Drugs Flashcards

(82 cards)

1
Q

Denosumab

A

Monoclonal antibody
RANK-L
Alternative to bisphosphonates
Used in treatment of osteoporosis

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2
Q

Pirfenidone

A

Anti-fibrotic agent given in (idiopathic) lung fibrosis

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3
Q

Oxybutinin (type of drug, mode of action, usage, side effects)

A

Anti-muscarinics
Work on receptors in the bladder (bladder has M3 receptors but it is a non specific drug)
Treatment for urinary incontinence
Side effects - dry eyes, dry mouth, confusion, constipation

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4
Q

Phenylephrine

A

Drops
Dilates the pupil
Alpha 1 adrenergic agonist

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5
Q

Tropicamide

A

Eye drops
Dilates the pupil
Anti-muscarinic

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6
Q

Name the most common enzyme inducers (HINT: think PC BRAS)

A
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine 
Barbiturates 
Rifampicin 
Alcohol XS
Sulphonylureas
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7
Q

Name the most common enzyme inhibitors (HINT: think AO DEVICES)

A
Allopurinol 
Omeprazole 
Disulfiram
Erythromycin 
Valproate
Isoniazid 
Cirprofloxacin 
Ethanol - acute intoxication 
Sulphonamides
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8
Q

Name the drugs which should be stopped before surgery, and when. (HINT: think I LACK OP)

A

Insulin - variable

Lithium - 24 hours before

Anticoagulants - variable

COCP (and HRT) - 4 weeks

K-sparing diuretics - day of surgery

Oral hypoglycaemic - variable, usually from when patient is NBM to prevent hypo

Perindopril (ACEi) - day of surgery

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9
Q

Give some examples of drugs that require therapeutic drug monitoring

A
Lithium
Vancomycin 
Aminoglycosides 
Phenytoin 
Carbamazepine 
Digoxin 
Cyclosporine 
Theophylline
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10
Q

What is the maximum dose of paracetamol in 24 hours?

A

4G

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11
Q

Cyclizine - uses, dose and contraindications

A
Antiemetic
Prescribed if a patient is feeling nauseous
50mg 8 hourly 
IM/IV/P.O.
Do not use of patient had heart failure
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12
Q

Name the antiemetic and doss prescribed for patients that cannot have cyclizine (eg heart failure patients)

A

Metoclopramide 10mg 8 hourly

IM/IV

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13
Q

What is the target INR in patients on warfarin?

A

2.5

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14
Q

What is target INR in warfarin patients with metallic heart valves?

A

3.5

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15
Q

Furosemide / Bumetanide

  • MOA
  • SE
  • CI
A

Loop diuretics
SE - LOW Na, K, Ca + postural hypotension
CI - LOW K, anuric AKI

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16
Q

Bendrofluazide

  • MOA
  • SE
  • CI
A

Thiazide-like diuretics
SE - LOW Na, K + postural hypotension + inc glucose in DM
CI - LOW K, gout, severe CKD/AKI

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17
Q

Spironolactone

  • MOA
  • SE
  • CI
A

Aldosterone antagonist
SE - HIGH K + gynaecomastia
CI - Addison’s

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18
Q

What is the MOA of thrombolytics (such as stretokinase or tPA)?

A

Convert plasminogen to plasmic which assists in the breakdown of fibrin

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19
Q

Linsopril / Captopril / Ramipril

  • MOA
  • SE
  • CI
  • Interactions and monitoring
A
ACE inhibitor 
SE - HIGH K+, dry cough, angioedema 
CI - RAS, angioedema
Interactions - 
- ACEi + NSAIDs = RF
- ACEi + Diuretics = hypotension 
Monitoring - U&Es
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20
Q

Candesartan / Lorsartan

  • MOA
  • Indication
  • SE
A

ARB - angiotensin II receptor antagonist (blocker)
Indication - often reserved for those that cannot tolerate ACEi
SE - HIGH K+

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21
Q

List some of the indications for ACEi (or ARB) prescription

A
HF
HTN
Post-MI
Angina
Diabetic neuropathy
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22
Q

