Drugs Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

What is the difference between regular insulin and NPH insulin?

A

Regular Insulin – clear solution, Only form to be used IV

NPH - “cloudy” more dense, 12-14 hour duration

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2
Q

What is the insulin that should be used for immediate action at meal time?

A

Lispro insulin
Insulin Aspart
– Works more quickly than native insulin injected due to monomers, rather than pentamers

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3
Q

What insulins are used for basal insulin levels?

A
  • Insulin Glargine

- Insulin Determir

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4
Q

How are the mechanisms different for Glargine and Determir?

A

Glargine – long acting, precipitates at pH7, so takes the body longer to break it down into the blood stream.

Determir – long acting binds to albumin in plasma (remember only free is functional!)

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5
Q

What is the most common regimen to give insulin?

A

Usually a combination of intermediate/long acting and short acting pre-meal time. 70/30 mix

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6
Q

What are the goals for insulin and blood sugar management?

A
  • Fasting glucose/post meal – 70-130
  • 2 hour post meal time – less than 180
  • HbA1c - less than 7%
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7
Q

How does the patient judge how much insulin to give themselves before a meal?

A

– Pre-meal stick, give 10 units base, then +1 for every 40 glucose over 120 before the meal.

– Also carb count and base insulin on % carbs in the meal

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8
Q

What are the best foods for a snack before bedtime?

A
    • complex carbs
    • proteins
    • fats
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9
Q

What are the most common side effects of insulin?

A
    • Hypoglycemia
    • Lipohypertrophy
    • High doses = cancer, weight gain, atherosclerosis
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10
Q

What is the mechanism of Sulfonylureas and who are they used for?

A
    • Interacts with the K+ channel inhibiting it’s function and depolarizing the B-cell membrane, causing influx of Ca+2 into the cell and secretion of granules of insulin.
    • Used for DM2, to increase their insulin levels –
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11
Q

If a patient had DM2 and had renal insufficiency, what would be the best drug to increase insulin levels?

A

Meglitinide

– Must be dosed 3 times per day, but is not have renal excretion and is to be used in patients with renal damage.

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12
Q

What sulfonylurea has the fastest action and shortest half life?

A

Glipizide

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13
Q

What are the sulfonylureas that have longer action and half lives?

A

Glyburide

Glimepiride

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14
Q

What are the most common side effects of sulfonylureas?

A
    • hypoglycemia

- - GI symptoms

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15
Q

What is a first line therapy to a newly diagnosed patient with DM2?

A

Metformin (Biguanide)

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16
Q

What are contraindications for giving Metformin?

A
  • Renal insufficiency
  • Old (80+)
  • liver dysfunction
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17
Q

How does Metformin help with DM2 patients?

A
    • increases sensitivity of the Liver to insulin

- - decreases gluconeogenesis of the liver to lower glucose levels

18
Q

What are the drugs that upregulate PPAR in peripheral tissues that increase glucose uptake by fat and muscle cells?

A
    • Rosiglitazone

- - Pioglitazone

19
Q

What are known side effects of Thiazolidinediones?

A
    • Rosiglitazone – increased cardiac events

- - Pioglitazone – incrased bladder cancer, more commonly used

20
Q

If a patient continually has difficulty removing carbohydrates out of his diet to manage his blood sugar, what might be a good option?

A

Acarbose – inhibits GI brush border enzymes preventing the break down of carbohydrates partially. Induced malabsorption.
Side effects: GI effects and bloating

21
Q

What drugs can be used to augment insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon release similar to eating a meal?

A

Exenatide – GLP-1 analog, long acting, promotes insulin secretion and glucagon inhibition. Increases B-cell mass.
++ Liraglutide (same as above)

22
Q

Instead of using GLP-1 analogs, how else can insulin be stimulated and glucagon be inhibited?

A

Sitagliptin – DPP-4 inhibits break down of GLP1 increasing the endogenous proteins effects.

23
Q

If a patient has known DM2 and is taking her medications are prescribed, but keeps returning to the clinic with yeast infections, what drug could be causing this?

A

Canagliflozin – inhibits Sodium-Glucose transporter in the proximal tubule. Increases glucose in the urine and risk of urinary tract infections.

24
Q

Which treatment methods lower the HbA1c the most?

A

Sulfonylureas / Metformin / Thiazolidinediones – lower 1.5%

25
What is a commonly used combination therapy for DM2?
``` Increase Insulin Secretion + Sensitizing agent - Sitagliptin -- DPP4 inhibitor - Exenatide -- GLP1 analog - Liraglutide -- GLP1 analog - Glipizide -- Sulfonylurea + - Metformin - Rosiglitazone - Pioglitazone ```
26
If a patient is found to have hypocalcemia with very high PTH levels and low phosphate, what should be the first line of treatment?
-- Supplement Vitamin D (or in diet) -- Supplement Ca+2 Most likely osteomalacia due to VitD/Ca insufficiency
27
If a patient needs to be on a calcium supplement, Calcium carbonate or calcium citrate a better option?
Calcium Carbonate -- more calcium present per gram consumed.
28
What is the mechanism of bisphosphonate and what is it used for?
Inhibits the conversion of mevalonate to farnesyl - - inducing apoptosis in osteoclasts - - Used for osteoporosis in preventing fractures
29
What bisphosphonate can be used to treat glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis?
Risedronate | Zoledronate
30
What is the most common side effect of Pamidronate and Zoledronate?
Hypocalcemia, since they are very potent at preventing bone reabsorption, should only be used in patients with hypercalcemia
31
What three bisphosphonate can be used to treat post-menopausal osteoporosis without hypercalcemia?
- Ibandronate - Alendronate - Risendronate
32
What is problematic about giving Calcitonin to a patient with osteoporosis?
--inhibits osteoclasts from functioning properly, however tolerance develops very quickly not longer providing benefits. -- Last resort drug--
33
What osteoporosis treatment has benefits of added breast cancer prevention?
- - Tamoxifen, prevents Breast CA proliferation and increases bone density. - - Raloxifene, prevents fractures and protects against cancer
34
What is a key side effect of selective estrogen receptor modulaters?
Increases thromboembolic risk
35
What are the most significant risk factors for low trauma fractures?
- - Osteoporosis/BMD - - Past Fractures - - Female Sex - - Glucocorticoid Use
36
How does Denosumab prevent osteoclast activity?
-- binds RankL preventing interaction with Rank receptor and stops differentiation of Macros into osteoclasts
37
What technique needs to be employed to use Teriparatide?
Teriparatide is a partial PTH fragment. | -- When constantly infused it causes bone resorption, but when intermittently doses increases bone mass.
38
What are the most common causes for osteomalacia?
- nutritional deficiency - renal disease or mutation of 1-hydroxylase - GI malabsorption -- celiac - low vitamin D
39
What is FGF23 and its function?
- - secreted from osteocytes - - Promotes excretion of PO3-4 - - Inhibits expression of 1-Hydroxylase to prevent Vitamin D from absorbing anymore - - increases activity of 24-hydroxylase to deactivate VitD - - inhibits PTH secretion - - Prevents bone mineralization
40
What was commonly used in post menapausal women to prevent osteoporosis?
Estrogen