Dr. Segars - Pharmacology of Seizures and Epilepsy Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

Transient alteration of behavior due to disordered, synchronous and rhythmic firing of populations of brain neurons is known as ________ .

A

Seizure

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2
Q

Acquired or inherited malfunction of neuronal ion channels or neurotransmitter systems disrupting normal electrical activity in the brain is known as _________ .

A

Epilepsy

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3
Q

Differentiate between simple and complex partial types of seizures.

A

Partial = Beginning focally in a cortical site

Simple Partial - Preservation of consciousness

Complex Partial - Impairment of consciousness

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4
Q

Absence, myoclonic and tonic-clonic seizures are all examples of _________ .

A

Generalized Seizures

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5
Q

Explain how Anti-Epileptic Drugs work.

A

They are going to enter the inside of the pore and bind to the “inactivation gate”, keeping the Voltage-Gated Na+ channels closed and preventing action potentials from occurring!

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6
Q

Pharmacological activity of AEDs is said to be _________ - dependent because you have to have the “pore” of the channel open in order for them to access the “inactivation gates”.

A

“State”

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7
Q

The probability of a Voltage-Gated Na+ Channel blockade is proportional to the __________ of Na channels opening and closing.

This is known as the “_____“-dependent side of the AEDs.

A

Frequency

Use

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8
Q

Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Eslicarbazepine, Lamotrigine, Phenytoin, Topiramate, Valporic Acid, Zonisamide and Lacosamide are all examples of __________ .

A

AEDs that will bind to the FAST inactivation state of Voltage-Gated Na+ Channels

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9
Q

What is special about Lacosamide?

A

It is not necessary for the “pore” to be open in order for Lacosamide to block the channel!

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10
Q

Topiramate and Perampanel are going to antagonize which receptor?

A

AMPA-receptors (Glutamate)

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11
Q

Fosphenytoin is the _______ form of the drug while phenytoin is the ________ .

A

IV

Water-soluble Pro-Drug

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12
Q

Which receptor does felbamate antagonize?

A

NMDA-Receptor (Glycine)

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13
Q

In Pre-Synaptic GABA-ergic Transmission, _____________ is going to inhibit the uptake of GABA by blocking ________ .

A

Tiagabine

GAT-1 (GABA Transporter)

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14
Q

In Pre-Synaptic GABA-ergic Transmission, _________ is going to inhibit the metabolism of GABA by inhibiting _______, ________ and ______.

A

Valproic Acid

  1. Glutamic acid decarboxylase
  2. GABA Transaminase (GABA-T)
  3. Succinic Semialdehyde Decarboxylase (SSD)
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15
Q

In Pre-Synaptic GABA-ergic Transmission, ________ is going to inhibit the metabolism of GABA by inhibiting _________ .

A

Vigabatrin

GABA transaminase (GABA-T)

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16
Q

Barbiturates (Phenobarbital/Primidone), Benzodiazapines and Topiramate are all going to act to ___________ Post-Synpatic GABA-ergic Neuronal Transmission.

17
Q

Which drug is more lethal, Barbiturates or Benzodiazepines? And why?

A

Barbiturates!

They are able to bind to the GABA receptor in the absence of GABA (GABA-Independent)

18
Q

True or False. Benzodiazapines are GABA-Dependent when it comes to binding to the receptor.

19
Q

Barbituates are going to increase the ________ that the GABA receptor is open.

20
Q

Benzodiazapines are going to increase the _________ that the GABA receptor is open.

21
Q

Which drug has the following three actions:

  1. GABA-A agonist (increase the frequency of GABA-A activation)
  2. Binds to Fast Inactivation gates in Voltage-Gated Na+ Channels
  3. AMPA-Receptor Antagonist
22
Q

T-Type Ca2+ channels that mediate 3-Hz spike and wave activity in the thalamus is a hallmark of ________ .

A

Absence (Petit mal) seizures

23
Q

Ethosuximide, Valporic Acid and Zonisamide are all antagonists of _______ .

A

T-Type Ca2+ channels

24
Q

What do you have to be careful when using Zonisamide in the treatment of Absence Seizures?

A

It is a sulfonamide and you need to double check to make sure the patient does not have any sulfur allergies!!!

25
Levetiracetam and Brivaracetam are going to inhibit ________ .
Synaptic Vesicle Protein-2A
26
Gabapentin and Pregabalin are going to inhibit _________ .
alpha 2 delta Ca2+ Channels
27
Chronic administration of carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital and valproic acid can induce CYP450-dependent ___________.
Vitamin D catabolism
28
Which drug participates in auto-induction (self-metabolism)?
Carbamazepine
29
Which drug requires monitoring via a visual assessment?
Vigabatrin
30
Which four drugs can induce Hepatic CYP 450?
1. Carbamazepine 2. Phenytoin 3. Phenobarbital 4. Valproate
31
You can have an ___________ of oral contraceptives if you are taking AEDs simultaneously. What might this set you up for?
Increased Clearance Unplanned Pregnancy
32
AED inducers can increase the clearance of warfarin (anticoagulants). In this scenario, you will have elevated risk for ___________ .
Arterial/Venous Thrombosis
33
AED inducers can increase clearance of HIV medications. In this scenario, you will have elevated risk for _______ .
HIV replication
34
Valporic acid and lamotrigene are going to _______ glucuronosyltransferases (UGT) and ________ the conversion of drug to inactive drug-conjugate.
Inhibit Decrease
35
Carbamazepine, Phenytoin and Phenobarbital are going to _______ glucuronosyltransferases (UGT) and ________ the conversion of drug to inactive drug-conjugate.
Induce Increase *** You may have to increase the dose of medication when taking it in conjunction with UGT inducers!
36
Differentiate between Carbamazepine and Oxcarbazepine.
Oxcarbazepine is less toxic! The cross-sensitivity is ~30%
37
Describe the procedure for treating Status Epilepticus in adult pts.
0-5 mins: Stabilize Pt and attempt IV access 5-20 mins: Administer a Benzodiazapine 20-40 mins: Administer Phenytoin 40-60 mins: Repeat Second-Line Treatment
38
What are some of the broad warnings for AEDs?
1. Abrupt withdraw may elicit Status Epilepticus | 2. Suicidal Behavior and Ideation