DQ's Flashcards
(324 cards)
1
Q
The 701D engine on the UH-60M has the DECs or EDECUs that replace the ECUs found in the UH-60A. The DECs or EDECUs improve transient droop compensation how? Explain how and when the DEC limits TGT.
A
Compensates droop during some maneuvers by monitoring engine torque, collective rate of change, and NR rate of change.
The temperature limiting system limits fuel flow when the TGT reaches the dual engine 10 minute limiting value of approximately 879°C. The automatic contingency power limiting will switch to a higher single-engine 2½ minute temperature limiting value of approximately 903°C when the opposite Q is less than 50%.
*** The DEC commands the HMU to limit fuel when TGT reaches its limiting value.
Dual engine TGT 879 +/- 9
Contingency TGT 903 +/- 10
2
Q
Explain when the EDECU limits TGT.
A
When the EDECU senses excessive rotor/NP droop. On engines with the EDECU installed, the TGT will bypass the 10 minute limiter and limit at the 2.5 minute contingency power setting when any of the following conditions are met: NP drops below 96%; greater than 3% droop between reference NP and actual NP; greater than 5% per second NP droop rate exists and NP less than or equal to NP reference speed. Unlike the DEC, the EDECU is not dependent on the other engine’s Q being less than 50%.
*** Dual engine TGT 879 +/- 9
Contingency TGT 903 +/- 10
3
Q
What are DEC/EDECU fault codes? How are DEC/EDECU fault codes displayed?
A
If a failure occurred on a selected input signal, the failed component or related circuit will be identified by a pre-selected fault code displayed as a Q value. These are also displayed on the FMS DEC status page. They are displayed for 4seconds on, 2 seconds off, starting with the lowest code and rotating through all applicable codes, then repeating the cycle. They will only be displayed 30 seconds after both engines are shutdown with AC power applied.
4
Q
Discuss the controls and functions of the digital ICS Panel.
a. ICS-
b. VOX-
c. HOT MIC-
d. CALL-
e. RMT-
f. BU-
g. ICU status light-
A
a. ICS- Default mode enabled after initialization of the ICS is complete.
b. VOX- Provides for hands-off and foot-off voice activated keying.
c. HOT MIC- Provides for constant keying of the ICS interphone or PVT interphone.
d. CALL- Overrides all other interphone communications at all operator stations, except for warnings and alerts.
e. RMT- Enables RAD SEL switch on th collective sticks for radio and selections.
f. BU- Provides both pilots the capability to bypass the ICS digital bus and function in a degraded analog mode. In BU mode only, the pilot can hear incoming transmissions over the COM 2 radio; the copilot can hear incoming transmissions over the COM 3 radio.
g. ICU status light- Illumination indicates that the digital link between that ICS panel and the ICU has been broken.
5
Q
The ICS panel on the UH-60M features a VOX feature, what are the procedures for adjusting the VOX sensitivity?
A
If VOX sensitivity control is desired, press the VOX mode pushbutton for 2 seconds; VOX light flashes; adjust VOX sensitivity with the MVOL control as desired. After three seconds of no adjustments on the MVOL control, the VOX indicator will stop flashing and returns to the default setting.
6
Q
What is the CAUTION associated with inserting the PCMCIA cards into the DTS?
A
Do not force PCMCIA cards into the DTS slot. Damage to the Data Transfer Unit (DTU) or PCMCIA card may occur. PCMCIA cards can only be inserted into the DTU with the INSERT → label facing aft.
7
Q
Identify the following Master Warning Panel warnings and what causes each to appear? What is the CAUTION with warning panel A?
A
a – master caution – when any caution appears
b/c – engine 1 & 2 out – ng below 55%
d – fire – when fire detectors are activated
e – low rotor – nr below 96%
CAUTION
When pressing the MASTER CAUTION PRESS TO RESET switch, do not press the #1 ENG OUT, #2 ENG OUT, FIRE, or LOW ROTOR R.P.M segment lights. If these segment lights are pressed, the light will be displace outward approximately ⅛ inch to facilitate removal for maintenance. In this condition the light will not illuminate and the crew will miss thewarning. If the segment light is accidentally pressed, it should be pulled out approximately ¼ inch, then pushed back into its original position. A click will be felt when the light is properly reinstalled.
8
Q
If you experience IIMC are you required to inform the commander?
A
24 hours - AR 95-1
***Yes, Asap -SOP
Only if it violates FAA, host country, or ICAO regulations.
9
Q
When are operator and crew member checklists required to be used? When may they not be used? Within the UH-60M -10, what do the words shall, should and may indicate?
A
Operator and crewmember checklists will be used for preflight through before leaving aircraft checks.
While airborne, when time does not permit the utilization of the checklist or when its use would cause a safety hazard, required checks may be accomplished from memory.
Shall = Mandatory requirement Should = Nonmandatory but preferred method of accomplishment May = an acceptable method of accomplishment
10
Q
In the event of an electrical failure, the ENG A/I start/bleed valves are going to revert to the ______ mode. How much Q will be lost from MTA and what advisory activates?
A
The engine anti-ice/deice system is designed so that in the event of an electrical failure the valve reverts to the anti-icing mode and activates the ENG 1 ANTI-ICE ON or ENG 2 ANTI-ICE ON advisory.
20% Q is lossed
11
Q
Operating an engine against the _____ _____ is prohibited on rotor brake equipped helicopters. When using the rotor brake before starting engines, the minimum pressure will be 450 psi. If inadvertent rotor blade movement should occur due to rotor brake slippage, immediately_________ _________ engine(s) or _______ _______ _______. During engine run-up, for rotor brake operations, ensure that approximately 45% NR for single engine operations and 57% NR for dual engine is reached prior to advancing PCLs to fly.
A
Gust lock
(ch 5)
Shut down
Release rotor broke
(Ch 8)
12
Q
Discuss the safety devices, limitations, and emergency procedures for the rotor brake.
A
The Interlock prevents moving EPCL(s) past idle when engaged unless Tab is manually pulled.
Manual safety lockpin to prevent accidental release and electronic protection to prevent EPCLs to fly with the rotor brake applied,
Limits – for start – min-450, max-690; emergency stop 76% nr; normal stop 40% nr, 150-180 psi, stoppage in no less than 12 sec no more than 18 sec, Single and dual engine starts and operation at IDLE with rotor brake on are not time limited.
rotor brake advisory appears in flight.
If secondary indications of brake wear are present – land as soon as possible
13
Q
Where are the cold start capsule lights located? What indications do they provide?
A
on the upper console
Emer Cargo Release test light, Batt Good, Batt Low, APU ON, ACC LOW, (apu) OIL HOT, APU FAIL
*provide status indicators and caution lights for the emergency cargo release, battery, APU and APU oil temperature, and accumulator
Figure 2-71
14
Q
How long must a CAUTION be displayed before the pilot is able to acknowledge the caution?
A
for at least two seconds to transition to an acknowledged status.
15
Q
What are the three annunciators on the top of the FMS and what do they indicate?
A
STS-indicates change in system status
FMS-indicates a BIT failure within the FMS
MSG-active, reserved for future use
(Illuminates during FMS display test, not currently used for any other function.)
16
Q
How is the EMER SE-IAS (Item 15) derived from the PPC? When do I have to use this EMER SE-IAS and must I have one or two EMER SE-IAS’s?
A
Selected from the MIN/MAX-IAS (single engine) range computed in item 29. It is used immediately following an EP that requires Establishing S-E A/S. Normally only one is selected but two may be selected when item 29 is a wide range. 1-Slow and 1-Fast based on mission profile.
*** Note. The EMER SE-IAS is the emergency single-engine indicated airspeed (IAS) based on the mission and briefed to the crew for the purpose of crew coordination. This airspeed is selected from the MIN/MAX-IAS (SINGLE ENGINE) range computed in item 29, CRUISE data, and is used immediately following an emergency that requires adjustment to single-engine airspeed. When an aircraft does not have single-engine capability, the MAX ENDURANCE-IAS (DUAL ENGINE), item 24, or the OPTIMUM IAS AT MAX ALLOWABLE GWT (SINGLE ENGINE), item 34, as appropriate should be briefed as the emergency single-engine airspeed.
Note. Normally only one EMER SE-IAS is selected. However, when the MIN/MAX-IAS (SINGLE ENGINE) range, item 29, is wide, the crew may select two emergency single-engine airspeeds, one slow and one fast based on mission profile, modes of flight, environmental conditions or other factors.
17
Q
What is “blowback” and what pilot action is required to compensate for it?
A
More lift is produced by the right side of the rotor disk due to the dissymmetry of lift, manifests itself 90 degrees because of gyroscopic procession causes the front of the rotor to lift
the aviator must continually move the cyclic forward as velocity of the helicopter increases.
18
Q
Each DCU accepts _______, _______ and ____________ inputs and sends them to the MFDs. The DCUs also generate a __________ caution which indicates certain engine or transmission parameters have exceeded the normal operating ranges.
A
engine
powertrain
caution/advisory
CHECK EICAS
19
Q
The first FMS to complete the BIT becomes the ______ _______, while the other becomes the back-up bus controller or _______ _______.
A
bus controller
remote terminal
20
Q
Engine overspeed protection protects the power turbine from destructive overspeeds. The system is set to trigger at __________ NP1 or NP2 and will result in a fuel shut off causing the engine to ___________. When NP1 or NP2 is reduced below the overspeed limit, fuel flow is returned to the engine and engine ignition will come on to provide a ____________.
A
120% ±1%
flame out
relight
21
Q
What are the WARNING’S and CAUTION associated when operating an engine in DEC/EDECU lockout?
A
WARNING
Going to DEC/EDECU LOCKOUT to obtain additional power does not remove Maximum Fuel Flow or NG limits. NR will decrease below normal operating range if Maximum Fuel Flow or NG limits are exceeded.
CAUTION
When engine is controlled with ENG POWER CONT lever in LOCKOUT, engine response is much faster and TGT limiting system is inoperative. Care must be taken not to exceed TGT limits and keeping NR and NP1 and 2 in operating range.
22
Q
When the HUMS-E switch is pressed, what information is recorded and for how long?
A
The information is recorded 15 seconds prior to and 15 seconds after the button is pressed and HUMS-E REC is illuminated only when the IVHMU is recording. The information recorded is 30 seconds of aircraft flight (parameter) data, 30 seconds of cockpit audio, and 5 seconds of rotor track and balance data.
***Up to five intermittent events can be recorded per rotor start/stop interval. It takes up to 5.5 minutes to complete the procession of the event; while processing the data, IVHMS will not be available for subsequent captures.
23
Q
Define Effective Translational Lift.
A
ETL occurs between 16-24 Knots, when the rotor completely outruns the recirculation of old vortexes and begins to work in relatively undisturbed air. The increased efficiency continues with A/S increase until reaching Best Rate of Climb A/S and total drag is at it’s lowest point.
***occurs with the helicopter at about 16 to 24 knots, when the rotor—depending on size, blade area, and RPM of the rotor system—completely outruns the recirculation of old vortexes and begins to work in relatively undisturbed air. The rotor no longer pumps the air in a circular pattern but continually flies into undisturbed air. The flow of air through the rotor system is more horizontal, therefore induced flow and induced drag are reduced. The AOA is subsequently increased, which makes the rotor system operate more efficiently. This increased efficiency continues with increased airspeed until the best climb airspeed is reached, when total drag is at its’ lowest point. Greater airspeeds result in lower efficiency due to increased parasite drag.
24
Q
During a hover, for low wind conditions aircraft should be headed into wind. ________ crosswind or tailwind may increase torque required by up to _____ over zero wind values.
A
3-5 knot
4%
(note on hover chart)
25
Under what conditions is it considered normal to hover with the transmission oil temperature in the yellow precautionary range?
Prolonged hovering flight in temperatures above 35°C (95°F) at higher gross weight may cause transmission oil temperature to rise into the yellow precautionary range.
26
What is the CAUTION about the antennas when performing pre-flight of the cabin top of the helicopter?
CAUTION
The SATCOM and COM3 antennas are a trip hazard. Care must be taken while accessing the APU compartment not to trip on or damage these antennas.
27
What is the CAUTION associated with the UES during the NOSE SECTION check on preflight?
CAUTION
Ensure no heat damage (blistering, charring or disbanding) to main rotor blades with UES installed.
28
BAROMETRIC ALTITUDE PRE- SELECT (ALTP) Hold Mode will capture when the helicopter is within _______ feet of the pre-selected altitude. When the helicopter reaches the selected altitude the FD will ______ the ALT mode and ALTP will _______.
300
engage
disengage
29
Discuss all the ways the pilot can adjust the Barometric Altitude Hold once it has been engaged.
Using the P-sync knob, or using the collective trim beeper. Rate of 4 fps for the first 4 seconds. After 5 seconds, the altitude will change at a rate of 16 fps. Holding it greater than 5 seconds results in approximately a 1000 fpm change to the reference ALT.
30
Identify the following cyclic stick switches:
```
A- Slew-up Switch
B- ICS/Radio Switch
C- Trim Release Button
D- Remote Standby Switch
E- Trim Switch
F- Go Around Switch
G- Weapons Fire Switch
H- C/F Dispenser Switch
I- Cargo Release Switch
J- Vox-Caut Switch
```
31
Identify the following collective stick switches:
```
A- Search Light Control
B- HUD Control
C- Cargo Hook Emer Release
D- Landing Light Switch
E- Cursor Slew Control
F- Radio Select button
G- Trim Release Control
H- AFCS Trim
```
32
Helicopter SVFR minima is ____ visibility and ___________ unless a higher minimum is required at the airfield.
½ mile
clear of clouds
33
While in cruise flight at 100 KIAS and 46% torque, you notice ice starting to form on the aircraft. As the ice builds more torque is required to maintain level flight. What actions are required if the torque required to maintain level flight increases to 66% or more? What does this indicate may no longer be possible?
If icing conditions are encountered, turn on all anti-icing equipment immediately. If torque required increases 20% above that required for level flight at the airspeed being maintained before entering icing, exit the icing environment or land as soon as possible. A 20% torque increase indicates that normal auto rotational NR may not be possible, should dual-engine failure occur.
34
On the PFD how does the pilot determine whether the wind values are current or remembered, and what is the wind direction? At what calculated wind speed is the wind speed and direction remembered?
Wind symbology will be white when current, yellow with an R when remembered; wind direction is shown relative to the current helicopter heading; wind speed is shown above 4 knots
***Remembered wind is displayed with an R to the right of the windspeed. The wind symbology is white when the current wind information is displayed and yellow when the remembered wind is displayed. The wind arrow rotates to show the wind direction relative to the current helicopter heading. Wind direction is consistent with the magnetic/true reference selected. The windspeed is shown in knots.
35
During startup and run-up, the Active Vibration Control System is found to be inoperative. Can the aircrew take-off and begin flying?
No, per AWR 1726 an operational AVCS is required for day, night, NVD and IMC flights. (AWR pg 32)
36
What is the NOTE in UH-60 ATM Module 8 regarding the digitization of the cockpit?
(NOTE)
Digitization of the crew compartments has expanded and redefined the lines of responsibility for each crewmember. The enhanced ability for either PI to perform most aircraft/system functions from their crew station breaks down the standard delineation of duties and has added capabilities and potential distractions, in training and in combat. This could mean that during an unforeseen event, one PI may attempt to resolve the situation rather than seeking assistance from or even communicating that action with the other crewmember. It is essential for the PC to brief specific duties prior to stepping into the aircraft. Effective sharing of tasks relies on good crew coordination and information management.
37
With engine bleed air on, the available torque per engine is reduced as follows: The engine anti-ice on ______ . Cockpit/gunner heater on: Reduce torque available by _____ Anti-ice and cockpit/gunner heater on: Reduce maximum torque available by _____
20%
5%
25%
38
The engine anti-ice will increase dual engine fuel flow ______ . Cockpit and gunner heat will increase fuel flow ______. With anti-ice and cockpit/gunner heat on fuel flow will increase ______.
100 lbs/hr
20 lbs/hr
120 lbs/hr
39
Increased rotor efficiency IGE is caused by what two factors?
Reduced induced flow (allows for a small angle of incidence) and smaller wing tip vortexes
***induced flow reduced. This increase in AOA requires a reduced blade pitch angle. This reduces the power required to hover IGE.
Reduced rotor-tip vortexes
40
Aerodynamic of the airfoil
A-Chord line
B-Rotational relative wind
C-Angle of incidence
D-Resultant relative wind
E-Angle of attack
F-Lift
G-Drag
H-Center of pressure
I-Total aerodynamic force
41
Describe the two-challenge rule using UH-60 ATM.
The two-challenge rule allows one crewmember to assume the duties of another crewmember who fails to respond to two consecutive challenges automatically.
42
While starting the aircraft for a DAY VFR flight it is discovered that the #4 MFD will only display the PFD and Engine Instrument Caution Advisory System (EICAS) pages and the #2 MFD is inoperative. Is it still legal to fly the aircraft?
Yes according to AWR 1726 R26
***A Multifunction Display (MFD) is considered operational if the Primary Flight Display (PFD) and Engine Instrument Caution Advisory System (EICAS) pages can be displayed and provide the required information. The ability to select the desired bezel functions on the MFD with the Multi-Function Slew controller (MFSU) or Collective Slew Control is an acceptable method to control the desired function when individual buttons on the MFD are bruised or inoperative.
MFD's in position 1, 3, and 4 must be operational. An inoperative outboard MFD will result in loss of the barometric altimeter information on the inboard MFD. The #3 MFD is the only MFD position powered by DC Essential power and must be operational should an electrical failure occur.
