Drug development and regulation Flashcards

(39 cards)

1
Q

Pure food and drug act (PFDA)

A

Prohibits mislabeling and adultering drugs

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2
Q

Amendment to PFDA

A

Prohibits false/fraudulent advertising claims

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3
Q

Harrison narcotics act**

A

Established regulations for use of opium, opiates, cocaine and later marijuana

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4
Q

Controlled substances act of 1970***

A

Outlines strict controls in the manufacture, distribution and prescribing of habit-forming drugs;
Establish program to prevent and treat addiction***

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5
Q

Drug Price Competition and Patent Restoration act

A

Abbreviates new drug applications for generic drugs
Required bioequivalence data.
Patent life extended by time it spends under FDA review

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6
Q

Orphan Drug Ammendment**

A

Ammends FDCA, provides incentives for development of drugs that treat disease with less than 200,000 pt’s in the USA

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7
Q

Major Legislation pertaining to PR: Ley 11 del 23 de junio del 1976

A

Creates a board for Bioequivalent for Medications, named by the Secretary of health of PR

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8
Q

Drug development and approval process

A
Safety tests include: 
Acute toxicity
Subacute toxicity
Chronic Toxicity
Effect on reproduction
Carcinogenic potential
Mutagenic potential
Investigative toxicology
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9
Q

U.S. Pharmacopeia and Nation al Formulary

A

Establishes and regulates reference standards

Established by the Food and Drug Act of 1906 (Wiley/Heyburn Act)

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10
Q

Comprehensive drug abuse prevention and control act of 1970

A

Established the DEA
Established 5 schedules for drugs of abuse
Established penalties for misuse
Established quotas for manufacturing narcotics

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11
Q

Amendment that established the practice of pharmacy

A

Durham Humphrey Amedment of 1951

  • also established pharmacist physician relationship
  • Separate class for narcotics and physician registration numbers
  • Deals with legen drugs: prescription drugs
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12
Q

Act responsible for premarket clearance for safety and efficacy as well as establishing modern drug review and approval procedures

A

Kefauver-Harris act

  • Requires animal data to be submitted before beginning human trials
  • **3 phases of clinical testing
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13
Q

Act that caused review time to be sped up

A

Prescription Drug User Fee Act: Industry provides FDA funds in the form of fees to pay for positions and resources to review new drug applications

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14
Q

Molecular profile test of a drug

A

Receptor binding
Enzyme activity
Biotransformation enzymes

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15
Q

Cellular profile tests of a drug

A

cell culture systems

isolated organ prep

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16
Q

Systems/Disease model systems of a new drug

A
Blood Pressure
Blood coagulation
Diuretic activity
Cardiac effects
CNS model systems
17
Q

Screening of drugs

A

How most new drugs are discovered
Specific set of procedures (in vivo and in vitro)
Bioassay (quantitative analysis) is used to establish relationship between dose and response

18
Q

How to make a new drug?

A

Synthesis de novo
Modifying the structure of an existing drug (SAR)
Purification of drugs from natural sources
Exploration of side effects of existing drugs

19
Q

Bioassay parameter EC50:

A

Concentration of an agonist where 50% of its max agonistic effect is observed

20
Q

Bioassay parameter IC50:

A

Concentration of an antagonist compound where 50% of its maximal antagonistic effect is observed

21
Q

Bioassay parameters ED50

A

Minimum required dose to show desired activity of drug in half the members of a tested population after a specific duration of time

22
Q

Bioassay parameters LD50

A

Represents the dose required to kill half the members of a tested population after a specific duration of time

23
Q
Therapeutic index (bioassay parameters)
****Safety parameter in Experimental animals
A

Represents the ration of LD50 to ED50:

LD50/ED50=therapeutic index

24
Q

Therapeutic index in clinical medicine

A

Ratio between median toxic dose and median effective dose:

TD50/ED50=therapeutic index

25
Animal studies: acute toxicity tests
One administration to each animal Generation of dose-response curves Appropriate pharm testing to determine ED50 Develop ways to determine absorption, excretion, distribution, and metabolism of chem
26
Animal studies: Chronic toxicity tests
2 to 5 years | Multiple administrators or continuous exposure via food or water
27
How to judge a drug?
Efficacy Safety Convenience Cost
28
What are possible drug reactions/toxicities/side effects?
``` Allergic reactions Blood dyscrasias Hepatotoxicity and nephrotoxicity Teratogenic effects Behavioural toxicity Drug dependence and abuse Carcinogenesis Pharmacogenetic toxicities ```
29
Blood dyscrasias as side effects:
``` Agranulocytosis Aplastic Anemia** Hemolytic anemia Thrombocytopenia Clotting factors ```
30
Behavioural toxicity examples
Suppression of normal anxiety Reduced motivation Adverse effects of moods
31
Carcinogenesis
Delayed type of toxicity with latency of many YEARS***
32
Pharmacogenic toxicities example
Malignant hyperthermia and anesthetics
33
Controlled drugs (narcotics): Schedules
``` I. No medical use II. High potential for abuse (used medically with severe restrictions) III. Medium potential for abuse IV. Low potential for abuse V. Low (still some) potential for abuse ```
34
Schedule I drug
NO medical use Considered highly addictive 78 opioids, 29 hallucinogens, depressants/stimulants (7) Heroin, LSD, marijuana, quaaludes
35
Class II drugs
Highly addictive with medical use Morphine, cocaine, pentobarbital, methylphenidate NO REFILLS, must have a DEA liscense HIGHLY regulated
36
Schedule III
Moderately addictive Acetaminophen combos, codeine, nalorphine No more than 5 refills/6mo's
37
Schedule IV
Drugs with limited addiction potential Phenobarbital, benzo's, chloral hydrate NO refilling more than 5 times/6mo's
38
Schedule V
Drugs w/low addiction potential Diphenoxylate (opioid) May be sold w/out prescription by pharmacist
39
Role of institutional review board (IRB)
1. Ensures ethical acceptability of proposed research 2. Reviews and approves research protocols involving humans 3. Ensures the appropriateness of the informed consent document 4. Reviews and approves the company's/investigator's IND document