List some of the indications for B-blocker prescription

A
Angina 
HF (not severe)
Acute MI
Arrhythmias
HTN
Long QT
Anxiety 
Migraine prophylaxis
Glaucoma
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23
Q

Name two cardioselective b-blockers

A

Bisoprolol

Atenolol

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24
Q

Name two non-selective b-blockers

A

Propranolol

Labetolol

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25
Which two b-blockers are lipophilic? What is the implication of this?
Metorpolol and Propranolol | More likely to cause nightmares as can cross the BBB
26
List two considerations when treating diabetics or pre-diabetics with b-blockers (HINT: think about drug interactions)
Increased risk of new onset DM if concurrent thiazide therapy Increase risk of unnoticed hypoglycaemia if concurrent insulin therapy
27
Phentolamine
Alpha blocker - used mainly to treat HTN in phaeochromocytoma patients
28
Doxazosin
Alpha blocker - used mainly to treat BPH but has anti-HTN effects
29
Methyldopa
alpha-2 agonist - used mainly to treat HTN in pregnancy
30
Name two dihydropyridine CCBs
Nifedipine | Amlodipine
31
Name two non-dihydropiridine CCBs
Diltiazem | Verapamil
32
What is the main mode of action of dihydropyridine CCBs
Vasodilation - acts on arterial smooth muscle
33
What is the main mode of action of non-dihydropyridine CCBs
Negative ionotropic effect to decrease contractility
34
List some of the indications for treatment with dihydropiridine CCBs
Angina | HTN
35
List some of the indications for treatment with non-dihydropiridine CCBs
Angina HTN Arrhythmias
36
What class of drugs are Class I Vaughan-Williams anti-arrhythmics?
Sodium channel blockers (i.e. local anaesthetics)
37
Name one drug from each of the following Vaughan-Williams classes: - 1a - 1b - 1c
``` 1a = procainamide 1b = lignocaine 1c = flecanide ```
38
What are the MOAs for the Vaughan-Williams drugs (HINT: think "some block potassium channels)
Class I - Sodium channel blockers Class II - B-blcokers Class III - Potassium channel blockers Class IV - Calcium channel blockers
39
Name a Class 1a anti-arrhythmic drug and describe (a) how it works and (b) its indication
Procainamide - works by prolonging repolarisation thereby increasing action potential duration Indication - ventricular arrhythmias
40
Name a Class 1b anti-arrhythmic drug and describe (a) how it works and (b) its indication
Lignocaine - works by shortening reploarisation Indication - post-MI ventricular arrhythmias
41
Name a Class 1c anti-arrhythmic drug and give its indication
Flecanide - Wolff-Parkinson-White, acute AF
42
Name some Class II anti-arrhythmic drugs
B-blockers = metoprolol, propranolol, atenolol
43
Describe how Class II anti-arrhythmic drugs work
Increase refractory period at AVN thereby slowing conduction and preventing arrhythmias due to sympathetic discharge
44
List some of the indications for Class II anti-arrhythmic drugs
Post-MI arrhythmias AF - rate control SVT
45
Name some Class III anti-arrhythmic drugs
Potassium channel blockers - amiodarone, sotalol
46
Describe how Class III anti-arrhythmic drugs work
Block potassium channels therby increasing the refractory period, this increases the QT interval
47
List some of the indications for Class III anti-arrhythmic drugs
Ventricular arrhythmias Supraventricular arrhythmias Wolff-Parkinson-White
48
Name some Class IV anti-arrhythmic drugs
Calcium channel blockers - non-dihydropyridines: verapamil, diltiazem
49
Are Class IV anti-arrhythmic drugs dihydropyridines or not?
Non-dihydropyridine CCBs
50
List some of the indications for Class IV anti-arrhythmic drugs
Prevention of SVt recurrence AF - rate control Acute SVT
51
Describe how Class IV anti-arrhythmic drugs work
Slow AVN conduction
52
How does digoxin work?
(1) Positive inotropic effect - increases force of contraction by inhibiting Na/K ATPase (therefore increasing their concentration) (2) Negative chronotropic effect - increases HR at rest by increasing AVN refractory period
53
How does adenosine cause transient AV block?