43
What is the purpose of the Main Rotor Head Lead Stop installed on the forward edge of each elastomeric bearing endplate?
Each spindle has attached lead lag stops which prevent damage to the spindles during rotor brake operation (when installed)
44
The Active Vibration Control System (AVCS) uses force generators to counterbalance airframe vibration. This is accomplished by mechanically generating additional airframe vibratory loads out-of-phase with the main rotor induced 4 per rev vibrations such that the resulting cockpit/cabin vibration is reduced. The AVCS maintains consistent vibration performance with varying rotor speeds from ________ through ________. An ____________advisory will appear when the system is not operating.
90%
105%
AVCS INOP
45
Aside from hover hold, radar altitude hold and go-around mode, below what airspeed will the flight director become unusable?
Airspeed below 48 knots.
46
What are the ground and flight indications for a Load Demand System Malfunction?
On ground:
ENG POWER CONT in IDLE - NG 3 to 4% higher than normal.
ENG POWER CONT to FLY - Torque split (Single malfunction).
In flight:
Initial takeoff (during collective pull) - Increased torque split (Single malfunction).
Low power descent. (Lowering collective to minimum). - Rapid NP and NR rise.
***(Emergency Procedure)***
If a load demand system malfunction is detected/suspected, perform the following:
On ground:
Shut down and consult maintenance.
In flight:
1. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
2. Perform a normal approach, avoiding low power autorotative descents.
47
Explain Collective/Airspeed to Yaw (Electronic Coupling).
Compensates for the torque effect caused by changes in collective position. It decreases tail rotor pitch as airspeed increases and the tail rotor and cambered fin become more efficient.
a) The #2 Flight Control Computer commands the yaw trim actuator to change tail rotor pitch as collective position changes.
b) The amount of tail rotor pitch change is proportional to airspeed. Maximum mixing occurs from 0 to 40 knots. The amount of mixing decreases until 100 knots, after which no mixing occurs.
48
Two aircraft of the same category are converging at ACP Nolin, according to FAR 91.113, whom has the right of way? What if they were head-on?
When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on, or nearly so), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way.
When aircraft are approaching each other head- on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right
49
What is meant by the term “Cross-country flight?”
A flight extending beyond the local flying area or within the local flying area which is planned to terminate at a place other than the location of origin.
50
Reference the Radar Altimeter, The dial and pointer will be displayed up to a value of _______feet. At values beyond _________, the dial and pointer will be removed. Radar altitude digital readout values will remain but only up to an upper limit of 1500 feet. The readouts are removed above _______feet and return below ________feet.
1050
1050
1500
1450
51
Discuss the purpose, functions, and capabilities of the Multifunction Slew Controller.
The multifunction slew control located on the lower console (Figures 2-7 and 2-42) consists of three push buttons and a thumb operated slew controller. It provides control of the MFD cursor and provides cursor activation, menu navigation and selection. The controls and functions are: Slew controller (controls cursor), Select control, Menu Control and Mode Control
52
Discuss the three cursor modes of the Digital Map System?
1. Free- The cursor can be moved anywhere on the display via the active slew button
2. Bezel- The bezel cursor symbol travels around the bezel keys based on directional inputs.
3. Menu- allows selection of menu items by means of a captive cursor control. The cursor automatically switches to menu cursor mode upon activation of a menu.
53
During single engine ground operation with the collective full down NP/NR may indicate _____, even when the engine speed trim is increased to the maximum setting. This is a __________ characteristic, and may be observed more frequently during hot weather. Raising the collective slightly (approximately 1⁄2 inch) will bring the NP/NR to 100%.
99%
Normal
54
What are your VFR weather minimums for Class G Airspace Day and Night below 1200' AGL?
Day: 1/2 mile clear of clouds.
Night: 1 mile clear of clouds.
55
Define Dynamic Rollover and the conditions required for it to occur?
A helicopter is susceptible to a lateral-rolling tendency called dynamic rollover. Dynamic rollover can occur on level ground as well as during a slope or crosswind landing and takeoff. Three conditions are required for dynamic rollover— pivot point, rolling motion, and exceed critical angle.
56
What is the Note associated with Slope Landing Limitations?
Because of the flat profile of the main transmission and forward location of both transmission oil pumps, transmission oil pressure will drop during nose-up slope operations. At slope angle of 10°, an indicated oil pressure of 30 to 35 psi is normal; and at a 15° slope angle, a pressure in the range of 10 to 15 psi is normal due to pitching of the helicopter.
57
According to Chapter 8 of TM 1-1520-280-10, when should a roll-on landing be used?
A roll-on landing may be used when the helicopter will not sustain a hover; to avoid hovering in snow or dust; if tail rotor control is lost; or when operating with one heavy external tank.
58
Under what conditions will NG and TGT appear on the power pod display of the MFD?
NG:
1. Either engine NG exceeds 100%.
2. The difference between NG1 and NG2 exceeds 5%.
3. Either engine is out (indication of en-gine out comes from the DCU).
TGT:
1. Either engine TGT exceeds the continuous limit of 793°C.
2. The difference between TGT1 and TGT2 exceeds 75°C.
3. Either engine is out (indication of engine out comes from the DCU).
59
The active cursor display can be switched between the onside MFDs using the _____________ icon?
screen jump
displayed as a white arrowhead pointing toward the MFD that will become active.
60
Discuss the heading hold functions in FPS above and below 50 knots.
The yaw axis of the FPS provides heading hold at airspeeds less than 50 knots and heading hold or turn coordination at airspeeds greater than 50 knots. For heading hold operation at airspeeds less than 50 knots, the helicopter is maneuvered to the desired heading with feet on pedals. When trimmed at the desired heading, the pilot may remove feet from pedals, at which time the existing heading becomes the reference, which is automatically held. To change heading, the pilot may activate one or both pedal switches, trim to the desired heading and remove feet from pedals. Alternatively, below 50 KIAS the four-way collective trim beeper may be used to slew the aircraft to the desired heading.
At airspeeds greater than 50 knots, heading hold will be automatically disengaged and coordinated turn engaged under these conditions:
(a) TRIM switches actuated in the lateral direction.
(b) TRIM REL switch is pressed and roll attitude is greater the 2.5°.
(c) Approximately ½ inch cyclic displacement and a roll attitude of approximately 1.0°.
(d) Heading hold is automatically reengaged and turn coordination is disengaged upon recovery from the turn when the lateral stick force, roll attitude, and yaw rate are within prescribed limits.
(e) Alternatively, when HDG is not engaged with a coupled FD, the collective trim beeper may be used to establish a standard rate turn.
(4) To make a coordinated turn, the pilot enters a turn under one of these conditions:
(a) Changing reference roll attitude by pressing the TRIM switch in the desired lateral direction.
(b) Pressing the TRIM REL switch and establishing the desired bank angle with feet off the pedal switches.
(c) Exerting a lateral force on the cyclic to achieve the desired bank angle, and then neutralizing the force with the TRIM switch.
(d) Keeping a lateral force on the cyclic for the duration of the turn.
61
Why should the windshield wipers not be operated on a dry windshield? Why should the wipers be parked if they slow noticeably?
(CAUTION) ch 2
To prevent possible damage to windshield surface, do not operate windshield wipers on a dry windshield.
(CAUTION) ch 8
At airspeeds greater than 120 KIAS or during periods of reduced rain intensity the windshield wipers may slow noticeably. If this occurs, wipers must be parked immediately to avoid wiper motor failure.
62
What conditions must exist simultaneously for settling with power to occur?
Vertical or near-vertical descent or atleast 300 FPM.
Slow forward Airspeed (less than ETL)
20 to 100% power is being used with insufficient power remaining to arrest the descent.
63
In the event of a dual engine fire, if both Engine Fire T-handles are pulled and then the fire extinguisher activated, which engine compartment will the extinguisher discharge into? What is the WARNING associated with fire protection systems?
The contents of the fire extinguisher container discharge into the compartment of the last lever pulled.
(WARNING)
In case of fire when ac electrical power is not applied to the helicopter, the reserve fire extinguisher must be discharged. Fire extinguisher agent cannot be discharged into No. 2 engine compartment if ac electrical power is not applied to helicopter.
64
What is the recommended airspeed for Autorotation in a UH-60? Below what airspeed during an autorotation will the rate of descent increase while the glide distance decreases? What should be considered when discussing pitch attitudes of the helicopter during deceleration?
The recommended airspeed for autorotation is 80 KIAS. Autorotation below 80 knots is not recommended because the deceleration does not effectively arrest the rate of descent. Adjusting the cyclic and collective control to maintain 100% NR and 110 KIAS (100 KIAS high drag) will result in achieving the maximum glide distance. A landing area must be selected immediately after both engines fail. As airspeed decreases below 64 KIAS, the rate of descent will increase and glide distance will decrease.
Pitch attitudes up to 25° at the point of touchdown normally result in an adequate deceleration and safe landing. Withpitch attitude beyond 25° there is the possibility of ground contact with the stabilator trailing edge.
65
Explain why the aircraft hangs slightly left wheel low at a hover. What component on the aircraft corrects this aerodynamic phenomena?
When the rotor disk is tilted left to counteract the translating tendency, the fuselage follows the main rotor mast and hangs slightly low on the left side.
Due to the MMU compensating for translating tendency.
*** Collective to Roll - Compensates for the rolling moments and translating tendency caused by changes in tail rotor thrust. The mixing unit provides left lateral input to the main rotor system as collective is increased and right lateral input as collective is de-creased.
66
What indications cause the illumination of the CHECK EICAS caution?
Indicates engine oil temperature, engine oil pressure, main transmission oil temperature, and main transmission oil pressure are not within their normal range.
67
What is a FMS message alert? How would you check the FMS status alert “Check IVHMS”?
The FMS displays the message alert MSG in yellow on the pilots' MFDs, prompting the pilot to look at the FMS when a message requiring pilot attention is activated. Once activated by the FMS, MSG flashes for the first five seconds it is displayed, then remains displayed until the pilot has read and cleared the message on the FMS.
To Check on IVHMS = Main (T1), EXCD (R2), WARNING/CAUTION/ADVISORY HISTORY (L4)
68
During startup, you experience an ENG 1 OIL BYPASS. What does this indicate and is this a normal indication?
It is normal for the ENG OIL BYPASS caution to appear when starting an engine with oil temperatures below normal because of high oil viscosity and the accumulation of oil filter contaminants. When the engine oil temperature reaches about 38°C (100°F) during warm-up, the caution should disappear.
69
During shutdown, the droops fail to return to the static position during rotor coast down. What are your actions? Additionally, how low will the blade/blades droop in feet from the ground?
If one or more droop stops do not go in during rotor shutdown, shut down an engine to lower rotor idling NR in an attempt to seat the droop stops. If droop stops still do not go in, accelerate rotor to above 75% NR. Repeat rotor shut-down procedures slightly displacing cyclic in an attempt to dislodge jammed droop stop. If droop stops still do not go in, make certain that rotor disc area is clear of personnel and proceed with normal shutdown procedures while keeping cyclic in neutral position.
When the droop stops do not return to the static position, the main rotor blades may droop to within 4 feet of the ground during shutdown.
70
When does the fuel indication on the Power Pod turn yellow? When does the FUEL 1 or FUEL 2 LOW caution illuminate?
On the power pod FUEL display, the pointers turn yellow if a main tank level falls below the low fuel caution level (200 lbs).
These cautions appear when the fuel level decreases to approximately 172 pounds in each tank.
71
You are planning a VFR flight to a Class D airport. Predominant weather at your ETA is 1SM visibility and 500 ft. ceilings. Assuming no local restrictions, can you legally file VFR to this airfield?
Yes, Aviators may file flight plans to a destination within Class B, C, D, and E surface area airspace when weather conditions are forecast to be equal to or greater than known special visual flight rules (SVFR) minima for that airspace at ETA through one hour after ETA.
72
List the additional components on the UH-60M that have been incorporated for transient droop response. Where are these items located?
1. NR Sensor mounted on the left Accessory Module.
2. Collective Position Transducer mounted with two previous transducers on a modified bracket assembly in the MMU.
3. Engine torque signal.
***
Torque Signal from the engine. (Flightline Supp. page 13)
Collective position transducer located on the MMU. (TM Para. 2.25.1 a)
Rotor speed (NR) sensor mounted on the left accessory module. (TM Para. 2.41.2)
*****
The DEC accepts the following inputs: alternator, thermocouple harness, NP sensor, torque and overspeed sensors, NR sensor, and collective position transducer for improved transient droop response, torque signal from the opposite engine for load sharing, feedback signals from the HMU for response and torque system stabilization and the ENG SPD TRIM switch for NP1 and NP2 demand speed reference.
73
As an instrument rated pilot flying an instrument certified aircraft, when are you NOT required to file an IFR flight plan?
(a) Flight is primarily for VFR training.
(b) Time will not permit mission completion under IFR.
(c) Mission can only be accomplished under VFR.
(d) Excessive ATC departure, en route, or terminal area delays are encountered.
(e) Hazardous weather conditions must be avoided.
*** (f) Aircraft is being flown single pilot. (Not in 95 - 1)
74
IAW Current AWR 1726, what is the NOTE for the weight and balance considerations associated with the UH-60M with only two pilots and no passengers or cargo onboard the aircraft? How does this correlate to AR 95-1 and the responsibilities of the Pilot in Command (PC)?
The UH/HH-60M is capable of exceeding the aft center of gravity limit of 365 inches (arm), particularly when operating in the two pilot configuration without crew chiefs and/or passengers/cargo.
The Pilot in Command (PC) shall verify Center of Gravity (CG) and Gross Weight (GWT) within aircraft limits for the duration of the flight and identify all mission or flight limitations imposed by weight or CG.
75
The Stormscope WX-500 is a weather mapping system displayed on the MFDs, for _______________ severe weather, not for _______________ it. The weather mapping sensor detects electrical discharges associated with thunderstorms within a ______ nautical mile radius of the helicopter. What are the stormscope strike and cell symbols? The stormscope ENBL/DSBL display indicates the __________ stormscope state ENBL or DSBL.
avoiding
penetrating
200
current
1. Strike symbol: ×
2. Cell symbol: +
The cell and strike symbols are the same size and both are white.
76
What type of controlled airspace is Lowe Army Airfield located in and what are the cloud clearance and visibility requirements for operating in this airspace?
Class D, 500 below, 1,000 above, and 2,000 horizontal
***3 SM
77
What is considered “established two-way radio communication”?
When the controller has responded to the A/C using the Aircraft callsign.
78
What are Basic Weight and Operating Weight?
Basic weight of an aircraft is weight including all hydraulic and oil systems full, trapped and unusable fuel, and all fixed equipment. From basic weight total, it is only necessary to add crew, fuel, cargo, and ammunition (if carried) when determining the aircraft's gross weight. Basic weight varies with structural modifications and changes of fixed aircraft equipment.
Operating weight includes basic weight plus aircrew, aircrew's baggage, emergency gear, and other equipment required. Operating weight does not include weight of fuel, ammunition, bombs, cargo, or external auxiliary fuel tanks if such tanks are to be disposed of during flight.
79
What is the CAUTION associated with the BINGO screen, and how does Empty Weight correlate to Basic Weight?
(CAUTION)
The bingo fuel calculator contains default crew weight values. Crew weight must be manually entered for each flight. Aircraft empty weight shall be equal to operating weight minus crew weight, as found on the aircraft Form F. Crew weight shall be equal to the actual weight of the crew.
Empty- it is the basic weight without fluids, aircrew, aircrew baggage, emergency gear.
*** Empty weight is used for design purposes and usually does not affect service activities. Empty weight includes aircraft structure weight plus–communications, control, electrical, hydraulic, instrument, and power plant systems; furnishings; anti-icing equipment; auxiliary power plant; flotation landing gear; and armament, anchor, and towing provisions.
80
How does the FMS calculate wind speed and direction?
The wind direction and speed are calculated by the FMS by comparing IAS to GS and helicopter heading to ground track.
81
Define total aerodynamic force (TAF).
TAF is the result or lift and drag and acts at the center of pressure
As air flows around an airfoil, a pressure differential develops between the upper and lower surfaces. The differential, combined with air resistance to passage of the airfoil, creates a force on the airfoil. This is known as TAF (figure 1-39). TAF acts at the center of pressure on the airfoil and is normally inclined up and rear. TAF, sometimes called resultant force, may be divided into two components, lift and drag.
82
During all fixed pitch situations the nose of the aircraft will turn (left/right) when power or airspeed is increased or decreased?
In all fixed pitch situations the nose of the helicopter will turn to the right when power or airspeed is increased and turn to the left when collective or airspeed is decreased.
83
Hearing protection devices are required to be worn when? What type(s) are required to be worn in or around an operating UH-60?
Hearing protection devices, such as the aviator helmet or ear plugs are required to be worn by all personnel in and around the helicopter during its operation.
Operations in UH-60 and CH-47 aircraft require both helmet and earplug use to attenuate noise and prevent hearing loss.
84
When exceeded, what hydraulic pump temperature requires an entry on DA Form 2408-13-1?
When the temperature label indicates that a temperature of 132°C (270°F) has been exceeded, an entry shall be made on DA FORM 2408-13-1.
85
IAW the Current AWR 1726, how do we have to power on both the inboard MFD's and why?
Both inboard MFDs shall be powered on within five seconds of each other to ensure that JVMF messages are properly displayed.
