitation and Personal Hygiene)
53
Q

Current Situation of the Integrated Helminth Control Program in the Ph?

A
  1. According to the DepEd , the drug coverage rate in four of the six sentinel sites in July 2009 was 82.3% ( greater than the WHO target MDA coverage)
  2. In the 2008 accomplishment report from NCDPC, the overall drug coverage rate of IHCP was at 43% which is below the WHO recommended coverage of 75% or the IHCP Target of 85%.
  3. DOH National Center for Disease Prevention and Control (NCDPC) integrated the STH Control Program, Garantisadong Pambata and Filariasis and Schistosomiasis Control Programs into the IHCP in recognition of the factors that contributed to the low levels of intestinal helminths , the disparity of parasite infections among regions and in consideration of the prohibitive cost of interventions for local governments.
54
Q

Stakeholders of the Integrated Helminth Control Program?

A
  1. DOH
  2. LGU
  3. DepEd
  4. DSWD
  5. International Agencies :
    a. Swedish International Development Corporation Agency
    b. World-Bank Water Sanitation Program
  6. Academic Institutions
  7. Private Sector:
    a. Media
    b. Socio-civic groups
    c. NGOs
55
Q

Organ Donation components and Features?

A
  1. To help : Primary reason to donate organ
  2. All expenses related to donation and follow-up care must be reimbursed to the donor
  3. The rewards maybe considered paying for the organ. If it becomes an undue incentive
56
Q

Most common mode of transmission of HIV?

A

Unprotected Sex

57
Q

Features of blood donation program?

A
  1. Voluntary
  2. Anonymity between donor and recipient
  3. Donor to check his blood type
58
Q

STD caused by haemophilus ducreyi and presents as painful ulcer on glans penis?

A

Chancroid

59
Q

Activities included in the health program of the occupational health service in the workplace?

A
  1. Maintenance of a healthful work environment .
  2. Diagnosis and treatment of all injuries and occupational/ non-occupational diseases.
  3. Immunization program
  4. Nutrition program
60
Q

Hazardous workplace examples?

A
  1. Construction areas
  2. Stevedoring , dock work, deep sea fishing
  3. Work conditions with ionizing radiation , chemicals , etc.
61
Q

Occupational hazard:
Poorly designed work environment cause workers to assume awkward posturing during work.

A

Ergonomic

62
Q

The most effective way to control hazards?

A

Elimination

63
Q

What type of hazard control is utilized when hours of exposure to noise is minimized by decreasing hours per shift?

A

Administrative control

64
Q

Ventilation systems, radiation protection, and safety interlocks are examples of what type of hazard control?

A

Engineering controls

65
Q

In the Philippines, the permissible exposure level for noise is ____db for _____ hours.

A

90dB for 8 hours

66
Q

Sound intensity recognized as the threshold for pain?

A

120 dB

67
Q

The most important and the only means to maintain body temperature?

A

Evaporation

68
Q

Mechanism of heat transfer through wave motion independent of any conduction medium?

A

Radiation

69
Q

Mechanism of heat transfer by movement of heated fluid such as air or water?

A

Convection

70
Q

Transfer of heat through direct contact ?

A

Conduction

71
Q

Maximum occupational exposure to hazardous chemicals?

A

Level of admissible exposure for 8 hours a day or 40hrs a week

72
Q

Least effective form of control in occupational health and safety?

A

Personal protective equipment

73
Q

The most common site of serious contact with an environmental hazard?

A

Lungs

74
Q

A marine engineer experienced severe muscle spasms while fixing the ships engine. He was profusely sweating but his core temperature is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Heat cramps

75
Q

An 18 yo/ F suddenly collapsed during the mandatory training’s opening ceremony held at an open field. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Heat syncope

76
Q

This refers to any condition which results from sudden change in the environmental pressure exceeding the body’s capacity to adapt?

A

Dysbarism

77
Q

A patient came in for a preemployment clearance, all clinical and physical findings were normal. What is the patient’s classification?

A

Class A

78
Q

A patient had mild hearing loss on both ears , the rest of the findings were normal. What is the patients classification?

A

Class B

79
Q

What is the classification of a patient that is employable but with conditions owing to an impairment?

A

Class C

80
Q

Classification of a patient who is unfit or unsafe for any type of work?

A

Class D

81
Q

Policies and Programs on Mental Health in the workplace ?

A
  1. Raise awareness on mental health issues.
  2. Corrects sigma and discriminations.
  3. Facilitates access of individual with mental health conditions to treatment and psychosocial support.
82
Q

The single most important test to determine water safety?

A

Bacteriological testing

83
Q

Water source should be placed ar least how many meters from any source of pollution , storage of radioactive materials, and area for bathing and washing?

A

25 meters

84
Q

This household method uses aluminum sulfate crystals to form precipitates then settle at the bottom?