By hyperpolarising myocytes via A1 receptors in cardiac tissues
54
Name a short-acting nitrate and (a) its MOA and (b) its indication
GTN (a) vasodilation (b) pain relief in angina and ACS
55
Name a long-acting nitrate and (a) its MOA and (b) its indication
ISMN / ISDN (isosorbide mono/dinitrate) (a) vasodilation (b) CHF
56
List some of the contraindications for nitrate prescription
Aortic stenosis Mitral stenosis Hypotension Glaucoma
57
Name a non-nitrate treatment for angina
Nicorandil
58
What is a major contraindication for most anti-arrhythmic drugs?
Heart block
59
List some of the indications for Rx with anti-platelet therapy
ACS Secondary prevention in IHD, stroke, TIA, PVD Primary prevention in those with high CVD risk and hypertension Heart valve replacements
60
How does aspirin work?
Aspirin is an irreversible non-selective COX inhibitor (1) inhibition of COX enzymes (2) prevention of platelet activation (3) prevention of platelet adhesion and aggregation
61
List some of the contraindications for aspirin Rx
Paediatrics (except Kawasaki's) Active peptic ulcer disease Bleeding disorders
62
How does clopidogrel work?
Irreversible adenosine receptor antagonist (1) Binds to adenosine receptor (2) Inhibits ADP-induced binding of fibrinogen to GP11b/IIIa
63
List some of the indications for treatment with statins
Known CVD Diabetes mellitus >40 years old High 10 year CVD risk (>20%)
64
How do statins work?
Statins are HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors - they block the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis
65
What are the major (useful) downstream effects of statins?
Decrease LDL cholesterol Increase HDL cholesterol Decrease triglycerides
66
Can statins be used in pregnancy?
No - pregnancy is CI
67
What natural substance interacts with statins and should be avoided?
Grapefruit juice
68
How do inhaled corticosteroids work?
They act over weeks to decrease inflammation and prevent long-term decline in lung function
69
How do inhaled corticosteroids decrease inflammation?
``` Decrease cytokine production Decrease prostaglandin synthesis Decrease leukotriene synthesis Decrease IgE secretion Decrease leukocyte recruitment ```
70
What is the MOA of theophylline?
Increases cAMP causing bronchodilation
71
Which patients cannot be treated with antihistamines>
Hepatic Disease Long QT BPH Closed angle glaucoma
72
Name a non-sedating antihistamine
Certirizine
73
Name a sedating antihistamine
Chlorphenamine (piriton)
74
How do antihistamines work?
H1 (histamine 1 receptor) antagonists
75
What kind of drug is montelukast and how does it work?
Leukotriene receptor antagonists - blocks leukotrienes and prevents inflammator response seen in asthma
76
Name some osmotic laxatives
Laculose Movicol / macrogol Phosphate enema
77
Name a stimulant laxative
Senna
78
Is ramipril safe during pregnancy? If not, suggest a suitable alternative
No - ramipril is teratogenic | Labetolol is the first-line alternative
79
How often is warfarin (INR) monitoring required?
Weekly until INR has stabilised, then monthly after that
80
What affect does potassium have on warfarin?
Because of the MOA of warfarin (competitive binding for Na/K ATPase), changes to [K] can alter the drugs effectiveness: - High concentrations of potassium = limit drug effect - Low concentrations of potassium = augment drug effect
81
List some drugs that interact with alcohol, explain the interaction
Metformin + alcohol = lactic acidosis NSAIDs + alcohol = GI bleeds Warfarin + alcohol = excessive anticogaulation MAO inhibitors + alcohol = hypertensive crisis Metronidazole + alcohol = sweating, nausea, vomiting Opioids + alcohol = sedation Benzos + alcohol = sedation Barbiturates + alcohol = sedation
82
Why should you not co-prescribe NSAIDs and ACEi?
NSAIDs have an effect on the afferent arteriole (cause constriction by inhibiting prostaglandins) thereby lowering renal perfusion ACEi have an effect on the efferent arteriole (cause vasodilation) thereby lowering renal perfusion Together, their effects are synergistic therefore renal perfusion is lowered to dangerous levels