***If either inboard MFD is power cycled, both inboard MFDs shall be powered off for five seconds and turned on within five seconds of each other.
86
In most cases, how long should you take retarding a power control lever when performing engine shutdown in flight?
If the decision is made to shut down an engine, take at least five full seconds while retarding the ENG POWER CONT lever from FLY to IDLE, monitoring Q, NG, TGT, NP, and ENG OUT warning light on.
87
What are the CAUTION'S associated with ground taxi and how do we perform ground taxi?
(CAUTION)
When performing these maneuvers, cyclic inputs should be minimized to prevent droop stop pounding.
(CAUTION)
Landing and searchlight have less than one foot ground clearance when extended. Use caution when taxiing over rough terrain when landing light and/or searchlight are extended.
(How to)
Increase collective and place cyclic forward of neutral to start forward movement. Minimize forward cyclic movement to prevent droop stop pounding. Reduce collective to minimum required to maintain forward movement. Soft or rough terrain may require additional collective pitch. The use of excessive collective pitch during taxi, especially at light gross weights, can cause the tail wheel to bounce. Regulate taxi speed with cyclic and collective and control heading with pedals. Use brakes as required.
88
The stabilator is programmed to perform what five functions?
1. Streamlines w/ rotor downwash at low speed (below 30 knots) to min. nose up attitude from downwash. (ADC, FCC)
2. Collective Coupling to min. pitch attitude excursions due to collective inputs. (Collective Position Transducers) begins @ 30knots
3. Angle of Incidence decreases above 30 knots for improved static stability. (ADC, FCC)
4. Lateral Sideslip to pitch coupling to reduce susceptibility to gusts. Stab up for right pedal, stab down for left pedal. (Lateral accelerometers)
5. Pitch Rate Feedback to improve dynamic stability. Dampen pitch excursions due to turbulence or “G” forces. (EGI, FCC)
89
What is the most expedient way to copy map files (such as updating maps) to the DTS, if it already has a large number of map files loaded on it?
When intending to copy a large number of map files to the DTS, when the DTS already has a large number of map files loaded on it, the process is much faster if the operator zeroizes the DTS CACHE using the FMS before inserting the PC Cards used for the copy process, (ZRO/ZEROIZE DTS page and then press the CACHE bezel to erase all the files in the DTS CACHE).
***Copying the maximum 2G of files to the DTS when the drive is emptytakes approximately 40minutes.
90
In reference to confined area considerations for TASK 1058- Perform Visual Meteorological Conditions Approach, when should the go-around be initiated (if possible) during an approach to a confined area?
If possible, make the decision to go-around before descending below the barriers or going below ETL. After touchdown, check aircraft stability as the collective is lowered.
91
The AFCS provides what two types of control and explain each?
The inner-loop (SAS) employs rate damping to improve helicopter stability. This system is fast in response, limited in authority, and operates without causing movement of the flight controls.
The outer-loop (Trim) provides long-term inputs by trimming the flight controls to the position required to maintain the selected flight attitude. It is capable of driving the flight controls throughout their full range of travel (100% authority) at a limited rate of 10% per second.
Both inner and outer loops allow for complete pilot override through the normal use of the flight controls.
92
What is the maximum weight that can be supported by the servicing platform on the engine cowling?
250 pounds
93
While preparing for a mission you discover that the cockpit voice recorder is inoperative. Can you still take the aircraft?
A nonoperational FDR or IVHMS should not result in mission cancellation. Inoperative IVHMS will affect CBM data collection.
94
List and define the three no-lift areas on the rotor system.
Reverse flow - At the root of the retreating blade is an area where the air flows backward from the trailing to the leading edge of the blade. This is due to wind created by forward airspeed being greater than rotational velocity at this point on the blade.
Negative stall - In the negative stall area, rotational velocity exceeds forward flight velocity, causing resultant relative wind to move toward the leading edge. The resultant relative wind is so far above the chord line, a negative AOA above the critical AOA results. The blade stalls with a negative AOA.
Negative lift - In the negative lift area, rotational velocity, induced flow, and blade flapping combine to reduce the AOA from a negative stall to an AOA that causes the blade to produce negative lift.
***
Reverse Flow- air flows backward from the trailing to the leading edge of the blade. This is due to wind created by forward airspeed being greater than rotational velocity.
Negative Stall- rotational velocity exceeds forward flight velocity, causing resultant relative wind to move toward the leading edge. The resultant relative wind is so far above the chord line, a negative AOA above the critical AOA results.
Negative Lift- rotational velocity, induced flow, and blade flapping combine to reduce the AOA from a negative stall to an AOA that causes the blade to produce negative lift.
95
Identify the following components? Hydraulic deck
A. Utility module
B. 2nd Stage Lateral Primary Servo
C. Roll SAS Actuator
D. 2nd Stage T/R Shutoff Valve
E. Pilot Assist Module
96
Discuss the hot start prevention system.
1. Automatically prevents overtemp during starting and shutdown.
2. Requires 400 Hz, 120 VAC
3. Requires signals form Np, Ng and TGT
4. Activates ODV when Ng less or equal 60%, Np less or equal 50% TGT greater or equal 900*C
5. Can be disabled by pressing and holding either Np overspeed test button during the start.
***Automatically prevents overtemperature during engine starts by shutting down the engine.
Requires 400 Hz, 120 vac power for operation (APU generator).
Requires signals from the NP Sensor, NG Alternator Winding, and the Thermocouple Harness (TGT).
HSP activates a solenoid in the ODV which shuts off fuel flow to the engine when NP and NG are below their Hot Start Reference Values and the TGT exceeds its reference value.
1. NG < 60%. 2. NP < 50%. 3. TGT > 900⁰C.
In an emergency HSP can be disabled by pressing and holding either of the NP overspeed test buttons during the start. To ensure the system is disabled throughout the full start sequence, hold button in until NG > 60%.
97
What are the five aerodynamic emergencies?
```
Settling with power
Dynamic Rollover
Retreating Blade Stall
Ground Resonance
Compressability Effects
```
98
What is the difference between EARLY and OVER options on the flight plan screen?
When OVER (overfly) is active, the aircraft will overfly the waypoint and will fly a teardrop pattern to intercept the outbound leg. When the capture criteria is EARLY and the turn is less than 120°, the helicopter will roll out exactly on the next leg of the flight plan. When the turn is greater than 120° the helicopter will fly a teardrop pattern to intercept the outbound leg. If there is no next leg, OVER capture criteria will be used.
FMS uses actual track rather than desired track in calculating turn anticipation, to allow for low-level tactical flight where the final track to away point may not be along the desired track.
99
What information is provided in each FMS header default? How do you change the header?
Headers are either in COM or NAV format, upon power-up FMS 1 will default to the communication header and FMS 2 will default to the navigation header. Header selection can be changed on initialization page 3/3 or on the PPS page.
COM Header:
System time - Indicates system time.
PLT - Indicates pilot's side of display. In inversevideowhentheICSselected radio is keyed.
Preset ID - Shows selected preset. Blank if manual tune, or ICS mode, *EMERG* when emergency selected.
Selected radio - Type of radio selected with the transmit control.
Frequency - Frequency or channel display. Area is blank when in ICS selection mode.
Call sign - Name of call sign chosen for frequency shown.
Nav mode - Indicates navigation mode of the FMS.
SEC/DAT - Appears in inverse video when the selected radio is in CIPHER (SEC) or DATA (DAT) mode. When operating in PLAIN mode, the display is MHZ or blank.
CPT - Indicates copilot's side of display. In inverse video when the ICS selected radio is keyed.
NAV Header:
(NOTE)
A "°" following a bearing or direction indicates magnetic bearing. A "°T" indicates true bearing.
BRG - The bearing to the present way-point. 0 is displayed when there is no active steering.
RNG - Distance in nautical miles to the present way-point. Displays are 0 to 9999.9 or ****.* if beyond range. Thereisnodisplaywhenthereisno active steering.
NXT - The initial desired course of the next leg of the flight plan with the present way-point as the FROM point. Blank when there is no next leg or no active steering.
WND - Computedwinddirectionandspeed in knots. An asterisk is displayed when windspeed > 99 knots. Wind direction may fluctuate when the windspeed is near < 4 knots. Remembered wind will be displayed in inverse video. Wind information is not displayed on the ground.
Time - System time.
TTG - Time to go to the present way-point at current ground speed. Blank is displayed when there is no active steering.
GS - Ground Speed in knots.
WPT - The identifier of the present TO way-point. DisplaysWPTforregular way-point. Labelswillflashbetween normal and inverse video when a way-point is captured (minimum 3 seconds).
WPT number - Displays WPT reference number for the current "TO" way-point. Blank is displayed when there is no active steering.
WPT name - Displays first five characters of the eight character way-point name for the current "TO" way-point. Blank is displayed when there is no active steering.
Nav mode - Indicates navigation mode of the FMS.
No. 1 EGI Navigation sourced.
IG1 - Indicates blended solution with GPS aiding.
I-1 - Indicates blended solution without GPS aiding.
GP1 - Indicates GPS solution.
IN1 - Indicates pure inertial solution.
No. 2 EGI Navigation sourced.
IG2 - Indicates blended solution with GPS aiding.
I-2 - Indicates blended solution without GPS aiding.
GP2 - Indicates GPS solution.
IN2 - Indicates pure inertial solution.
100
What three Emergency Procedures in Chapter 9 of TM 1-1520-280-10 require the Engine to be placed in LOCKOUT? Define LOCKOUT?
Decreasing NR (DEC/EDECU low side failure), NP Decreasing/Increasing (Oscillation), Torque Split between Engines
The term LOCKOUT is defined as manual control of engine RPM while bypassing DEC/EDECU functions.
101
The digital mapping system displays maps on the ________. The digital map accepts ________ ________ map data loaded into the system through the ________.
MFDs
mission relevant
DTS
102
Referencing the Tactical Flight Mission Planning and Map Preparation Guide (TFMP), selecting appropriate altitude(s) and terrain flight modes as appropriate: The _____________ terrain flight altitude for the specific condition should always be used. Flight at _________ terrain flight altitudes reduces the __________ ____ __________, enables ________ airspeeds, reduces __________ to terrain flight, and minimizes __________.
highest
higher
difficulty of navigation
higher
hazards
fatigue
103
How does the TFMP define Air Control Point, where are they designated and what may allow them to be placed farther apart?
An easily identifiable point on the terrain or an electronic NAVAID used to provide necessary control during air movement. ACPs are generally designated at each point where the flight route or air corridor makes a definite change in any direction and at any other point deemed necessary for timing or control of the operation. ACPs should be progressively closer as an aircraft nears the objective, facilitating timing and navigation. Type of terrain, illumination, total route distance, and accuracy of onboard navigation systems may allow selection of ACPs much further apart.
104
What are the two basic maps used in tactical flight mission planning, and what are the advantages/disadvantages of each?
the JOG and the tactical map
The Joint Operations Graphic has a scale of 1:250,000. The scale of the map permits a relatively small map uncluttered with extraneous information. It shows coordinates in Latitude and Longitude, as well as Military Grid Reference System (MGRS). It is useful for performing long enroute legs performed at Low Level. However, because it lacks adequate terrain detail, it should not be used for Contour or Nap of the Earth (NOE) planning and navigation.
The tactical map has a scale of 1:50,000 and is a highly detailed map. This is the primary map used for the objective phase of the operation. It should be used anytime Contour or NOE flight is conducted, or anytime precise navigation is required (i.e. at a PZ or LZ).
105
What does the TFMP state you should consider when planning and plotting routes regarding:
```
Location of SP & RP
Selection of ACP's
Turns enroute
Route Width
Course to be flown from RP to LZ
```
Route Planning - - The route for the mission must be tactically sound, yet not so difficult as to preclude successful navigation. The first step is to determine the threat situation. The following are considerations for planning and plotting the route:
a. The easiest, quickest and least hazardous mode of flight is Low Level. It should be used whenever the threat situation allows.
b. Contour and NOE are progressively slower, more difficult and more hazardous, and should only be used when the threat situation dictates.
c. As a rule of thumb, use NOE when flying within the effective range of the threat weapon systems.
d. Use Contour when flying within 10 -15 Kilometers of the maximum effective range of the threat weapons systems.
e. Plan alternate ingress and egress flight routes.
f. Locate the SP 3 to 8 kilometers from the PZ's. The flight route starts here.
g. Locate the RP 3 to 8 kilometers from the LZ's, primary and alternate. The flight route ends here.
h. Use prominent, distinct terrain features located along the flight route that facilitates navigation, control of speed, and control of en route fires as ACPs.
i. Plan that no turn in the route exceeds 60 degrees, especially if slingloads are involved. j. Plan that routes are at least two kilometers wide.
k. Ensure the course to the RP is within 30 degrees of the final course and the final course is within 30 degrees of the LZ landing heading.
106
When pressing the soft key HAT on the TAC/MFD and enabling (W+C) what does the red and yellow tinting indicate? What is default height value for the yellow tinting?
Warning elevation will display a red tinting for areas that are above the current helicopter barometric altitude.
Caution elevation will display a yellow tinting for areas that are below the current helicopter barometric altitude but above a specified height delta defined via the CONFIG submenu.
The default value is 200 feet.
107
What is the WARNING in current AWR1726 associated with the Height Above Terrain (HAT) warning elevation reference?
The Multi-Function Display (MFD) Height Above Terrain (HAT) warning elevation reference erroneously displays 100 feet above the helicopter barometric altitude. This reference should be equal to the helicopter barometric altitude. Personal injury or loss of life may occur due to the MFD not displaying red shading as described in reference 1.
108
According to the Tactical Flight Mission Planning Guide, what is meant by the term cockpit teamwork? Prior to arriving at a checkpoint, what should the navigator tell the pilot?
The ability of the crew to work as a team is crucial to the success of the mission. The navigator must give the pilot timely, clear and accurate information. The pilot should acknowledge that information and question anything not understood. Prior to arriving at a checkpoint the navigator should tell the pilot the following:
a. The description of the checkpoint coming up.
b. The direction and magnitude of the turn, if any.
c. The change in airspeed, if any.
109
What are the three modes of terrain flight as listed in the TC 3-04.4?
Nap of the Earth, Contour, Low-Level
***
NAP-OF-THE-EARTH FLIGHT
5-11. NOE flight is conducted at varying airspeeds as close to the earth's surface as vegetation and obstacles permit. For NVG training, NOE flight is further defined as operating with the skids or wheels up to 25 feet above trees and vegetation in the flight path. (For training, a safe airspeed is used based on ambient light, flight visibility, terrain, winds, turbulence, obstacles, and crew proficiency.) Aviators should decrease airspeed if weather and/or ambient light restrict visibility.
CONTOUR FLIGHT
5-12. Contour flight is conducted at low altitudes conforming to the earth's contours. It is characterized by relatively constant airspeeds and varying altitude as dictated by terrain and obstacles. For NVG training, contour flight is further defined as operating with the skids or wheels between 25 and 80 feet above highest obstacle (AHO). (For training, a safe airspeed is used based on ambient light, flight visibility, terrain, winds, turbulence, obstacles, and crew proficiency.) Aviators should decrease airspeed if weather and/or ambient light restrict visibility.
LOW-LEVEL FLIGHT
5-13. Aviators perform low-level flight at constant altitude and airspeed, dictated by threat avoidance. For NVG training, low-level flight is further defined as operating with the skids or wheels between 80 and 200 feet AHO at an airspeed commensurate with operational requirements and aircrew limitations. Aviators should decrease airspeed if weather and/or ambient light restrict visibility.
110
Who is considered a passenger and what flights are they restricted from?
Any occupant of the aircraft not performing an aircrew duty and logging flying time under paragraph 2 – 6. Passengers on Army aircraft authorized by chapter 3 of this regulation. Do not enter passenger names on the DA Form 2408 – 12.
Passengers are restricted from the following types of flights:
(1) Maintenance, engineering, functional, or experimental test flights.
(2) Aerobatics flights.
(3) Aerial demonstrations (mission essential personnel authorized) as defined by DODI 5410.19 and AR 360 – 1.
(4) Flight crew emergency procedures training.
(5) NVD qualification and refresher training.
(6) Aeronautical record attempts.
(7) Aircraft acceptance flights.
111
Wait at least _____ minutes after engine shutdown before checking engine oil level, If flights of over ___ hours are made, engine oil level must be at the full line of the sight glass before flight.
20
6
112
In reference to formation flight, what is sight picture and why must an aviator become proficient and comfortable with sight picture?
Sight picture is a particular angle, based on particular components a trailing aircraft sees or cues on when flying in formation on another aircraft. This is based on aircraft type and may cue on formation lights– especially at night or with NVDs. An aviator must become proficient and comfortable with this sight picture as it allows an aviator to judge attitude changes and relative position to the preceding aircraft.
113
What is a “close” formation and how is this distance determined for an aircraft in flight?
Close - The horizontal distance for close is three to five rotor disks.
Formations are defined and expressed in rotor diameters (based on type of aircraft being flown) between tip-path planes or the rearward edge of the disk on the leading aircraft and the forward edge of the disk on the trailing aircraft.