A

Flocculation and Sedimentation

85
Q

What household method of water treatment involves transfer of water from one container to another or stirring to cause turbulence?

A

Aeration

86
Q

Chemicals commonly used for household treatment of water?

A

Chlorine and Iodine

87
Q

Most common cause of diarrhea in <28 months old?

A

Viral

88
Q

Causative agent most responsible for food borne disease outbreaks in the Philippines?

A

Bacterial

89
Q

Water-related disease transmitted by drinking contaminated water?

A

Water borne disease

90
Q

What type of water-related disease is associated with poor hygiene and domestic cleaning?

A

Water-washed disease

91
Q

Schistosomiasis & Leptospirosis are classified as under what type of water-related disease?

A

Water-based disease

92
Q

Water related disease transmitted by insects harboring in water?

A

Water related insect-vector disease

93
Q

Chlorination alone will suffice if the bacterial quality is less than ____ coliforms / 100ml.

A

50

94
Q

The bacterial quality of the water source is 50-5,000 coliform/ mL. What is the treatment needed?

A

Standard complete treatment

95
Q

Treatment needed for bacterial quality of 5,000-50,000 ?

A

Double treatment

96
Q

Bacterial quality of _______ coliform / mL warrants an alternative water source.

A

> 50,000

97
Q

At 200-600 rem, what system is mostly involved?

A

Hematopoietic

98
Q

Ra ge of radiation exposure with high fatality rate wherein GI and CNS symptoms predominate.

A

600-1000 rem

99
Q

RED in biological waste management?

A

Sharps & Pressurized containers

100
Q

YELLOW in biological waste management?

A

Infectious / Pathological waste

101
Q

Chemical waste including heavy metals are disposed using color?

A

Yellow with black band

102
Q

Chemical wastes including heavy metals are disposed using this color?

A

Yellow with black band

103
Q

Radioactive waste is disposed using this bag color?

A

Orange

104
Q

Non-infectious dry waste is disposed using this bag color?

A

Black

105
Q

Method of waste disposal where animal manures are subjected to combustion, producing methane to become a power source?

A

Incineration

106
Q

This disposal method uses controlled burning with extremely high temperatures?

A

Incineration

107
Q

The only method of disposing radioactive wastes safetly?

A

Landfills

108
Q

Give details about Lactation amenorrhea method of contraception?

A
  1. Exclusive breast feeding
  2. Feeding for every 4 hours in day and at least every 6 hours at night
  3. Infant less than six months old
  4. Mother with menstruation 56 days postpartum
109
Q

Classified under medium risk category for COVID-19 exposure?

A
  1. Constant exposure to a large number of people
  2. Providing care to general public not known or suspected COVID-19 patients.
  3. Working as staff areas within a health facility such as triaging patients in OPD , Social Service, RHUs / BHS, Birthing clinic, ambulatory clinic.
110
Q

Populations included in category A1-3 for COVID-19 vaccination?

A

Frontline workers in health facilities, senior citizens, persons with co-morbidities.

111
Q

Health declaration form for returning workers after COVID quarantine?

A
  1. History of exposure
  2. History of travel
  3. Presence of symptoms
112
Q

True regarding COVID-19 vaccines for pregnant women?

A

mRNA COVID-19 vaccine series during pregnancy can help protect babies younger than 6 months from hospitalization due to COVID-19.

113
Q

Quarantine length for asymptomatic fully vaccinated patients with exposure to a COVID-19 patient?

A

At least 5 days from the date of the last exposure

114
Q

Under RA 11332, non-cooperation to contact tracing after being exposed to a positive covid-19 case can result to?

A
  1. Monetary penalty of not less than 20,000 php but not more than 50,000phpor imprisonment of not less than one month , but not more than 6 months.
  2. Suspension or revocation of license to practice by PRC.
  3. Revocation of Civil Service eligibility by the Civil Service Commission.
115
Q

A swab for COVID-19 ideally involves obtaining samples from?

A

1 nostril

116
Q

Herbal plant used for Ascariasis?

A

Niyog-niyogan ( Quisqualis indica)

117
Q

Herbal plant used to lower blood uric acid?

A

Ulasimang bato ( Peperomia pelucida)

118
Q

Herbal medicine used for urolithiasis?

A

Sambong ( Blumia balsamifera)

119
Q

Herbal medicine used for scabies, ringworm?

A

Akapulko ( Senna alata)

120
Q

Herbal medicine used for diabetes?

A

Ampalaya ( Momordica charantia)

121
Q

Herbal medicine used for high cholesterol?

A

Bawang ( Allium sativum)

122
Q

Herbal medicine used for rheumatism?

A

Yerba buena ( Clinopodium douglasii)

123
Q

Herbal medicine used for abdominal pain?

A

Tsaang gubat ( Carmona retusa)