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Flashcards in Drugs Deck (40)
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1
Q

What is the difference between regular insulin and NPH insulin?

A

Regular Insulin – clear solution, Only form to be used IV

NPH - “cloudy” more dense, 12-14 hour duration

2
Q

What is the insulin that should be used for immediate action at meal time?

A

Lispro insulin
Insulin Aspart
– Works more quickly than native insulin injected due to monomers, rather than pentamers

3
Q

What insulins are used for basal insulin levels?

A
  • Insulin Glargine

- Insulin Determir

4
Q

How are the mechanisms different for Glargine and Determir?

A

Glargine – long acting, precipitates at pH7, so takes the body longer to break it down into the blood stream.

Determir – long acting binds to albumin in plasma (remember only free is functional!)

5
Q

What is the most common regimen to give insulin?

A

Usually a combination of intermediate/long acting and short acting pre-meal time. 70/30 mix

6
Q

What are the goals for insulin and blood sugar management?

A
  • Fasting glucose/post meal – 70-130
  • 2 hour post meal time – less than 180
  • HbA1c - less than 7%
7
Q

How does the patient judge how much insulin to give themselves before a meal?

A

– Pre-meal stick, give 10 units base, then +1 for every 40 glucose over 120 before the meal.

– Also carb count and base insulin on % carbs in the meal

8
Q

What are the best foods for a snack before bedtime?

A
    • complex carbs
    • proteins
    • fats
9
Q

What are the most common side effects of insulin?

A
    • Hypoglycemia
    • Lipohypertrophy
    • High doses = cancer, weight gain, atherosclerosis
10
Q

What is the mechanism of Sulfonylureas and who are they used for?

A
    • Interacts with the K+ channel inhibiting it’s function and depolarizing the B-cell membrane, causing influx of Ca+2 into the cell and secretion of granules of insulin.
    • Used for DM2, to increase their insulin levels –
11
Q

If a patient had DM2 and had renal insufficiency, what would be the best drug to increase insulin levels?

A

Meglitinide

– Must be dosed 3 times per day, but is not have renal excretion and is to be used in patients with renal damage.

12
Q

What sulfonylurea has the fastest action and shortest half life?

A

Glipizide

13
Q

What are the sulfonylureas that have longer action and half lives?

A

Glyburide

Glimepiride

14
Q

What are the most common side effects of sulfonylureas?

A
    • hypoglycemia

- - GI symptoms

15
Q

What is a first line therapy to a newly diagnosed patient with DM2?

A

Metformin (Biguanide)

16
Q

What are contraindications for giving Metformin?

A
  • Renal insufficiency
  • Old (80+)
  • liver dysfunction
17
Q

How does Metformin help with DM2 patients?

A
    • increases sensitivity of the Liver to insulin

- - decreases gluconeogenesis of the liver to lower glucose levels

18
Q

What are the drugs that upregulate PPAR in peripheral tissues that increase glucose uptake by fat and muscle cells?

A
    • Rosiglitazone

- - Pioglitazone

19
Q

What are known side effects of Thiazolidinediones?

A
    • Rosiglitazone – increased cardiac events

- - Pioglitazone – incrased bladder cancer, more commonly used

20
Q

If a patient continually has difficulty removing carbohydrates out of his diet to manage his blood sugar, what might be a good option?

A

Acarbose – inhibits GI brush border enzymes preventing the break down of carbohydrates partially. Induced malabsorption.
Side effects: GI effects and bloating

21
Q

What drugs can be used to augment insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon release similar to eating a meal?

A

Exenatide – GLP-1 analog, long acting, promotes insulin secretion and glucagon inhibition. Increases B-cell mass.
++ Liraglutide (same as above)

22
Q

Instead of using GLP-1 analogs, how else can insulin be stimulated and glucagon be inhibited?

A

Sitagliptin – DPP-4 inhibits break down of GLP1 increasing the endogenous proteins effects.

23
Q

If a patient has known DM2 and is taking her medications are prescribed, but keeps returning to the clinic with yeast infections, what drug could be causing this?

A

Canagliflozin – inhibits Sodium-Glucose transporter in the proximal tubule. Increases glucose in the urine and risk of urinary tract infections.

24
Q

Which treatment methods lower the HbA1c the most?

A

Sulfonylureas / Metformin / Thiazolidinediones – lower 1.5%

25
Q

What is a commonly used combination therapy for DM2?

A
Increase Insulin Secretion + Sensitizing agent 
- Sitagliptin -- DPP4 inhibitor
- Exenatide -- GLP1 analog
- Liraglutide -- GLP1 analog
- Glipizide -- Sulfonylurea
\+
- Metformin
- Rosiglitazone
- Pioglitazone
26
Q

If a patient is found to have hypocalcemia with very high PTH levels and low phosphate, what should be the first line of treatment?

A

– Supplement Vitamin D (or in diet)
– Supplement Ca+2
Most likely osteomalacia due to VitD/Ca insufficiency

27
Q

If a patient needs to be on a calcium supplement, Calcium carbonate or calcium citrate a better option?

A

Calcium Carbonate – more calcium present per gram consumed.

28
Q

What is the mechanism of bisphosphonate and what is it used for?

A

Inhibits the conversion of mevalonate to farnesyl

    • inducing apoptosis in osteoclasts
    • Used for osteoporosis in preventing fractures
29
Q

What bisphosphonate can be used to treat glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis?

A

Risedronate

Zoledronate

30
Q

What is the most common side effect of Pamidronate and Zoledronate?

A

Hypocalcemia, since they are very potent at preventing bone reabsorption, should only be used in patients with hypercalcemia

31
Q

What three bisphosphonate can be used to treat post-menopausal osteoporosis without hypercalcemia?

A
  • Ibandronate
  • Alendronate
  • Risendronate
32
Q

What is problematic about giving Calcitonin to a patient with osteoporosis?

A

–inhibits osteoclasts from functioning properly, however tolerance develops very quickly not longer providing benefits. – Last resort drug–

33
Q

What osteoporosis treatment has benefits of added breast cancer prevention?

A
    • Tamoxifen, prevents Breast CA proliferation and increases bone density.
    • Raloxifene, prevents fractures and protects against cancer
34
Q

What is a key side effect of selective estrogen receptor modulaters?

A

Increases thromboembolic risk

35
Q

What are the most significant risk factors for low trauma fractures?

A
    • Osteoporosis/BMD
    • Past Fractures
    • Female Sex
    • Glucocorticoid Use
36
Q

How does Denosumab prevent osteoclast activity?

A

– binds RankL preventing interaction with Rank receptor and stops differentiation of Macros into osteoclasts

37
Q

What technique needs to be employed to use Teriparatide?

A

Teriparatide is a partial PTH fragment.

– When constantly infused it causes bone resorption, but when intermittently doses increases bone mass.

38
Q

What are the most common causes for osteomalacia?

A
  • nutritional deficiency
  • renal disease or mutation of 1-hydroxylase
  • GI malabsorption – celiac
  • low vitamin D
39
Q

What is FGF23 and its function?

A
    • secreted from osteocytes
    • Promotes excretion of PO3-4
    • Inhibits expression of 1-Hydroxylase to prevent Vitamin D from absorbing anymore
    • increases activity of 24-hydroxylase to deactivate VitD
    • inhibits PTH secretion
    • Prevents bone mineralization
40
Q

What was commonly used in post menapausal women to prevent osteoporosis?

A

Estrogen