114
Pressing the Select button while the cursor is in Free Cursor Mode will cause an _____ ________ to appear next to the _______ _______. The ________ ______ _______ will be dependent upon the hooked item at the time the Select button is pressed.
edit menu
hooked point
specific menu options
115
According to the Student Handout, ADD will be provided on the Waypoint Edit menu. Selection of ADD will provide a graphical interface for the operator to add waypoints to the ___ __ ____ _______ _______. Off-route waypoints may be selected for ____________ without the creation a new waypoint. The ADD selection will only be available if the originally selected waypoint is the ____ __________ of the flight plan. If an off-route waypoint is hooked, the ___ __________ _________ will be removed. When SELECT is pressed from the cursor controller, a ______ ________ _______ will be drawn from the last flight plan waypoint to the potentially added waypoint (new or off-route). BE PREPARED TO DISCUSS.
end of the flight plan
insertion
last waypoint
new waypoint symbol
white dashed line
116
Selection of DATA will open the ________ _____ or __________ _____ menus, as appropriate, for the hooked item. The data displayed will be dependent upon the _________ _____ _________ about the symbol, graphic, or waypoint type. The Data Menu will display the data for all fields in the database for which there is valid data.
symbol / graphic
waypoint data
available data stored
117
According to the Student Handout, DIRECT TO will be provided on the Map , Symbol , and Waypoint Edit menus. Selection of DIRECT TO will add the hooked item into the ______ _______ _____ as the _______ __ ________. A white dashed line will be drawn from the ________ _______ ________ symbol to the future Direct To point. BE PREPARED TO DISCUSS.
active flight plan
current TO waypoint
aircraft present position
118
According to the Student Handout, INSERT will be provided on the Waypoint Edit menu. Selection of INSERT will provide a graphical interface for the operator to insert waypoints into a flight plan, ________ ___ ___________ ________ _______. Off-route waypoints may be selected for insertion ________ ___ ________ of a new waypoint. When INSERT is selected, a new waypoint symbol will be displayed at the cursor location. If an _________ waypoint is hooked, the new waypoint symbol will be removed. When SELECT is pressed from the cursor controller, white dashed line will be drawn from the __________ ________ ________ to the new waypoint (or off-route waypoint) and from the waypoint preceding the originally selected waypoint to the new waypoints. BE PREPARED TO DISCUSS.
preceding the originally selected waypoint
without the creation
off-route
originally selected waypoint
119
MAP MARK will be provided on the Map Edit, Symbol Edit, and Waypoint Edit menus. Selection of MAP MARK will capture the _______ ______________ ________ ________ or the position of the ______ _____ in Lat/Long or MGRS and display the position in the FMS scratchpad
current geo-referenced cursor position
hooked item
120
What are the three vertical separations that can be used during Multi-aircraft operations, and what are the advantages/disadvantages to each?
Flat. All aircraft are flown at the same altitude.
Disadvantages: may get caught in rotor wash of aircraft ahead of you
Stepped-up. Vertical separation of 1 to 10 feet higher between lead, chalk 2, and each successive aircraft.
Advantages: stay out of rotor wash of the aircraft in front
Stepped-down. Vertical separation of 1 to 10 feet lower between lead, chalk 2, and each successive aircraft.
Advantages: See the aircraft in front easier
Disadvantages: Trailing aircraft may experience wake turbulence. To avoid this, they will need to adjust their relative position. Trailing acft require more power to fly in this formation
121
What is Degraded Visual Environment? What may it severely affect?
A state of reduced visibility whereby spatial situational awareness and aircraft control cannot be maintained with the same precision as in normal visual meteorological conditions.
DVE may severely affect a pilot's ability to maintain accurate aircraft orientation or control.
122
How does a pilot's experience affect susceptibility to spatial disorientation (SD)?
All crewmembers are vulnerable to SD regardless of experience level.
123
During terrain flight planning, what is the primary criteria to consider for route selection?
enemy tactical situation and, secondarily, on ease of navigation
124
Terrain flight is a tactic that uses_______, ________, and ________ objects to mask the aircraft from _______, ________, ________, and electronic detection systems.
terrain, vegetation, and manmade
visual, optical, thermal
125
How does the Upturned Exhaust System (UES) enhance aircraft survivability?
The UES enhances aircraft survivability by significantly suppressing the infrared (IR) signature of the engines. The UES is a modular replacement for the standard exhaust tail cone or the IHIRSS. The main components of the UES are a lobed exhaust nozzle, a baffled exhaust duct, and an insulated chimney fairing that directs exhaust gases upward through the rotor system, preventing line-of-sight viewing of the engine's IR signature.
126
The map will automatically enter static mode once the ________becomes active. Static mode allows for _________ and _________ of the digital map underlay.
free cursor
zooming
panning
127
According to the Student Handout, MOVE will be provided on the Symbol Edit and Waypoint Edit menus. Selection of MOVE will activate the symbol or waypoint move function. When moving a symbol, positioning the cursor at a ___ ________ and pressing the MFSC Select button will cause a _______ of the symbol to be placed at that location in ______. BE PREPARED TO DISCUSS.
new location
replica
white
128
In reference to TC 3-04.4, what is the caution associated with wire hazards? What are two specific cues for locating wires?
(CAUTION)
Wires are nearly impossible to see with night vision devices (NVDs). They are also difficult to see during certain times of the day; for example, when an aviator is flying into a setting sun. Wires and poles can become coated in dust and snow making them even more difficult to identify. During any mission briefing, an aviator must review the presence of wires and identify the location and status of the wire-hazards map.
swath cut through vegetation and the presence of supporting poles
129
Where are the two locations that the Storm Scope information can be displayed?
Navigation Source Data Display and ARC Display on PFD
130
What is the NOTE associated with the Storm Scope as written in current AWR1726? What is the CAUTION associated with Storm scope WX-500 operation, and how long is storm activity stored in the memory and displayed?
(NOTE)
The WX-500 Stormscope is susceptible to transmissions on the aircraft radios, and will intermittently present a false single lightning strike at the 7 o'clock position at approximately 40 nautical miles. This false strike will time out or the pilot may select"clear" on the MFD to remove.
(CAUTION)
Clusters of two or more discharge points in the strike display mode indicate thunderstorm activity when they reappear after clearing the screen. In the cell display mode, even a single discharge point may represent thunderstorm activity and should be avoided.
The stormscope memory can store up to 3600 individual strike or cell positions. The data is held in the memory for three minutes. After three minutes such expired data is deleted from the memory and the display.
131
How does the Mechanical Mixing Unit compensate for torque effect and the vertical thrust component of the canted tail rotor?
Yaw to Pitch - Compensates for changes in the vertical thrust component of the canted tail rotor as tail rotor pitch is changed. The mixing unit provides aft input to the main rotor system as tail rotor pitch is increased and forward input as tail rotor pitch is decreased.
132
In reference to TC 3-04.4, what are three specific hazards to terrain flight safety? Give one example for each.
Physical: Man-made and Natural
Weather: Restricted visibility, Wind condition
Human Factors: Fatigue, obstacle detection ability
133
How do you create a storepoint and how many storepoints can be created?
Storepoints are created in flight and used for navigation or targets of opportunity. Store points maybe created by over flying a location and pressing MARK on the FLYOVER STORE screen by selecting a position on the map or by pressing the FIX key. Pressing the FIX key a second time will transition you to the STORE POINT DATA screen. The data conveyed here will be the location where the FIX key was first pressed and will be designated the next available letter designation. As many as 24 storepoints may be created, and will be designated as B through Z less O. Store point A is designated as the hover waypoint and is displayed on the PFD, ARC, HOVER and NAV displays.
134
Why does the yellow EIC miscompare annunciation appear and what is the miscompare threshold for TGT?
The EICAS parameter values from the two DCUs are compared to detect possible faulty data. The comparison is always between DCU 1 and DCU 2 data, regardless of the selected EICAS data source for display. Due to processing of parameters separately by the DCUs, it is normal to see slight differences between the pilot and copilot EICAS readouts. Each DCU supplies both engine 1 and engine 2 data, but there is no comparison of engine 1 data to engine 2 data. When a miscompare condition is detected, the text label for the affected parameter turns to black text on a yellow background, and the yellow EIC miscompare annunciation appears above the PFD power pod.
Engine Oil Pressure P - 10.0 PSI
Engine Oil Temperature T - 13.0°C
NG - 4.4%
TGT - 7.3°C
Torque Q - 5.6%
NP - 1.0%
NR (NR < 70%) - 5.00%
NR (NR ≥ 70%) - 1.7%
Main Transmission Oil Pressure - 10.0 PSI
Main Transmission Oil Temperature - 13.0°C
Main Fuel Quantity - 10.0 lbs
135
In reference to UH-60 ATM, what is the WARNING associated with Rolling Takeoff? Why should the aircraft's heading be aligned with the take-off direction below maximum rate-of climb airspeed?
(WARNING)
If the takeoff is aborted, it may be impossible to stop the aircraft before clearing the barriers (depending on aircraft weight, speed, surface composition, and size of the takeoff area). Some situations requiring this maneuver will usually result in very marginal single engine characteristics. This increased risk factor will be addressed during the mission risk assessment process.
Maintain heading with pedals so the aircraft is aligned with the runway/surface takeoff direction when the aircraft is below maximum rate-of-climb airspeed should the takeoff need to be aborted.
136
What does the Go Around (Go ARND) Mode provide, and how is it engaged? Can the pilot change FPM ROC and airspeed reference?
The GO ARND mode provides pitch, roll, collective cues, and FPS commands to establish a wings level 750 fpm Rate of Climb (ROC) while maintaining 70 knots. The GO ARND hold mode is manually engaged by pressing the GO ARND button on the corresponding FD/DCP. The GO ARND button on the cyclic grip also provides a means to manually select the GO ARND mode for engagement. GO ARND can be engaged at any airspeed.
The pilot cannot change the 750 fpm ROC and 70 knot airspeed references however, the pilot can at any time engage IAS or VS modes and adjust the desired airspeed or rate of climb.
137
When is the LOC legend displayed on the FD/DCP? According to the student handout, when will BC be displayed on the FD/DCP?
Localizer - when a ILS localizer source is selected as the NAV source for the corresponding FD and when the difference between the selected course and the actual heading is less than 105°.
Back Course - (BC mode will ARM when the difference between the selected course and the actual heading is greater than 105°)
138
What does the ILS DECL mode provide?
The ILS DECL provides a means to automatically decelerate the helicopter from its present airspeed to 70 knots prior to the 200-foot AGL point on the glide slope. Once the DECL mode achieves 70 knots, the IAS mode will automatically engage and the DECL mode will disen-gage. The airspeed for engagement of the DECL mode is 70 knots or greater.
139
When can the VOR navigation mode be engaged?
The VOR navigation mode can only be engaged at indicated airspeeds of 50 knots and above. VOR can only be engaged when a valid VOR frequency is tuned and the FCC is receiving a VOR valid signal. The VOR mode is manually engaged by pressing the VOR button on the corresponding FD/DCP.
140
When will the VOR mode switch to station passage mode? What happens during this mode?
When the FCC determines that the helicopter is over the VOR station. The CAP annunciation on the FD/DCP will change to SP to show the change in mode. The helicopter will stop attempting to track the VOR radial and will maintain the heading.
141
While in the SP mode, when will the FD/DCP indicate VOR CAP again?
When the FCC determines the VOR signal has stabilized enough for navigation, the FD/DCP will indicate VOR CAP again; or if the FCC calculates the helicopter position approximately 3 miles from the VOR station,theFD/DCP should indicate VOR CAP again, whichever the FCC computes first.
142
What is the difference between a sign of hypoxia and a symptom of hypoxia?
Signs are effects on the body can be observed by others and are therefore considered objective. However, individuals can observe or feel their own symptoms. Since symptoms can vary from person to person, they are considered subjective.
143
What does the T in the triangle indicate in the margin data?
A black triangle with a white T, (appears in the notes area), signifies that the airport has nonstandard IFR takeoff minimums. The appropriate section in the front of the DOD FLIP (Terminal) charts is consulted in this case.
144
The MSA for OZ (RUCKR) is 25 NM. What does this provide? Explain Minimum Sector and Emergency Safe Altitudes.
The MSA is provided for emergency purposes only and guarantees 1,000 feet obstruction clearance in the sector indicated with reference to the bearing in the circle. For conventional navigation systems, the MSA is normally based on the primary omnidirectional facility on which the IAP is predicated.
*** Altitudes depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1000 feet of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance from the navigation facility upon which a procedure is predicated. These altitudes will be identified as Minimum Sector Altitude or Emergency Safe Altitude and are established as follows:
(a) MINIMUM SECTOR ALTITUDES - Altitudes depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance within a 25-mile radius of the navigation facility upon which the procedure is predicated. Sectors depicted on approach charts must be at least 90 degrees in scope. These altitudes are for emergency use only and do not necessarily assure acceptable navigational signal coverage.
(b) EMERGENCY SAFE ALTITUDES - Altitudes depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance in non-mountainous areas and 2,000 feet of obstacle clearance in designated mountainous areas within a 100-mile radius of the navigational facility upon which the procedure is predicated and normally used only in military procedures. These altitudes are identified on published procedures as "Emergency Safe Altitudes".
145
Pressing left or right on the collective trim switch will result in what happening during cruise flight above 50 KIAS? What if that trim switch is adjusted up or down while in the Barometric Altitude Hold (ALT) Mode?
When HDG is not engaged with a coupled FD, the collective trim beeper may be used to establish a standard rate turn.
When using the collective trim beeper to increase or decrease altitude, the altitude will change at a rate of 4 fps for the first 4 seconds. After 5 seconds, the altitude will change at a rate of 16 fps. Holding the collective trim beeper up or down for more than 5 seconds changes the reference altitude by approximately 1000 fpm.
146
What happens when the Emergency Control Panel, COM GUARD \ NORM switch is placed into the guard position? When the switch is returned to the NORM position what should happen?
COM GUARD:
Sets the COM 2 (AN/ARC-231 - 2) radio to 243.000 MHz (UHF guard frequency) and also sets the COM 3 (AN/ARC-231 - 3) radio to 121.500 MHz (VHF guard frequency)
NORM:
Placing the switch back to NORM sets both radios back to the previous band and frequency.
147
How long after getting an immunization are crewmembers restricted from performing aircrew duties?
Medical restriction from flying duty will be for a minimum period of 12 hours following any immunization. If any type of reaction occurs, local or systemic, the aviator remains restricted from flying duties until cleared by a flight surgeon or APA.
148
What two conditions must be present for the aircrew to fly below MDA or continue below the DH?
Descent below MDA is not authorized until sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing.
Descent below decision altitude/DH is not authorized until sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established.
149
Above 50 KIAS, when the using the Indicated Airspeed (IAS) Hold Mode, what are two ways that the pilot can adjust the IAS reference for IAS hold?
By either using the P-Sync Knob or using the Cyclic Trim Beeper.
While the IAS mode is coupled, the IAS reference is capable of being adjusted five knots per second or in one knot increments upward by moving the cyclic TRIM beeper switch forward and downward by moving the cyclic TRIM beeper switch to the rear.
150
Who is responsible to ensure the reference conditions set on the FD/DCP are achievable within the aircraft engine limits and ambient conditions? What is this person responsible to monitor?
(WARNING)
The pilot is responsible to ensure that the reference conditions set on the FD/DCP are achievable within the aircraft engine lim-its and ambient conditions and to monitor torque, TGT and NG in coupled flight.
151
If conducting a Category B circling approach, how far out are you cleared to circle the airfield to your landing runway? If the MDA for your approach is 1100 MSL and this (white C in black box) symbol is present, what is your circling radius?
1.5 mile radius for category "B".
*** 1.3 for A
Apply expanded circling approach maneuvering airspace radius table located in the legend (in front of approach plates)
1.8 mile
152
You are enroute to Tallahassee on V7 airway 2 nautical miles from Seminole VORTAC, when Tallahassee approach control tells you the following: “Army 12345 hold at Seminole VORTAC”. This is the only information that you have received. What are you expected to do when arriving at the Seminole VORTAC?
If no holding pattern is charted and holding instructions have not been issued, the pilot should ask ATC for holding instructions prior to reaching the fix. This procedure will eliminate the possibility of an aircraft entering a holding pattern other than that desired by ATC. If unable to obtain holding instructions prior to reaching the fix (due to frequency congestion, stuck microphone, etc.), hold in a standard pattern on the course on which you approached the fix and request further clearance as soon as possible. In this event, the altitude/flight level of the aircraft at the clearance limit will be protected so that separation will be provided as required.
153
What are the navigational source lateral deviations per dot on the ADI: VOR, ILS, ILS Back Course, TACAN, and FMS enroute?
VOR - 5 deg/dot
ILS - 1.25 deg/dot*
ILS Back Course - 2.5 deg/dot*
TACAN - 5 deg/dot
FMS Enroute - 2 deg/dot
* Approximate depending on the ILS facility.
154
You are flying VFR cross country as the pilot not on the controls when you experience Inadvertent Instrument Meteorological Conditions. The pilot on the controls has done all of his steps in accordance with the crew mission brief and ATM. As the pilot not on the controls you are responsible for squawking Emergency. What is the fastest way to squawk emergency without using the FMS?
Place the IFF EMERG/NORM switch to IFF EMERG position.
IFF EMERG - Takes the transonder out of the STBY mode and sets the squak to code 7700.
155
What are the types of Hypoxia and their descriptions?
Hypoxic Hypoxia - Hypoxic hypoxia occurs when there is not enough oxygen in the air or when decreasing atmospheric pressure prevents diffusion of oxygen from the lungs to the bloodstream. high altitudes due to the reduction of PO2 in the atmosphere.
Hypemic Hypoxia - Hypemic, or anemic, hypoxia is caused by a reduction in blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Anemia and blood loss are the most common causes.
