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Domain review > Domain 4 > Flashcards

Domain 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which training system is the peripheral heart action system a variation of:

A

Circuit training

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2
Q

Which is not a balance stabilization exercise?

A

Single-leg squat

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3
Q

Neuromuscular specificity is best described as:

A

The speed of contraction and exercise selection

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4
Q

The three phases of plyometric training are:

A

Eccentric, amortization, concentric

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5
Q

Corrective flexibility’s purpose is:

A

To improve muscle imbalances, range of motion, and altered joint motions

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6
Q

Circuit training is best defined as:

A

A series of exercises with minimal rest

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7
Q

Which mechanism occurs during active isolated stretching?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

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8
Q

Which best describes quickness?

A

The ability to react with velocity to a stimulus and appropriately change the motion of the body

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9
Q

What type of flexibility is static stretching considered?

A

Corrective flexibility

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10
Q

Which of these is a balance stabilization exercise?

A

Single-leg hip rotation

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11
Q

How is neuromuscular efficiency developed with balance training?

A

By simulating unstable yet controllable environments

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12
Q

Which is an example of core stabilization exercises?

A

Marching

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13
Q

What is a common mistake with form while doing a floor bridge?

A

Raising hips too far off the floor

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14
Q

How does BOSU ball training increase exercise intensity?

A

. It decreases stability

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15
Q

Which phases of the OPT model should be cycled between for body fat reduction?

A

Phases 1 and 2

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16
Q

What is the best description of horizontal loading?

A

Performing all the sets of one exercise or body part before you move on to the next exercise or body part

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17
Q

Which of these is an example of cardio training for stage 2 clients?

A

5 minute warm-up, 1 minute Zone 2, 3 minutes Zone 1, 1 minute Zone 2, 3 minutes Zone1

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18
Q

How should a trainer recognize if someone needs to go from zone 3 to zone 2 during cardio?

A

Check heart rate during the 1 minute break after 1 minute of training in Zone 3

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19
Q

Which SAQ drill is the best for weight loss clients?

A

Circuits

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20
Q

Which best describes mechanical specificity?

A

The resistance and number of reps

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21
Q

Which is a common mistake with form during the push up?

A

Stomach falling toward the ground

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22
Q

Which of the factors doesn’t influence balance?

A

Weight

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23
Q

What is a benefit of suspension body weight training?

A

Low compressive load to the spine

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24
Q

Which type of resistance training is beneficial for clients starting out?

A

Single sets

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25
Q

Which is true in regards to the principle of adaptation?

A

Adaptation is the primary goal of workout programs

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26
Q

The amortization phase of plyometric training:

A

Occurs between both the eccentric and concentric phases and involves dynamic stabilization

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27
Q

Reactive training enhances all of these neuromuscular responses except for:

A

Joint stability

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28
Q

In what OPT model phase can medicine balls be most beneficial?

A

Power

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29
Q

Which foundation of training should be established before strength training with a client?

A

Stabilization

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30
Q

What is the RPE equivalent of training in zone 3 cardio?

A

17-19

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31
Q

What is the normal window of time for delayed onset muscle soreness to occur?

A

24 to 72 hours after intense exercise

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32
Q

What is the main muscular role of the transverse abdominus in regard to working with the internal obliques?

A

To isometrically stabilize the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex

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33
Q

Which workout shows the best strength training for muscular endurance?

A

2 minutes of exercise with minimal/body weight, 30 seconds of rest, Repeat 12 times with different exercises, 15 minutes on the step machine

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34
Q

Which cardio machine needs to be avoided if your feet turn out?

A

Stair climber

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35
Q

Which of these is a cause of muscle imbalance?

A

Emotional stress

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36
Q

Which exercise should not be performed if the client has a posterior pelvic tilt?

A

Floor crunch

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37
Q

How do SAQ drills assist clients with weight loss goals?

A

SAQ training uses intervals of high intensity and exercise enjoyment increases

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38
Q

Which exercise best shows a strength level resistance exercise?

A

Seated two-arm dumbbell biceps curl

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39
Q

Which of these is a concern during the ball crunch exercise?

A

Tilting the chin up toward the ceiling

40
Q

How do we define agility in training?

A

Agility is the capacity to accelerate, decelerate/stabilize, and change direction

41
Q

Reciprocal inhibition is:

A

A muscle’s contraction is accompanied by its agonist’s relaxation

42
Q

Which SAQ drill is most appropriate for seniors?

A

Hurdle Step-Overs with various-sized cones

43
Q

What should a client do if there is tingling felt in the arm during an active upper trap/scalene stretch?

A

Decrease the range of motion and ensure a neutral head position

44
Q

Which is the best description of altered reciprocal inhibition?

A

Tight agonist muscles impede their antagonist muscle, causing muscular inhibition

45
Q

A workout with 45 second bursts of near max effort and the 3 minutes rest and repeat is an example of what training type?

A

Interval training

46
Q

Which is not true regarding the benefits of SAQ training with older adults?

A

It promotes the progression of sarcopenia

47
Q

How does the OPT model use active-isolated stretches?