Stagnant Hypoxia - With stagnant hypoxia, blood's oxygen-carrying capacity is adequate but circulation is inadequate. Conditions such as heart failure, arterial spasm, and blood vessel occlusion predispose affected individuals to stagnant hypoxia.
Histotoxic Hypoxia - Histotoxic hypoxia results from an interference with the use of oxygen by body tissues. Alcohol, narcotics, and certain poisons such as cyanide interfere with a cell's ability.
156
What are the oxygen/altitude requirements for flights in an unpressurized aircraft?
Aircraft crews.
(a) On flights above 10,000 feet pressure altitude for more than 1 hour.
(b) On flights above 12,000 feet pressure altitude for more than 30 minutes.
Aircraft crews and all other occupants.
(a) On flights above 14,000 feet pressure altitude for any period of time.
(b) For flights above 18,000 feet pressure altitude, oxygen prebreathing will be accomplished by aircrew members.
157
What are the four common techniques for executing a procedure turn (course reversal)? At what point should the turn be commenced, and what type and rate of turn should an aviator use?
Teardrop pattern (10 degrees for 3 minutes, 20 degrees for 2 minutes, and 30 degrees for 1 minute).
Standard 45-degree turn (45/180).
The 80/260 course reversal.
Holding/racetrack pattern (see standard holding pattern above).
*the point at which the turn may be commenced and the type and rate of turn are left to the discretion of the aviator.
158
What are the problems that could happen to the 701D engines and the DEC/ EDECU if a lightning strike occurs? How far should we circumnavigate thunderstorm cells by?
both engines go immediately to maximum power with no temperature limiter or overspeed protection. In addition, the 701D engine overspeed may result in single or dual-engine shutdown without automatic relight.
Avoid turbulence associated with strong thunderstorms. Circumnavigate cells by at least 20 miles. Turbulence may also be present in the clear air above a thunderstorm. Fly at least 1,000 feet above the cloud tops for every 10 knots of wind at that level, or fly around the storm.
159
If for whatever reason the altimeter setting for this approach was unavailable, are you still able to fly the approach based on the last altimeter setting received?
No, When the altimeter setting(s) on which the approach is based is not available, the approach is not authorized.
160
What is Chan 34 in the Localizer Navaid Box used for and where can I find the frequency for it?
It is a TACAN Channel and signifies DME availability. It provides distance information.
FIH, Page D-17 -Lists frequencys
161
Pilots in their initial radio contact with the facility concerned will state? Is there a “Clearance Readback” requirement?
Pilots in their initial radio communication with the facility concerned will state: AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION, LOCATION ON THE AIRPORT, TYPE OF OPERATION PLANNED (IFR), POINT OF FIRST INTENDED LANDING AND REQUESTED ACTION (TAXI/REQUEST CLEARANCE/ETC.).
"CLEARANCE READBACK" - There is no requirment for pilots to readback ATC clearances while on the ground (except runwary assignment and hold short instructions); However, pilots should clarify any portion of hte clearance that is not completely understood. In addition, controllers may request pilots to readback any clearances.
162
What are the minimum cloud clearance and visibility requirements for departing an airfield IFR as an Army Aviator?
The aviator flying the aircraft on takeoff who has logged 50 hours or more of actual weather time as PC has no Army takeoff minimums. Weather time flown in a simulator does not apply.
Helicopters—ceiling 100 feet and either visibility 1/4 mile, RVR 1,200 feet, or metric equivalent.
*** The RVR may be used when takeoff is made from the runway for which RVR is reported.
163
What are the IFR take-off minimums and (Obstacle) departure procedures for Lowe?
Helipad WHISKEY: hover at 274' MSL/30' AGL, then climb hdg 183° to 700 before proceeding on course.
Helipad ECHO: climb hdg 125° to 700 before proceeding on course.
Helipad BRAVO: Hover at 318' MSL/ 35' AGL, then climb hdg 183° to 700 before proceeding on course.
164
Performing a Z-axis plunge on the cyclic trim switch can be used for Unusual Attitude Recovery. What are the problems associated with using the Z-axis plunge to recover the aircraft?
Pressing in on the trim beeper switch is de-signed to recover the aircraft to a level flight attitude when above 60 KIAS, or command the aircraft to decelerate to a hover if below 60 KIAS. The effectiveness of the coupled flight director in recovering the aircraft to a level attitude or hover is dependant on the aircraft attitude and pitch/roll rate at the time the switch is pressed. The flight director is limited by the rate that the trim system can move the flight controls. There are combinations of extreme attitude and pitch/roll rates from which the flight director will not be able to recover to a level attitude/hover.
165
How is the Vertical Speed (VS) Hold Mode selected? How do you change the VS reference?
VS mode is manually engaged by pressing the VS button on the corresponding FD/DCP.
When the VS mode is coupled to the FPS, the VS reference may be adjusted upward or downward by moving the collective TRIM switch up or down.
May also adjust by pressing the collective trim release then adjusting the collective to the new reference.
*** Upward collective TRIM shall have precedence over the downward TRIM for determination of the VS reference.
166
Describe the auto-level function of the GS CAP mode. What is the NOTE associated with this mode?
The GS mode provides intercept and tracking of a glide slope signal and automatically commands the helicopter to level off at 50 feet AGL.
(NOTE)
The auto level function will not operate if the radar altimeter is inoperative during the ILS approach.
167
When conducting a missed approach, a climb gradient of at least _____ feet per nautical mile is required, (except for Copter approaches, where a climb of at least _____ feet per nautical mile is required), unless a higher climb gradient is published in the notes section of the approach procedure chart.
200
400
168
What are the different types of special use airspace as per the Aeronautical Information Manual?
Prohibited, Restricted, Warning, Military Operations, Alert, Controlled Firing, and National Security Areas.
(Merry Christmas No WRAP)
169
This is a _____________________ Marking.
Runway Boundary Sign
*** (AIM) This sign has a yellow background with a black inscription with a graphic depicting the pavement holding position marking, as shown in FIG 2−3−33. This sign, which faces the runway and is visible to the pilot exiting the runway, is located adjacent to the holding position marking on the pavement. The sign is intended to provide pilots with another visual cue which they can use as a guide in deciding when they are “clear of the runway.”
170
When is the VOR or TACAN symbol displayed on the MFD's ND page or PFD ARC display? How can I determine the aircraft's position relative to the station of the NAVAID or the active FMS waypoint?
Additional radio navigation station position/bearing symbology is presented when the selected navigation source is either TACAN or VOR. You can determine your position by referencing the moving map or by using the VOR needle distance and direction if paired.
171
When flying a non-copter approach, what airspeed can the approach be flown? When flying a copter instrument approach procedure, what is the maximum airspeed for any segment of the approach?
The helicopter may initiate the final approach segment at speeds up to the upper limit of the highest approach category authorized by the procedure, but must be slowed to no more than 90 KIAS at the missed approach point (MAP) in order to apply the visibility reduction.
The maximum airspeed is 90 KIAS on any segment of the approach or missed approach.
172
What are stressors? What are the types of stressors?
A stressor is any stimulus or event that requires an individual to adjust or adapt in some way— emotionally, physiologically, or behaviorally.
Types of stressors: PSYCHOSOCIAL, ENVIROMENTAL, PHYSIOLOGICAL (SELF-IMPOSED), and COGNITIVE (MENTAL)
173
What is job stress and how can it affect aviators?
Regardless of job assignment, carrying out assigned duties often produces stress. Conflict in the workplace, low morale and unit cohesion, boredom, fatigue, overtasking, and poorly defined responsibilities all are potential debilitating job stressors.
174
I In addition to bearing information, what else does a TACAN provide?
In addition to the displayed bearing information, TACAN adds a continuous display of range information. DME, an integral part of TACAN, provides continuous slant-range distance information.
175
Upon reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared in a non-military terminal area, what reports are required to ATC?
report time and altitude or flight level.
176
When conducting a practice approach tower clears you for the option. What are you authorized to perform when cleared for the option?
ATC authorization for an aircraft to make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop and go, or full stop landing at the discretion of the pilot.
177
The aircraft utilizing this sign is currently on _______ taxiway.
Alpha
***This sign has a black background with a yellow inscription and yellow border.
178
When is an alternate airfield required for an IFR flight?
Unmonitored navaids
Predominant Weather isn't 400-1 above weather planning minimum required for the app to be flown
Radar Required
or
VFR Exception Rule, Be on published routing and able to maintain cloud clearance
179
When is a course reversal maneuver or procedure turn not authorized?
“No PT” appears on the approach course on the plan view of the approach chart.
Radar vectoring is provided to the final approach course.
A holding pattern is published in lieu of a procedure turn.
A timed approach is executed from a holding fix.
Otherwise directed by ATC.
180
When encountering moderate turbulence, what should airspeed be limited to? What should you use as your primary pitch instrument? Should you use IAS and ALT hold modes on the FD/DCP during moderate turbulence?
For moderate turbulence, limit airspeed to the MAX RANGE (Chapter 7) or Vne minus 15 knots, whichever is less.
The vertical situation indicator as the primary pitch instrument.
Disengaging IAS and ALT hold will help keep airspeed relatively constant.
181
How will an aircraft react to moderate turbulence/chop? What will occupants feel inside the aircraft? What is the difference between Occasional, Intermittent, and Continuous turbulence frequency?
Moderate Turbulence - Changes in altitude and/or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. It usually causes variations in indicated airspeed.
Moderate Chop - It causes rapid bumps or jolts without appreciable changes in aircraft altitude or attitude.
Occupants feel definite strains against seat belts or shoulder straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult.
Occasional−Less than 1/3 of the time.
Intermittent−1/3 to 2/3.
Continuous−More than 2/3.
182
How is a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) ARC intercepted?
An arc may be intercepted at any angle but is normally intercepted from a radial.
183
What must be done to get VOR DME information to display?
The VOR must be paired with the TACAN receiver on the FMS NAV settings page in order to use the TACAN DME to show distance to a VOR station.
184
When is a Pilot Weather Report (PIREP) required to be transmitted to an Air Route Traffic Control Center, Terminal Air Traffic Controller or Flight Service Station? Pilot Reports will be made under what conditions?
Pilots will immediately report hazardous weather conditions, thunderstorms/lightning, turbulence, icing and windshear to ARTCC, terminal ATC, or FSS.
(a) Inflight when requested.
(b) When unusual and unforecast weather conditions are encountered.
(c) When weather conditions on an IFR approach differ from the latest observation.
(d) When a missed approach is executed due to weather.
(e) When a wind shear is encountered on departure or arrival.
185
What are the Physiological (Self Imposed) Stressors?
Drugs
Exhaustion
Alcohol
Tobacco
Hypoglycemia
186
The minimum planning weather for the Localizer Approach is 500-1/2, what if the MALSR is Inop according to the INOP Components Table?
Planning minimum goes up to 500-1
***400-1 above that is 900-2.
187
While planning for an IFR flight you get an area forecast that reports visibility and ceiling as IFR. What is considered IFR visibility and ceiling and what are the other Categorical Outlooks and the associated visibility and ceilings for each category?
1. LIFR (Low IFR). Ceiling less than 500 feet and/or visibility less than 1 mile.
2. IFR. Ceiling 500 to less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility 1 to less than 3 miles.
3. MVFR (Marginal VFR). Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive.
4. VFR. Ceiling greater than 3,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles; includes sky clear.
188
The GH-3001 ESIS provides the pilots with a visual display of ______and _____ attitude, ________, ________, ___________, _________ and __________ indications as a backup to the helicopter's Primary Flight Display (PFD). Where is the slip/skid indicator located on the ESIS display?
Pitch
Roll
airspeed
altitude
vertical speed
heading
validity
White rectangle located below the roll pointer indicating degree of helicopter trim.
189
When operating in standalone configuration, the ESIS can operate for a minimum of ____________ using the system's battery.
30 minutes
190
Where is the list of minimum equipment required for flight in the UH-60M found?
AR 95-1 table 5-2
191
When climbing to altitude, should a crewmember perform a valsalva maneuver during the ascent?
No
Note. To avoid over-pressurization of the middle ear, crewmembers should never attempt a Valsalva maneuver during ascent. It is possible to over-pressurize during the descent; crewmembers should only perform this maneuver as their bodies require.
192
What does the bold solid line around the NAVAID in the plan view symbolize?
primary NAVAID used for the approach
193
You are flying IFR to Montgomery Regional airport and ATIS reports that you can expect the visual approach. What is a visual approach and what are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements?
A visual approach is conducted on an IFR flight plan and authorizes a pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport. The pilot must have either the airport or the preceding identified aircraft in sight. This approach must be authorized and controlled by the appropriate air traffic control facility. Reported weather at the airport must have a ceiling at or above 1,000 feet and visibility 3 miles or greater.
194
Why is Wiregrass VORTAC located on a concentric ring within the plan view?
Because they are Enroute Facilities
*** Dashed circles or concentric rings around the distance circle are used when the information necessary to the procedure will not fit to scale within the limits of the plan view area. They serve as a means to systematically arrange this information in its relative position outside and beyond the reference circle. These concentric rings are labeled en route and feeder facilities. The en route facilities ring depicts NAVAIDs, fixes, and intersections that are part of the en route low-altitude airway structure used in the approach procedure. The feeder facilities ring includes radio aids to navigation, fixes and intersections used by ATC to direct aircraft to intervening facilities/fixes between the en route structure, and the IAF. Feeder routes are not part of the en route structure.
195
Additional reports- The following reports should be made at all times:
1. When vacating any previously assigned altitude or flight level for a newly assigned altitude or flight level.
2. When an altitude change will be made if operating on a clearance specifying "VFR ON TOP."
3. When unable to climb/descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute.
4. When approach has been missed. (Request clearance for specific action; i.e., to alternative airport, another approach, etc.).
5. Change in the average true airspeed (at cruising altitude) when it varies by 5 percent or 10 knots (whichever is greater) from that filed in the flight plan.
6. The time and altitude or flight level upon reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.
7. When leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
NOTE: The reports in subparagraphs 6 and 7 may be omitted by pilots of aircraft involved in instrument training at military terminal area facilities when radar service is being provided.
8. Any loss, in controlled airspace, of VOR, TACAN, ADF, low frequency navigation receiver capability, complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability or impairment of air/ground communications capability. Reports should include aircraft identification, equipment affected, degree to which the capability to operate under IFR in the ATC system is impaired, and the nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC.
NOTE: Other equipment installed in an aircraft may effectively impair safety and/or the ability to operate under IFR. If such equipment (e.g. airborne weather radar) malfunctions and in the pilot's judgment either safety or IFR capabilities are affected, reports should be made as above.
9. Any information relating to the safety of flight.
(b) When not in "radar contact".
1. When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach (nonprecision approach) or when leaving the outer marker or fix used in lieu of the outer marker inbound on final approach (precision approach).
2. A corrected estimate at anytime it becomes apparent that an estimate as previously submitted is in error in excess of 2 minutes. For flights in the North Atlantic (NAT), a revised estimate is required if the error is 3 minutes or more.
(c) Pilots encountering weather conditions which have not been forecast, or hazardous conditions which have been forecast, are expected to forward a report of such weather to ATC.
196
Define VFR-on-top versus VFR-over-the-top? According to AR 95-1, are there additional requirements for VFR-over-on-top?
VISUAL FLIGHT RULES-ON-TOP :
Aviators on IFR flight plans operating in VFR weather conditions may request VFR-On-Top in lieu of an assigned altitude. VFR-On-Top is an IFR clearance allowing aviators to fly VFR altitudes, which permits them to select an altitude or flight level of their choice (subject to any ATC restrictions).
VISUAL FLIGHT RULES OVER-THE-TOP :
VFR Over-The-Top is strictly a VFR operation in which the aviator maintains VFR cloud clearance requirements while operating on top of an undercast layer. This situation might occur when the departure airport and destination airport are reporting clear conditions, but a low overcast layer is present in between. The aviator could conduct a VFR departure, fly over the top of the undercast in VFR conditions, then complete a VFR descent and landing at the destination. VFR cloud clearance requirements are maintained at all times, and an IFR clearance is not required for any part of the flight.
95-1: Aircraft will not be flown above a cloud or fog layer under VFR for more than 30 minutes unless—
(1) The aircraft is equipped for IMC flight and not restricted from IMC flight.
(2) All IFR and requirements can be met for the remaining flight.
197
What are the 3 different types of holding patterns?
Holding in lieu of procedure turn
Arrival pattern
Missed Approach
198
Identify the following signs?
(White 15 - 33 with red background)
(White 3 black square background)
Runway Holding Position Sign -
“15−33” indicates that the threshold for Runway 15 is to the left and the threshold for Runway 33 is to the right.
Runway Distance Remaining Sign -
Indicating 3,000 feet of Runway Remaining
199
Do you have to comply with A (white A black background) IFR alternate minimums?
No, IFR Alternate Minimums: Ceiling and Visibility Minimums not applicable to USA/USN/USAF.
200
How far from active restricted areas should aviators plan to avoid?
Aircrews should ensure that their route of flight will avoid active restricted areas by at least 3 NM, unless permission has been obtained from the controlling agency to operate in that airspace, and the appropriate ATC facility has been notified.
201
When filing for the ILS RWY 10 into MGM, how do you file for the IAF of MARRA?
File to MGM then MARRA. Using KMGM as the destination.
202
Above the V454 airway, what do the altitudes 2400 and 2000 represent? What is the purpose of the Flag X at Miler intersection?
2400 - MINIMUM ENROUTE IFR ALTITUDE/MEA - The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance
requirements between those fixes.
2000 - MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTITUDE/MOCA (P.CG,JCS) - The lowest
published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route
segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and
which assures acceptable navigation signal coverage only within 25 statue miles (22 nautical
miles) of a VOR.
MINIMUM CROSSING ALTITUDE/MCA - The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft
must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher Minimum Enroute Instrument Flight Rules
Altitude (MEA).
203
According to the Current AWR 1726 Required Equipment List Supporting AR 95-1, Table 5-2, what lighting equipment is required for Night and NVD operations?
Anti-collision Light System, Position / Instrument Light(s), *Landing/Search Light, and Flashlight.
N. NVD IR light must be installed and operational for all NVD flights except FLIR aircraft. Failure of the light in flight must be evaluated to determine impact on mission and further NVD flight. Either the searchlight or landing light will suffice for the “white light” capability required for night operation.
204
During tactical operations at night, how should the cockpit lighting be adjusted?
(CAUTION)
During tactical operations at night, cockpit lighting should be adjusted to the absolute lowest usable levels and crewmembers should be discrete in the use of supplemental lights to avoid detection by enemy forces.
205
Referencing TC 3-04.4 Chapter 5, regarding terrain flight rally terms, such as ___________________________, and the use of clock positions to identify directions are typical terms used. Aircrew members should agree on standardized terms identifying terrain features and eliminate_________________________________________. The navigating aviator should project far enough ahead of the aircraft to facilitate timely information flow to the flying aviator specifically, _________________________________________________ they can assist in identifying.
“turn left, stop turn, increase airspeed,”
regional language variations
upcoming turns, airspeed and altitude changes, or expected terrain features
206
For airports with 3-step pilot controlled lighting systems, how do you turn the lights to low, medium or high intensity levels?
SYSTEM KEY MICROPHONE INTENSITY
3-step 7 times in 5 seconds High
5 times in 5 seconds Medium
3 times in 5 seconds Low
207
If illumination is insufficient, how should an aviator perform a takeoff to ensure obstacle clearance?
If sufficient illumination does not exist, perform a Vertical takeoff by applying takeoff power first followed by a slow acceleration to ensure obstacle clearance. The P* may perform the takeoff from a hover or from the ground.
208
In reference to UH-60 ATM, what are the NIGHT or NIGHT VISION GOGGLE (NVG) Considerations for TASK 1058: Perform VMC Approach?
1. Altitude, apparent ground speed, and rate of closure are difficult to estimate at night. The rate of descent during the final 100 feet should be slightly less than during the day to avoid abrupt attitude changes at low altitudes. After establishing the descent during unaided flights, airspeed may be reduced to approximately 50 knots until apparent ground speed and rate of closure appear to be increasing. Progressively decrease the rate of descent and forward speed until termination of maneuver.
2. Surrounding terrain or vegetation may decrease contrast and cause degraded depth perception during the approach. Before descending below obstacles, determine the need for artificial lighting. Use proper scanning techniques to avoid spatial disorientation.
3. When performing operations during unaided night flight, ensure that the searchlight or landing light (white light) is in the desired position. Using the white light will impair night vision for several minutes. Therefore, exercise added caution when resuming flight before reaching full dark adaptation.
209
The concept of __________________relates to how the cockpit layout design enhances the aviator's ability to acquire information easily and quickly. It is the point the crew station designer specifies as where the aviator's eyes would be. The design of Army aircraft–as it relates to crewmember positions–may degrade the ability to see outside the aircraft or cause difficulty in seeing something inside the aircraft. This is known as DEP violation. Many aircraft have various problems including difficult to read instruments, inadequate lighting, and poorly positioned gauges. Proper ____________ is required for DEP. The distance to achieve DEP for a UH-60 is _____ft.
design eye point
Seat adjustment
12
210
Referencing TC 3-04.93, when conducting operations where sleep loss is expected, what
behavior indicators should be monitored among crewmembers? Can individuals accurately determine their own impairment from sleep loss?
REACTION-TIME CHANGES
REDUCED ATTENTION
DIMINISHED MEMORY
CHANGES IN MOOD AND SOCIAL INTERACTION
IMPAIRED COMMUNICATION
No, Individuals cannot accurately determine their own impairment from sleep loss.
211
What physiological effects do smoking 3 cigarettes in rapid succession or 20 to 30 cigarettes within 24 hours before a flight have on a smoker's night vision and physiological altitude?
The resulting physiological effects at sea level are the same as flying at 5,000 feet but, more importantly, the individual loses about 20 percent of his or her night vision capability.
212
What is the difference between the night and day blind spot and how do we compensate for both?
Day blind spot:
Since humans have two eyes, they view all images with binocular vision. Each eye compensates for the day blind spot in the optic disk of the opposite eye. The day blind spot covers an area of 5.5 to 7.5 degrees and is located about 15 degrees from the fovea, originating where the optic nerve attaches to the retina. The size of the day blind spot is due to the optic nerve's oval shape combined with its offset position where it attaches to the retina.
***No cones or rods are present at the attachment point. The day blind spot causes difficulty when individuals do not move their head or eyes but continue to look straight forward while an object is brought into the visual field. ***
Figure 8-3, page 8-4, demonstrates the day blind spot.
Night blind spot:
The night blind spot (figure 8-7, page 8-6) should not be confused with the day blind spot. The night blind spot occurs when the fovea becomes inactive in low light conditions and involves an area from 5 to 10 degrees wide in the center of the visual field. ***An object viewed directly at night might not be seen due to the night blind spot; if the object is detected, it will fade away when stared at longer than 2 seconds.*** The size of the night blind spot increases as the distance between the eyes and object increases. Therefore, the night blind spot can hide larger objects as the distance between the observer and object increases. Figure 8-8 (page 8-6) illustrates this effect.
213
How can night blind spot and the negative effects of scotopic vision be overcome?
Peripheral vision
Stimulation of only rod cells (peripheral vision most intact) is primary for viewing during scotopic vision. Crewmembers must use peripheral vision to overcome the effects of scotopic vision. Peripheral vision allows crewmembers to see dimly lit objects and maintain visual reference to moving objects.
214
What is the CAUTION associated with the landing/search light?
Landing and searchlight have less than one foot ground clearance when extended. Use caution when taxiing over rough terrain when landing light and/or searchlight are extended.
215
What is the off-center viewing technique?
There are no limitations to viewing an object with central vision during daylight. If this same technique is used at night, however, the viewer might not see the object due to the night blind spot that exists under low light illumination. To compensate for this limitation, crewmembers must use the off-center vision technique. This technique requires crewmembers to view an object by looking 10 degrees above, below, or to either side rather than directly at the object. The eyes maintain visual contact with the object via peripheral vision.
216
What is the visual acuity of the human eye during day and night unaided viewing conditions?
```
Day = 20/20
Night = 20/200 or less
NVG = 100% Illumination 20/25
NVG = 0% illumination = 20/70
```
217
The average time required to gain the greatest sensitivity or adaptation to a dark environment is ________ minutes. When fully dark adapted the rod cells become up to _______ times more sensitive than at the start of the dark adaptation period.
30 to 45
10,000
218
Describe how high and low flight altitudes affect terrain interpretation.
High Altitude:
Changes in viewing angle and distance at which an aviator is viewing an object will change the apparent shape of that object. The ability to identify manmade or natural features progressively decreases as flight altitude increases. This condition is affected at all levels of ambient light. When flight altitude increases, contrast between features becomes less distinguishable and features tend to blend. As terrain definition becomes less distinct, detection from altitude becomes difficult.
Low Altitude:
Terrain becomes more clearly defined and contrast is greater when an aviator flies closer to the ground. This allows manmade and natural features to be more easily recognized and permits increased navigational capability. However, the viewable area of a crewmember at low altitudes is smaller than at higher altitudes. With NOE/contour altitudes, that area is even smaller, sometimes requiring an aviator to reduce airspeed to permit more accurate terrain interpretation. Objects can also be identified at low altitudes by silhouetting them against the skyline.
219
Effective scanning requires crewmembers to look from right to left or left to right. They should begin scanning at the __________ distance at which an object can be perceived (top) and move _________ toward the aircraft's position (bottom).
greatest
inward
220
These are examples of what type of scanning techniques? Why are we supposed to use these types of scanning techniques?
The retina's low light vision elements are unable to perceive images in motion, so crewmembers should use a stop-turn-stop-turn scanning pattern to compensate.
221
Define night myopia and what is Dark Focus?
NIGHT MYOPIA:
Blue wavelengths of light prevail in the visible portion of the spectrum at night. Therefore, slightly nearsighted or myopic individuals viewing blue-green light at night might experience blurred vision.
Dark Focus:
When light levels decrease, the eye's focusing mechanism might move toward a resting position, making the eye more myopic.
222
When operating in the ALL IR position for the exterior lights switch, what lights are disabled?
The anti collision lights, cargo hook light, normal position of the searchlight, and landing light are disabled in the ALL IR position.
223
Describe the Effective Spatial Disorientation (SD) countermeasures?
Understand the risk factors; anticipate and plan for the preconditions before flight.
Employ good aircrew coordination. Pilots in command must establish a cockpit working environment that encourages announcement if an aircrew member is losing spatial orientation. Pilots in command must constantly monitor the factors conducive to the loss of orientation and manage the cockpit workload to prevent task saturation. Don't keep two heads in the cockpit.
Assess the mission's geographical environment, forecasted weather and night illumination, and takeoff, en route, and landing conditions where DVE operations are likely to occur.
Do not attempt visual flight below established weather minimums or in areas of deteriorating weather conditions.
Maintain proficiency in instrument flight with emphasis on aircraft control through the use of flight instruments. If appropriate, initiate prompt inadvertent IMC procedures.
Trust your instruments and make them read right.
In the event of suspected or recognized SD, reference instruments with a good cross check and attempt to ignore conflicting sensory inputs. (Note that some sensations are extremely powerful and difficult to override.) In two-pilot aircraft, announce SD and transfer the controls.
224
IAW UH-60 ATM, If IMC is entered with the _______ ________ or ________ _______ on, SD may occur.
searchlight
landing light
225
What is the primary means by which pilots maintain orientation? What factors are especially conducive to SD?
Vision—both ambient vision with position and motion cues, as well as focal vision for identifying flight parameters—is the primary means by which pilots maintain orientation.
However, the absence of a visible horizon (or false horizon) in combination with DVE and limited motion parallax cues is especially conducive to SD.
226
Describe the terms EENT and BMNT:
Ambient solar light is usable for a period following sunset and before sunrise. After sunset, the amount of available solar light steadily decreases until the level of light is not usable to the unaided eye. Solar ambient light becomes unusable when the sun is 12 degrees below the horizon or about 48 minutes after sunset. This is end evening nautical twilight (EENT). Before sunrise, solar light becomes usable when the rising sun is 12 degrees below the horizon or about 48 minutes before sunrise, which is begin morning nautical twilight (BMNT).
227
Referencing the FAR/AIM, describe the colors and color combinations of airport, heliport and military airport beacons:
1. White and Green− Lighted land airport.
2. *Green alone− Lighted land airport.
3. White and Yellow− Lighted water airport.
4. *Yellow alone− Lighted water airport.
5. Green, Yellow, and White− Lighted heliport.
NOTE− *Green alone or yellow alone is used only in connection with a white−and−green or white−and−yellow beacon display, respectively.
Military airport beacons flash alternately white and green, but are differentiated from civil beacons by dualpeaked (two quick) white flashes between the green flashes.
228
What are your VFR weather minimums at night above and below 1200' but less than 10,000 MSL in Class G and E airspace?
Class E = Less than 10,000 feet MSL
3 statute miles 500 feet below
1,000 feet above
2,000 feet horizontal
G (Rotary Wing) – more than 1,200 ft above surface but less than 10,000 ft MSL
Night 3 Statute Miles 500 ft below
1,000 ft above
2,000 ft horizontal
G (Rotary Wing) – 1,200 ft or less above surface (regardless of MSL)
Night 1 Statute Miles Clear of clouds
229
Describe the factor that aids in determining distance using the retinal image: Known size of objects
A structure projects a specific angle on the retina based on its distance from the observer. If the angle is small, the observer judges the structure to be a great distance away, while a larger angle indicates the structure is close.
***To use this cue, the observer must know the object's actual size and have prior visual experience with it. If no experience exists, the observer determines the distance to an object primarily by motion parallax
230
Describe the factor that aids in determining distance using the retinal image: Increasing or decreasing size of objects
If the retinal image of an object increases in size, the object is moving closer to the observer. If the retinal image decreases, the object is moving further away. If the retinal image is constant, the object is at a fixed distance.
231
Describe the factor that aids in determining distance using the retinal image: Terrestrial Association
Comparison of one object such as an airfield with another object of known size such as a helicopter helps in determining the relative size and apparent distance of the object from the observer.
232
Describe the factor that aids in determining distance using the retinal image: Overlapping Contours or Interposition of Objects
When objects overlap, the overlapped object is further away. For example, an object partially concealed by another object is behind the object concealing it. Crewmembers must be especially conscious of this cue when making an approach for landing at night. Lights disappearing or flickering in the landing area should be treated as barriers and the flight path adjusted accordingly.
233
Describe the factor that aids in determining distance using the aerial perspective: Fading of Colors or Shades
An object viewed through haze, fog, or smoke appears less distinct and at a greater distance than it actually is. Conversely, if atmospheric transmission of light is unrestricted, the object appears more distinct and closer than it actually is.
234
Describe the factor that aids in determining distance using the aerial perspective: Loss of detail or texture
The further an observer is from an object, the less apparent discrete details become. For example, at a distance a cornfield appears to be a solid color, tree leaves and branches appear to be a solid mass, and objects appear to be at a great distance.
235
Describe the factor that aids in determining distance using the aerial perspective: Position of Light Source and Direction of Shadow
Every object casts a shadow in the presence of a light source. The direction in which the shadow is cast depends on the position of the light source. If an object's shadow is cast toward an observer, the object is closer to the observer than the light source.
236
Describe the monocular cue: Motion parallax.
Motion parallax is often considered the most important depth perception cue. Motion parallax refers to the apparent relative motion of stationary objects as viewed by an observer moving across the landscape. Near objects appear to move past or opposite the path of motion; far objects appear to move in the direction of motion or remain fixed. The rate of apparent movement depends on the distance the observer is from the object. Objects near an aircraft appear to move rapidly, while distant objects appear to be almost stationary.
237
What is an operational defect? Operational defects include:
Operational Defects
These defects relate to the reliability of the image intensifier and are an indication of instability. If identified, they are an immediate cause for rejecting the ANVIS.
They include Shading, Edge Glow, Flashing, Flickering, Intermittent Operation and Emission Points.
238
Describe how exposure to bright sunlight can have a cumulative and adverse effect on dark adaptation.
Exposure to bright sunlight also has a cumulative and adverse effect on dark adaptation. Reflective surfaces such as sand, snow, water, and manmade structures intensify this condition. Exposure to intense sunlight for 2 to 5 hours decreases visual sensitivity for up to 5 hours and also decreases the rate of dark adaptation and degree of night visual acuity. These cumulative effects can persist for several days.
239
Describe the protective measures that can be taken to preserve an aviator's night vision.
COCKPIT LIGHT ADJUSTMENT
Instrument, cockpit, and rear cargo area overhead lights should be adjusted to the lowest readable level that allows instruments, charts, and maps to be interpreted without prolonged staring or exposure.
EXTERIOR LIGHT ADJUSTMENT
If possible, exterior lights should be dimmed or turned off, mission permitting. Aviators should consult command policy for local procedures.
LIGHT FLASH COMPENSATION
The pilot should turn the aircraft away from a light source if a high-intensity flash is expected from a specific direction.
240
Explain binocular cues and their value to crewmembers?
Binocular cues depend on the slightly different view each eye has of an object. Thus, binocular perception is of value only when the object is close enough to make a perceptible difference in the viewing angle of both eyes. However, since most distances outside the cockpit are so great, binocular cues are of little to no value to crew members.
241
What are the monocular cues that can assist crewmembers with distance estimation and depth perception?
Several monocular cues assist crewmembers with distance estimation and depth perception. These cues are geometric perspective, retinal image size, aerial perspective, and motion parallax.
(GRAM)
242
Describe the type of geometric perspective: Linear perspective
Parallel lines such as railroad tracks tend to converge as distance from the observer increases.
243
Describe the type of geometric perspective: Apparent foreshortening
The shape of an object or terrain feature appears elliptical (oval and narrow) when viewed from a distance at both higher and lower altitudes. As the distance to the object or terrain feature decreases, the apparent perspective changes to its true shape or form.
244
Why is terrain interpretation more difficult when the moon is low on the horizon?
Terrain interpretation is more difficult when the moon is low on the horizon. This is due to the lower light level and the shadows caused by the low angle. If low-level flight is conducted toward the moon, with the moon at a low angle, glare may bother the aircrew causing distorted vision and a loss of dark adaptation. During aided flight, glare may also degrade NVD capability. However when the moon is low on the horizon, terrain features or objects on the skyline are more recognizable.
245
What factors affect the quality of depth perception and distance estimation while using NVGs?
factors including available light, type and quality of NVG, degree of contrast in the FOV, and user experience. The aircrew must often rely on monocular cues.
246
How can crewmembers compensate for the loss of peripheral vision while wearing NVGs?