A

They can be part of a warm-up if no postural distortion pattern is present

48
Q

In what plane does the lateral tube walking dynamic stretch occur in?

A

Frontal

49
Q

How can a fitness professional prevent clients from overtraining?

A

Ensuring the appropriate rest periods between training sessions

50
Q

Which is not a stage of general adaptation syndrome?

A

Recovery

51
Q

What does FITTE stand for?

A

Frequency, intensity, time, type, enjoyment

52
Q

Golfer’s elbow is what type of injury?

A

Pattern overload

53
Q

Clients who want strength gains should do cardio in what zone?

A

Zone 2

54
Q

How does the OPT model use active flexibility?

A

Active flexibility is used within Phases 2, 3, and 4 to improve soft tissue’s extensibility and neuromuscular efficiency

55
Q

How does the OPT model use mechanical specificity?

A

Mechanical specificity is used to determine the weight and the reps used in relation to the goals

56
Q

How are knots in muscles explained by Davies law?

A

Soft tissue molds along lines of strain and is rebuilt with collagen tissues that resist stretching in that line

57
Q

Which training system is best for someone with cardiovascular disease?

A

Peripheral heart action system

58
Q

What is a common form mistake on the bicep curl machine?

A

Leaning torso back to use momentum

59
Q

Which is not a reason why single set system training can be beneficial for an individual?

A

It focuses solely on the eccentric contraction of an exercise

60
Q

What type of resistance training system is being used when an individual performs a dumbbell incline press, and then immediately follows with a push up?

A

Superset system

61
Q

Why is “multiplanar single leg box hop down with stabilization” a balance power exercise?

A

The exercise utilizes multiple planes of motion and requires force production followed by stabilization

62
Q

Which of these is a sign of overtraining?

A

Stress fracture

63
Q

Which is a common mistake occurring during a static upper trap/scalene stretch?

A

Elevating the shoulder

64
Q

Which of these muscles causes a decrease in neural drive of the glute max?

A

Psoas

65
Q

The core muscles can be divided into what three groups?

A

Local Stabilization System, Global Stabilization System, Movement System

66
Q

In which cardio zone does a person maintain a heart rate of 65-75% of heart rate max?

A

Zone 1

67
Q

What is the RPE equivalent of training in zone 2 cardio?

A

14-16

68
Q

Which altered joint mechanic is present in pronation distortion syndrome?

A

Increased knee adduction

69
Q

What’s another name for the SAID principle?

A

The principle of specificity

70
Q

What RPE would a client be at if they are in zone 1 during a cardio workout?

A

12-13

71
Q

Which of these is a contraindicated hamstring stretch?

A

Straight-leg toe touch

72
Q

What is the importance of stabilization training for force production?

A

It is needed for kinetic chain efficiency and an increased rate of force production

73
Q

Which muscle contracts during the drawing in maneuver?

A

Transverse abdominis

74
Q

Dynamic stretching can also be defined as:

A

Stretching that simulates normal and functional movement

75
Q

Which is a common mistake during the reverse crunch?

A

Swinging the legs

76
Q

which category is self myofascial release not a part of?

A

Dynamic flexibility

77
Q

How does self myofascial release improves some muscle imbalances?

A

Golgi tendon organs get stimulated in order to create autogenic inhibition and reduce the tension

78
Q

A client with upper crossed syndrome is using the elliptical trainer. What postural deviation should be watched out for?

A

Protruding head

79
Q

SAID stands for:

A

Specific adaptation to imposed demands

80
Q

What type of stretching needs to be avoided if postural distortions are present?

A

Active-isolated stretching

81
Q

Which is not an example of the peripheral heart action system?

A

Squat, 2. Romanian deadlift, 3. Front lunge, 4. Push-up

82
Q

Altered reciprocal inhibition is:

A

When an agonist muscle is tight and causes less neural drive to its antagonist

83
Q

What is the minimum number of time you should sustain pressure eon a tender spot when performing self myofascial release?

A

30 seconds

84
Q

At what point is the ventilatory threshold present?

A

The level at which oxygen uptake increases slower than ventilation increases

85
Q

Why should the hips be tilted to support the stretch of the psoas in an active kneeling hip flexor stretch?

A

Posteriorly

86
Q

Which is not a sign of overtraining?

A

Muscle soreness

87
Q

How long should the rest period between each exercise be during a vertical loading session?

A

Little to no rest

88
Q

Which of these is pattern overload?

A

Extended periods of sitting every day

89
Q

Sarcopenia is described best as:

A

Age-related loss of skeletal muscle mass

90
Q

What viewpoint should the trainer take when a client is performing the ball dumbbell chest press?

A

From the side

91
Q

What are characteristics of plyometric stabilization exercises?

A

Little joint motion, hold landing for 3-5 seconds, adjust posture

92
Q

How many zones are there in cardio training?

A

Three zones

93
Q

Which of these cardio fitness methods is subjective?

A

Rating of perceived exertion (RPE) method

94
Q

What is an underactive muscle typically considered to be?

A

Lengthened and weak

95
Q

Which of these SAQ drills are appropriate for seniors?

A

Stand-up to figure 8

Domain review (6 decks)

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