An NVG's FOV significantly reduces peripheral vision as compared with unaided flight. Crewmembers must use a continual scanning pattern to compensate for the loss. Moving the eyes will not change the viewing perspective; the head must be turned. Rapid head movement, however, can induce spatial disorientation. To view an area while using NVG, a crewmember's head and eyes must rotate slowly and continuously. The length of time and frequency of the scanning pattern is based on the type of terrain and obstacles, airspeed, and what is actually seen through the NVG. When scanning to the right, crewmembers should move their eyes slowly from the left limit of vision inside the device to the right limit while moving their head to the right. This enables a crewmember to cover a 70- to 80-degree FOV with only 30 to 40 degrees of head movement, minimizing head rotation. The crewmember should scan back to the left in reverse order avoiding rapid head movements.
247
How is spatial disorientation affected by wearing NVGs?
Maneuvers requiring large bank angles or rapid attitude changes tend to induce spatial disorientation. An aviator should avoid making drastic changes in attitude/bank angles and use proper scanning and viewing techniques.
248
Explain the term cosmetic blemish. If you believe a cosmetic blemish is cause for rejection how should you record the problem on the maintenance form?
These are usually the result of manufacturing imperfections that do not affect image intensifier reliability and are not normally a cause for rejecting an ANVIS. However, some types of blemishes can get worse over time and interfere with the ability to perform the mission. If you believe a blemish is cause for rejection, record the specific nature of the problem on the maintenance forms and identify the position of the blemish by using the clock method and approximate distance from the center (e.g., 5 o'clock toward the outside, 2:30 near the center, or 1:00 midway).
249
What are the HUD systems designed to do? Which enables aviators to do what?
HUD systems are designed to display flight, navigation, and aircraft system information onto the NVG display. It enables an aviator to concentrate his or her vision outside the cockpit while maintaining the ability to view critical information.
250
WARNING: Failure to remove the ANVIS neck cord prior to operation of the HUD may _____________ from the aircraft in an __________.
prevent egress
emergency and may result in serious injury or death
251
CAUTION: The AN/AVS-7 should not be used if the __________ connector is not in working order.
CAUTION: Keep the __________ on the ANVIS whenever it is not in use. Operate the ANVIS only under __________.
quick-release
protective caps
darkened conditions
252
WARNING: ___________ of the symbology display may ____________ outside the cockpit.
Excessive brightness
impair vision
253
What means of disconnecting are available in the event of emergency egress?
1 Release the ANVIS goggles from the helmet.
2 Disconnect the OU from the ANVIS goggles via the thumbscrew.
3 Grasp PSCU and pull down.
254
The Display Unit (LCD) will only operate on aircraft having the ____________.
Mini Signal Data Converter (SDC)
255
List the ANVIS/HUD fail messages, system messages and sensor warning messages. Where are they displayed?
Fail Messages: PSG, PS, PDU, CPDU, NAV (NAV indicates a comm fail between HUD and Navigation information. (PGM will be displayed when other operator is Programming their symbology set but this is NOT a Fail Message)
System Messages: MST (Master Caution), HOOK (Cargo Hook Open)
Sensor Warning Messages: ENG1 / ENG2 (Engine Out), Fire (Fire Warning), RPM (Low Rotor RPM) ***Messages are displayed in the bottom center of the HUD
256
How many HUD display modes can be programmed?
Up to eight display modes, four normal and four declutter, can by programmed for each user and can be selected for display using the display mode selection switch on the pilot's collective control.
257
According to the TM 11-5855-313-10, what meteorological and lighting conditions can reduce the effectiveness of the ANVIS?
The equipment requires some ambient light (moonlight, starlight, etc.) to operate. Ambient light is reduced by such factors as passing cloud cover and objects that produce shadows.
Low-contrast environments (such as snow-covered territory sandy deserts, large bodies of water, or grassy hills) degrade visibility, thereby making it difficult to distinguish features of the terrain. In these environments, ANVIS visual acuity can deteriorate to 20/200 or worse.
ANVIS may experience a measurable loss of performance at temperatures above 100°F (38°C).
258
If there is more than one flicker, what should you check before rejecting the goggles for flashing, flickering or intermittent operation?
check for loose wires, loose battery cap/door, or weak batteries.
259
To be considered night vision goggles (NVG) current, a crewmember must take part every _______ in at least a ______ flight in the aircraft at night while wearing NVG. NVG currency may be accomplished within any H-60 series in which qualified and current. A RCM must be at a crew station with access to the__________.
60 days
one-hour
flight controls
(TC 3-04.11)
260
What is the minimum symbology that will be displayed in the declutter mode of operation?
airspeed, altitude (MSL), attitude (pitch and roll), and engine torque(s)
261
How do you get to the programming and control page of the NVG HUD on the FMS?
MSN - ffk
NVG HUD CONTROL PAGE- SK
PGM MODE- SK
262
Discuss the following functions on the HUD page of the FMS.
a. DSPL POS COPILOT OFF/ON –
b. PGM MODE OFF/PLT/CPLT –
NOTE: Only the P or P* that is selected during program mode can make changes at that time.
c. MFD SOURCE PLT/CPLT –
d. DSPL POS PILOT OFF/ON –
e. UP –
f. DOWN –
g. DECLUTTER LEVEL –
h. RTN –
A. Allows the copilot to adjust the position of the HUD display symbology. When set to ON, the HUD collective grip switch will adjust the position of the image on the copilot's HUD display. The directions of movement are left, right, up, and down. Default is OFF.
B. Sets the programming mode to OFF/PLT/CPLT. Default is OFF. When the pilot or copilot programmingmodeisON,theHUD collective grip switch programs the PLT and CPT pages, and declutter modes.
C. Selects the data source for HUD symbology. The default is PLT, meaning the BC FMS will send the display information to the HUD from one of the pilot side MFDs. When one MFD fails, or is switched OFF, the FMS automatically selects the other MFD on that side of the aircraft. If both MFDs on the source side fail, or are switched OFF, the pilot must use the FMS data source soft key to switch the source from one side of the aircraft to the other. This prevents the operator's display from switching data sources without notification, as the HUD provides no display of data source.
D. Allows the pilot to adjust the position of the HUD display symbology. When set to ON, the HUD collective grip switch will adjust the position of the image on the pilot's HUD display. The directions of movement are left, right, up, and down. Default is OFF.
E. Increments the HUD display page number. The indication of page number is not displayed on this screen, it is displayed on the HUD display symbology only. This works on a per-side basis when accessed on the copilot's FMS, the soft key operates the copilot's HUD display, and when accessed on the pilot's FMS the soft key operates the pilots HUD display.
F. Decrements the HUD display page number. Functions the same way as the UP soft key.
G. Increments the declutter level of the selected HUD screen. Each depression of this soft key toggles the HUD declutter level between two positions: normal, and declutter. The declutter level is indicated on the HUD display symbology. This soft key also works on a per-side basis.
H. Returns to the MISSION SYSTEMS page.
263
Discuss the following functions of the collective HUD controls.
PG UP: Increments the HUD display page number.
BRT: Increases HUD brightness.
DCLT: Increments the declutter level of the selected HUD screen.
PG DN: Decrements the HUD display page number.
DIM: Decreases HUD brightness.
264
Describe the type of geometric perspective: Vertical position in the field
Objects or terrain features at greater distances from the observer appear higher on the horizon than those closer to the observer.
Before flight, crewmembers should already be familiar with the actual sizes, heights, and altitudes of known objects or terrain features within and around the planned flight route. If the situation and time permit, crewmembers can reference published information to verify actual sizes and heights of objects and terrain features within their flight path. In addition, crewmembers should cross-reference the aircraft altitude indicator to confirm actual aircraft altitude is adequate to safely negotiate the object or terrain feature without prematurely changing aircraft heading, altitude, attitude, or a combination thereof.
265
Describe autokinesis and how to compensate for it.
Autokinesis occurs primarily at night when ambient visual cues are minimal and a small, dim light is seen against a dark background. After about 6 to 12 seconds of visually fixating on the light, an individual may perceive movement at up to 20 degrees in any particular direction or in several directions in succession, although there is no actual object displacement. This illusion can cause a pilot to mistake the fixated object for an object in motion (such as, another aircraft). In addition, a pilot flying at night might perceive a relatively stable lead aircraft to be moving erratically when, in fact, it is not. The unnecessary and undesirable control inputs the pilot makes to compensate for the illusory movement result in increased workload and wasted motion at best and an operational hazard at worst.
*** - Occurs at night when ambient cues are minimal when a small dim light is seen against a dark background. After 6-12 seconds of fixating on the light it will perceive to move 20 degrees in any particular direction, although there is no actual movement.
- Can cause erratic and unnecessary control inputs to try and compensate for the movement, best case is unnecessary workload, worst case causes operation hazard.
- experience, be familiar with the illusion and confirm what you are seeing with your crew.
266
Explain when photopic vision is experienced and its characteristics.
Experienced during daylight or under high levels of artificial illumination. Cones concentrated in the fovea centralis are primarily responsible for vision in bright light. Due to the high-level light condition, rod cells are bleached out and become less effective. Sharp image interpretation and color vision are characteristics of photopic vision. The fovea centralis is automatically directed toward an object by a visual fixation reflex. Therefore, under photopic conditions, the eye uses central vision for interpretation, especially in determining details.
*** - Experienced during daylight or under high levels of artificial illumination
- Cones in the fovea centralis are primarily responsible for vision in bright light. Due to light levels rods are bleached out and less effective.
- Characterized by sharp image interpretation and color vision.
267
Explain when mesopic vision is experienced and its characteristics.
Experienced at dawn, dusk, and under full moonlight. Vision is achieved by a combination of rods and cones. Visual acuity steadily decreases with declining light. Color vision is reduced or degraded as light levels decrease and the cones become less effective. Mesopic vision is the most dangerous vision type for crewmembers. How degraded the ambient light condition is determines what type of scanning or viewing technique crewmembers should use to detect objects and maintain safe and incident-free flight. For example, the gradual loss of cone sensitivity might necessitate off-center viewing to detect objects in and around the flight path. Incidents might occur if crewmembers fail to recognize the need to change scanning techniques from central or focal viewing to off-center viewing.
*** - Dawn, Dusk under full moon light, vision is achieved by rods and cones.
- Steadily reduced visual acuity as light levels decline. Color vision is reduced or degraded as light decreases and cones become less effective.
268
Explain when scotopic vision is experienced and its characteristics.
Experienced in low light environments such as partial moonlight and starlight conditions. Cones become ineffective in these conditions, causing poor resolution in detail. Visual acuity decreases to 20/200 or less, and color perception is lost. A central or night blind spot occurs when cone cell sensitivity is lost. Scotopic vision degrades primary color perception to shades of black, gray, and white unless the light source is of adequate intensity to stimulate the cones. Peripheral vision is used primarily while viewing with scotopic vision.
*** - low light enviroments such as partial moon and starlight conditions. Cones become ineffective causing poor resolution in detail.
- Visual Acuity decreases to 20/200 or less and color perception is lost. Night blind spot occurs due to no cones in the fovea. Peripheral vision is the primary viewing sector during scotopic conditions.
269
Of the three types of vision, which is the most dangerous and why?
Mesopic vision is the most dangerous vision type for crewmembers.
Scanning/ viewing techniques are determined by light levels, failure to recognize a need to change scanning techniques can cause crew to miss an object or terrain causing accidents.
270
Describe the false horizon illusion and how to compensate for it.
False horizon illusions occur when a pilot confuses a wide sloping plane of reference such as sloping cloud tops, mountain ridges, or so-called ‘cultural' lighting at night (such as a coastline or highway) with the true horizontal (figure 9-11). A sloping cloud deck, for example, can be difficult to perceive as anything but horizontal if it extends any great distance in the pilot's peripheral vision. The pilot might perceive the cloudbank to be horizontal even if it is not horizontal to the ground, and position the aircraft into a banked attitude thinking it is level. This condition is often insidious and may go undetected until the pilot recognizes it via cueing to instruments and makes necessary corrections. This illusion may also occur if the pilot looks outside after having given prolonged attention to a task inside the cockpit. Confusion can result in the pilot incorrectly placing the aircraft “level” according to the sloping cloudbank.
*** -when pilot confuses cloud formations with the horizon or ground. Usually occurs when cloud banks are sloping and continue for a some distance. Pilot gets focused inside and when he transfers back out mistakes the clouds for the ground.
- Compensate - Difficult to perceive and goes undetected until the pilot recognizes it, transitions to instruments, and makes necessary corrections.
271
Describe the fascination (fixation) and how to compensate for it.
While not a visual illusion, per se, this can be just as deadly. Fascination or fixation in flying can be separated into two categories: task saturation and target fixation. Task saturation occurs when crewmembers become so engrossed with a problem or task within the cockpit that they fail to properly scan outside the aircraft. Target fixation, commonly referred to as target hypnosis, occurs when crewmembers ignore orientation cues and focus their attention on an object or goal. For example, an attack pilot on a gunnery range might become so intent on hitting a target that he or she forgets to fly the aircraft, causing it to strike the ground, target, or shrapnel.
*** Fascination (inside)- Task Saturation- so engrossed with problem in cockpit they fail to properly scan outside.
Fixation (outside)- Target Fixation( ignore orientation cues and focus on an objective or target)
Compensate- Recognition and always maintaining proper scan inside the aircraft and out.
272
Describe size constancy in regards to size distance illusion.
A common example of a size constancy illusion is that of landing at an unfamiliar runway (figure 9-13). A runway that is narrower than expected may cause the pilot to think he or she is higher and further away resulting in the flying of the approach too low and land short. Likewise a wider runway than expected may cause the pilot erroneously to think he or she is closer resulting in flying the approach too high and land long.
273
Describe confusion with ground lights and how to compensate for it.
A related illusion, confusion with ground lights, occurs when a pilot mistakes ground lights for stars. The illusion prompts the pilot to place the aircraft in an unusual attitude to keep the misperceived ground lights above the aircraft. Isolated ground lights can appear as celestial lights, which could lead to the illusion the aircraft is in a nose-high or one-wing-low attitude (figure 9-12, part A; page 9-12). When no celestial lights are visible because of overcast conditions, unlighted terrain can blend with the dark overcast to create the illusion the unlighted terrain is part of the sky (figure 9-12, part B; page 9-12). This illusion can be avoided by referencing the flight instruments and establishing true horizon and attitude.
*** -Pilot mistakes ground lights for celestial lights. Illusion prompts pilot to place the aircraft in an unusual attitude to keep the misperceived ground lights above the aircraft.
- Compensate- avoided by referencing the flight instruments and establishing true horizon and attitude.
274
Describe the height and depth perception and how to compensate for it.
Height-depth perception illusions are due to absent or insufficient visual cues and cause crewmembers to misjudge depth perception. Flying over areas devoid of visual references such as desert terrain, snow, or water may deprive crewmembers of their perception of height. Misjudging the aircraft's true altitude, the pilot might fly the aircraft dangerously low to the ground or other obstacles above the ground. Flight in an area where visibility is restricted by misty rain, fog, smoke, whiteout, brownout, or haze can produce the same illusion.
*** - due to lack of sufficient visual cues causes crew members to lose their depth perception. Brownouts, whiteouts, smoke, and fog can also cause lack of height depth.
-compensate- Avoid by referencing your instruments specifically Altimeters
275
Describe the size and distance illusion and how to compensate for it.
Size and shape constancy are important when a familiar object's known size and shape is used to judge its distance from the observer. Size-distance misperceptions give rise to a number of related illusions whereby a crewmember misinterprets an object of unfamiliar size and shape by comparing it with what they are accustomed or familiar to seeing based on experience.
*** - false perceptions of distance from an object or the ground, created when a crewmember misinterprets unfamiliar objects size with something they are familiar with.(e.g. making approach in Washington state avg tree 100ft, as opposed to ft rucker avg tree 30 feet)
- Compensate- be familiar with your flight route and where your are going and always cross check instruments
276
In regards to size distance illusion, describe shape constancy while viewing sloping runways.
A related illusion is that of shape constancy which is commonly encountered with sloping runways (figure 9-14). A typical glideslope to landing of 3 to 4 degrees is such that only a one degree change in runway slope can affect the landing sight picture. With the shape constancy illusion, the foreshortened picture of an up sloping runway may give the pilot the illusion of being too high. A natural tendency is for the pilot to want to ‘reshape' the sight picture resulting in flying the approach too low. The reverse is true for a down sloping runway. In both cases, being forewarned of the potential hazard with good pre-mission planning and cross-checking the visual VASI or PAPI lights would be important.
277
Describe the Induced motion illusion and how to compensate for it.
Induced motion is falsely perceived motion of oneself when no physical motion is actually occurring. The most common example is vection—visually induced perception of self-motion. Consider the example of an individual in a car stopped at a traffic light and another car slowly pulls alongside. The individual stopped at the light may perceive the other car's forward motion as his or her own rearward motion, resulting in the individual suddenly applying additional pressure to the brakes. Another common example is that of two adjacent trains whereby a passenger on one misperceives self-motion due to the movement of the other train. This illusion can be encountered during flight in situations such as formation flight, hover taxi, or hovering over moving water, blowing snow or dust, or movement of tall grass.
***-Falsely perceived self motion in relation to another objects motion.
-Compensate- with solid cross check of instruments.
278
What is the purpose of the minus blue coating on the NVG's?
A special coating in the objective lens of the ANVIS that filters out light from the instrument panel in aircraft with the correct lighting. This makes the ANVIS “blind” to the instrument lighting so the glare does not interfere with viewing outside the aircraft.
***A special coating that reduces interference from the instrument panel and NVG-compatible supplemental cockpit lights. It makes the ANVIS “blind” to the lighting so the glare does not interfere with viewing outside the aircraft.
279
How can you determine if your flashlight or other supplemental lighting (lip lights, finger lights etc.) are compatible with NVGs?
Supplemental Lighting Degradation Check
The check must be conducted at night, in an aircraft located in an area of low ambient light, such as an LZ, with interior lighting set for NVG operations, and with ANVIS prepared for use.
1. Position a reflective material (map sheet, note card, vinyl checklist) approximately 12 to 18 inches from the eyes.
2. Shine the supplemental light onto the material.
3. With the unaided eye, look at the resultant reflection cast on the windscreen. Observe this same reflection through the ANVIS. An acceptable supplemental light source will not interfere with the operator's ability to see outside the aircraft using NVGs. The reflection of the light source in the windscreen may even disappear. If the reflection, glare, or stray light interferes with the ANVIS aided vision of any crewmember the light source is unacceptable.
280
Define scintillation.
A faint, random, sparkling effect throughout the image area. Scintillation is a normal characteristic of the image intensifier assembly and should not be confused with emission points. Scintillation is more pronounced under low light conditions. Sometimes called ”video noise.”
281
Describe the structural illusion and how to compensate for it.
Structural illusions are caused by the effects of rain, snow, sleet, heat waves, or other visual obscurants. A straight line can appear curved when viewed through heat waves in the desert. A single wingtip light might appear as a double light or in a different location when viewed through rain. Curvature of the aircraft windscreen also can cause structural illusions due to the refraction of light rays as they pass through the windscreen. Pilots must remain vigilant to the potential for false perceptions when operating in environments containing these obscurants.
*** - Caused by effects of heat waves, rain, snow, sleet or other visual obscuration. Straight line seems curved when seen through heat rays in desert.
Curvature of the A/C windscreen also causes it due to refraction of light rays as they pass through the windscreen.
- Compensate- Experience and Knowlege
282
Describe aerial perspective in relation to size distance illusion.
Another size-distance illusion is that of aerial perspective. These illusions can occur if visual cues are of a different size or perspicuity (clarity and discrimination) than expected. A classic example would be for a pilot to mistake immature, short or stunted trees for large, tall ones causing him or her to misjudge altitude above the ground. A different but somewhat related phenomenon may occur in rain, smoke or haze, whereby a pilot may erroneously think that the lights of another aircraft or runway approach lighting to be much farther away than actual distance due to lack of brightness and clarity. Objects viewed within a hazy environment, for example, are often thought to be further away.
283
Describe the crater illusion and how to compensate for it.
Crater illusions occur when crewmembers land at night under night vision device conditions and the infrared searchlight is directed too far under the aircraft's nose. This combination creates the illusion of landing with up sloping terrain in all directions or landing in a crater. This illusionary depression lulls the pilot into continually lowering the collective and could result in the aircraft prematurely impacting the ground. If observing another aircraft during hover taxi, the pilot might perceive the crater is moving with the aircraft being observed.
*** - When crew members land at night under NVD conditions and the IR searchlight is too far under the nose. This will cause an illusion of landing upslope .
- Compensate- Proper scanning and proper use of the landing and search lights.
284
After practicing VMC approaches to Stinson, you transition over to Cairns AAF, and perform a VMC approach. Your IP tells you that your approach at Cairns was much too high and steep, even though it seemed identical to the approaches you made at Stinson. Which visual illusion are you experiencing, and why is this occurring?
Size Distance illusion. The size/ length of the runway is different from cairns to Stinson.
285
In a UH-60M, battery life (when batteries are the only source of dc power) is approximately ___ minutes, when all equipment is used. This time can be increased by turning off non-essential equipment, the _____ ____, and _________ _______ ________.
NOTE: When only battery power is available, ____ charged batteries will provide ____ minutes of power at night assuming all dc electrical equipment is left on and used, including the _______ _________. The battery life will be increased by turning off unnecessary equipment.
15 minutes
pilot's #3 MFD
limiting radio transmissions
80%
12
Search light
286
What is an emission point?
A steady or fluctuating pinpoint of bright light in the image area that does not go away when all light is blocked from the objective lens of that monocular.
The position of an emission point within the image area of the monocular does not move. An emission point should not be confused with a point light source in the distance.
287
What is edge glow, what causes it and how do you check for it?
Edge glow is a bright area (sometimes sparkling) in the outer portion of the viewing area.
caused by an emission point (or series of emission points) just outside the field-of-view or by a defective phosphor screen that permits light feedback to the photocathode.
To check for edge glow, block out all light by cupping a hand over the lens. If the image tube is displaying edge glow the bright area will still show up.
288
Explain shading. Which cosmetic blemish should it not be confused with? Describe the two other items as explained in the note (same page) it should not be confused with?
If shading is present, you will not see a fully circular image. Shading is indicative of a dying photocathode caused by a defective vacuum seal of the image intensifier. Shading always begins on the edge and migrates inward eventually across the entire image area.
Do not confuse shading with variations in output brightness. Make sure the shading is not the result of improper adjustment and lens caps are not installed.
289
When must the ARRIVAL DATA section of the PPC be completed?
+5 degrees Celsius/ +1000' PA/ +500 lbs
290
What is the rate at which the moon angle changes, and how can this be useful for planning purposes?
15 degrees per hour (1 degree every 4 minutes). Detailed planning is required to determine ambient light levels during a particular night flight.
291
What are the differences between Rods and Cone cells? Where are they located in the Retina?
Rods- Used for night vision (low intensity light vision) 10,000 rods per nerve located in periphery primarily. Responsible for Night (Scotopic) Vision. The concentration of rod cells begins to increase toward the retina's periphery.
Cones- used for day or high intensity light vision (viewing periods or conditions) 1 cone per nerve located in fovea and para fovea and responsible for color vision and shading (black, grey, white in low light levels). The center of the retina, the fovea, contains a very high concentration of cone cells but no rod cells.
292
How do NVGs affect an aviator's ability to detect deteriorating weather, and what cues can be used to recognize them?
When using NVG, aviators may fail to detect entry into or presence of IMC. NVG enable crewmembers to see through obscurations, such as fog, rain, haze, dust, and smoke, depending on density. As density increases, aircrews can detect a gradual reduction in visual acuity as less light is available.
The apparent increase in size and density of halos during bad weather is an illusion.
While contrast decreases, video noise may increase. There may be a loss of celestial lights, while the moon and stars may fade or disappear due to overcast conditions.
Cues to look for light dimming, increase in halos, scintillation increase, loss of celestial lights.
293
Explain how the changes in illumination percentages effect the visual acuity of the ANVIS and what is more pronounced with the reductions of illumination percentages.
Visual acuity maximizes at 100% illumination (full moon conditions), degrading steadily until available illumination reaches approximately 50%, or ½ moon.
As illumination drops below 50%, visual acuity degrades more rapidly, causing the halo effect around light sources to be more pronounced.
As illumination levels drop below 25-30% scintillation becomes more apparent. Visual acuity is at its lowest at 0% illumination (starlight conditions), with a fully overcast sky, and no cultural (man-made)sources of illumination.
visual acuity under standard 100% illumination and a high-contrast environment) approaches 20/25 as described above. 0% illumination, with overcast skies and no cultural lighting) ANVIS visual acuity is approximately 20/70.
294
How can the use of lasers affect an aviator's night vision capabilities?
The eye is more vulnerable to laser damage at night as the iris of the eye opens more to accommodate lower levels of illumination. Laser damage to the eyes includes flash blindness, minor and major retinal burns, and impaired night vision.
295
_____________ might be experienced when the eyes attempt to simultaneously perceive two dissimilar objects independently. This phenomenon can occur when pilots view objects through the headsup display. Conflict in total perception arises when one eye views one image and the other eye views another image. Quite often, the dominant eye overrides the nondominant eye, possibly causing information delivered to the nondominant eye to be missed.
Retinal rivalry
296
What is a zero time battery and where is it placed in your battery pack for NVG's?
Alternate batteries. These are zero-time batteries used as a backup to the primary batteries. They are inserted in the battery compartment of the power pack that is on the wearer's left side.
297
According to current AWR 1726, what are the WARNINGs and NOTE regarding the position lights?
Warning- OXLEY When flying in close proximity formation flight, the position
lights are extremely bright and create a “halo” effect around the
aircraft. This halo effect makes it extremely difficult to see the
preceding aircraft in formation flight.
Warning- OXLEY The IR position light is mounted on the right side of the tail
position light. In this position, aircraft flying staggered left formation
flight cannot see the IR position light.
NOTE
OXLEY The bright and dim switch does not change the intensity of
the lights.
298
The five basic subsystems of AFCS are?
Stability Augmentation System (SAS) – provides short-term rate dampening in pitch, roll, and yaw axis.
Trim – provides control positioning and force gradient functions.
FPS – basic autopilot functions when coupled with trim.
Coupled Flight Director – provides a means for the pilot to select defined autopilot functions, automatic flight control positioning, and provides steering cues for display on the MFD when coupled.
Stabilator – improves flying qualities with the use of electromechanical actuators in response to collective, airspeed, pitch rate, and lateral acceleration inputs.
299
Some crewmembers may experience a pink, brown, or purple afterimage when they remove NVGs. This normal physiological phenomenon is called?
Color discrimination is absent when a crewmember views scenes through NVG. The picture viewed is monochromatic (single color) and has a green hue due to the type of phosphor used on the screen. The green hue may cause crewmembers to experience a pink, brown, or purple afterimage when they remove NVG. This is called monochromatic adaptation and is a normal physiological phenomenon. The length of time the afterimage remains varies with each individual.
300
The OSAP procedure is used for what purpose?
A point where the optical axes of the ANVIS is aligned with your visual line-of-sight and where the ANVIS' eyepieces are at the maximum distance from your eyes that still allow you to see the intensified image full field-of-view.
*** To precisely align each monocular to the individual eye to obtain the optimal sight picture.
301
If the dual contacts on your binocular assembly are dirty, what do you use to clean them?
Pencil eraser
302
What is ambient light?
Ambient light is any atmospheric light, whether natural or artificial, providing useful illumination for the aircrew. Sources of ambient light include the moon, background illumination, artificial light, and solar light.
303
What is the primary source of natural light at night, and when do stars provide the most background illumination?
Moonlight is the greatest source of natural illumination at night.
when moonlight is insufficient. Much of the illumination provided by the starlight falls into the near infrared range, and is not visible to the unaided eye.
304
Artificial light is most pronounced during _____________________. Tactical employment of ____________________________ may be used with either unaided vision or NVG operations.
overcast conditions
flares or illumination rounds
305
The function of Automatic Brightness Control (ABC) is?
automatically adjusts MCP voltage to maintain image brightness at preset levels by controlling the number of electrons that exit the MCP.
***Automatically reduces the voltage to the Micro-channel Plate to keep the image intensifiers brightness within a set limit. It creates a stable
image for the Aviator and prevents the output from becoming bright enough to impact the Aviators dark adaptation.
306
This function reduces the voltage to the photocathode when the ANVIS is exposed to bright light sources. This function also protects the image intensifier from damage and enhances its life; however, it also has the effect of lowering resolution.
bright source protection (BSP)
307
What factors increase the stress of aircrews during terrain flight, and how can these be minimized?
Knowledge that the darkness makes it difficult to see obstructions along the flight path causes stress.
Added stress increases fatigue which
impairs judgment, slows reaction time, and degrades flight proficiency.
Increased experience and proper personal preparation enables
aircrews to cope with the stress of night terrain flight.
Proper preparation includes eating a good balanced diet, staying in good physical
condition and getting enough sleep.
308
This is a condition that causes the lenses to harden, is part of the normal aging process. Beginning in the early teens, the human eye gradually loses the ability to accommodate for and focus on nearby objects. When people are about 40 years old, their eyes are unable to focus at normal reading distances without reading glasses.
Presbyopia
309
When testing the fire detection system the switch is put into the No. 1 position and lights ENGINE 1 FIRE and ENGINE 2 FIRE T-handles and APU T-handle. When placed in the No. 2 position, why doesn't the APU T-handle illuminate?
The No. 1 position lights ENGINE 1 FIRE and ENGINE 2 FIRE T-handles and APU T-handle and checks all firewall mounted detectors. The No. 2 position lights ENGINE 1 FIRE and ENGINE 2 FIRE T-handle only, and checks all deck mounted detectors.
310
What categories and types of Airspace do you find yourself in here at 300 ft AGL? How about 3000 ft AGL?
300 AGL class G airspace within the Alert Area A-211 High Volume Rotary and Fixed Wing Traffic.
3000 AGL Class E airspace
within the Alert Area A-211 High Volume Rotary and Fixed Wing Traffic.
311
When is it authorized to deviate from the minimum aircraft light requirements?
a. Army aircraft shall be illuminated to at least the minimum standards required by the country in which the flight operation occurs.
b. Anti-collision lights will be on when aircraft engines are operating except when conditions may cause vertigo or other hazards to safety.
c. Position lights will be on bright between official sunset and sunrise.
d. Commanders may authorize exemptions to lighting requirements in threat environments or for night vision device (NVD) flights when operating per AR 95 – 2. The exemption must be clearly defined and authorized by the unit commander in standard operating procedures or mission orders.
312
It is very important that crewmembers periodically ______________ their NVGs to make sure they don't miss anything such as towers lit with LED lights. Users should be aware of the increasing use of LEDs in aircraft lighting, airfield markings, and civil towers, and the need to detect LED light sources with___________.
look under
unaided eye
313
What is the recommended initial counter weight for NVGs and what is the maximum counter weight that can be used?
initial weight is 12 ounces; however, maximum allowable is 22 ounces.
314
When operating at an airport with taxiway edge lights while conducting NVG operations, what are your considerations and why?
At many airports, taxiways are also lighted. A taxiway-edge lighting system consists of blue lights outlining usable limits of taxi paths.
Hard time seeing it under NVGs
315
When hovering unaided with the help of position lights, aviator tend to stare at a ______________________ point on the ground. Reference points should be selected to the _______ and ________ of the helicopter to assist in scanning and detecting aircraft drift or movement.
single reference
front
side
316
Each crewmember will ____________ between assignments and must present their individual flight records folder (IFRF) and individual aircrew training folder (IATF) to the new unit to which assigned and/or attached for Aircrew Training Program (ATP) purposes within ____ calendar days after reporting for duty or placement on flying status orders per AR 600-106.
hand carry
14
317
You are an Readiness Level 1 (RL) Aviation Crewmember (ACM) in your unit and you fail your No-Notice test that was administered by your Standards section. Do you still have to make your flying hour requirements, since you are now designated RL3?
ACMs removed from RL1 for a training deficiency and reclassified RL2 or RL3 must still meet all ATP requirements for RL1 and comply with AR 95-1 and/or AR 95-23. To be redesignated RL1, those ACMs must demonstrate proficiency in only those tasks and in the mode of flight graded unsatisfactory to an SP/IP/IE/ME/SI/FI/SO/IO as appropriate. When an ACM's RL is downgraded due to a training deficiency, they have 90 days to complete the required training. Removal from RL1 will be documented on the ACMs DA Form 7122 and MUST be signed by the commander.
318
Who must become proficient aviators and technically and tactically proficient aviation leaders to ensure they are ready to command at the company/troop level?
platoon leaders
319
These individuals have the ultimate responsibility of ensuring that they remain technically and tactically proficient at all assigned tasks, and they must remain current in such tasks.
Individual rated aviators
320
You are flying single ship NVGs, how many ACMs are required? When is there additional ACM requirements?
UH-60 and CH-47 single-ship operations involving the use of NVG require at least three ACMs (two rated aviators and one NRCM) that are NVG current and qualified in the aircraft.
aircraft during aided multi-aircraft operations:
UH-60 and UH-72. This aircraft requires one additional NRCM that is NVG current and qualified in the aircraft (for a minimum crew of three). If both sides of the aircraft cannot be observed, a fourth NRCM that is NVG current and qualified in the aircraft must be added for UH-60 aircraft.
321
The ATP Commander will establish a PC training and certifications program. Individuals will be selected based on experience and having demonstrated what?
PCs and ACs are required to demonstrate maturity in all circumstances with sound judgement, to be leaders in the cockpit/control station, and to be capable of making sound technical and tactical decisions while executing the unit's METL/collective task(s).
322
What does CBRNE stand for and what the training/evaluation equipment requirements for it?
CHEMICAL, BIOLOGICAL, RADIOLOGICAL, NUCLEAR, AND EXPLOSIVE
Aviation units that have CBRNE equipment on their MTOE/TDA will include CBRNE training and evaluation requirements, including mission and additional tasks, in the unit standardization SOP. All flight activity category (FAC) 1 positions and those FAC 2 positions designated by the commander will conduct the CBRNE training as established in the MTL and the unit SOP. The waiver authority for these requirements is the first general officer in the chain of command.
CBRNE tasks performed during RL progression training and annual CBRNE evaluations will be conducted while wearing the aircrew protective mask at a minimum except when temperature is a factor or when the protective over-garment is not available.
323
What are your Aircrew Training Program (ATP) requirements as an RL 1 NVG designated non-skill qualification identifier (SQI) individual?
9 hours
ACMs designated NVG RL 1 any time within their designated three-month NVG evaluation period must complete all requirements of the annual NVG evaluation. RC M-Day ACMs designated RL 1 or RL 2 during their designated 3-month NVG evaluation period must complete all requirements of the annual NVG evaluation appropriate to their RL designation
324
Rated aviators may apply up to ___ hours of time in a compatible flight simulator toward their semiannual aircraft flying-hour minimums.
12
