E1 Q3 Bank Flashcards

1
Q

A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer. Testing reveals that the cancer cells have spread to local lymph nodes. A nurse realizes this cancer would be documented as stage:
1
2
4
3

A

D. 3

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2
Q

Which statement indicates the patient has a correct understanding of metastasis? The most common route of metastasis is through the blood vessels and:
Body cavities
Lung tissue
Lymphatics
Connective tissues

A

C. Lymphatics

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3
Q

A nurse is discussing preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. What is the nurse describing?
Dysplastic
Cancer beyond (meta) situ
Tumor in differentiation
Cancer in situ

A

D. Cancer in situ

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4
Q

A 45-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Rubella virus
Herpes virus
Hepatitis B virus

A

A. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

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5
Q

When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which topic should the oncologist discuss?
Promoting cell death
Facilitating new mutations
Enhancing mitosis
Increasing hypersensitivity

A

B. Facilitating new mutations

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6
Q

A 65-year-old patient recently diagnosed with cancer retired from construction work. Which cancer is likely to develop secondarily to occupational hazards?
Bladder cancer
Mesothelioma
Bone cancer
Prostate cancer

A

B. Mesothelioma

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7
Q

A nurse recalls physical activity was shown to definitely reduce the risk of which of the following types of cancer?
Colon
Prostate
Bone
lung

A

A. Colon

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8
Q

What is the origin of most childhood cancers?
Mesodermal germ layer
Placenta
Environment
Neural tube

A

A. Mesodermal germ layer

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9
Q

A nurse is preparing to teach the most common malignancy in children. Which malignancy should the nurse discuss?
Wilms tumor
Leukemia
Neuroblastoma
Retinoblastoma

A

B. Leukemia

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10
Q

Which characterizes an embryonic cancer tumor?
Often seen in adults
Composed of mature, differentiated cells
Commonly occurring
Usually manifested around age 5

A

D. Usually manifested around age 5

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11
Q

A 25-year-old male develops a tumor of the breast glandular tissue. What type of tumor will be documented on the chart?
Adenocarcinoma
Carcinoma
Sarcoma
Lymphoma

A

A. Adenocarcinoma

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12
Q

A 52-year-old male with hepatitis C recently developed hepatic cancer. Which of the following markers should be increased?
Prostate-specific antigen
Catecholamines
Homovanillic acid
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

A

D. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

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13
Q

Which genetic change causes alterations in only one or a few nucleotide bases?
Insertions
Point mutations
Deletions
Amplification mutations

A

B. Point mutations

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14
Q

A water test recently revealed arsenic levels above 200 mcg/L. Which of the following cancers would be most likely to develop in those who consistently drank the water?
Liver
Kidney
Skin
Colon

A

C. Skin

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15
Q

A 50-year-old female confirms chronic alcohol intake. This practice places the patient at risk for cancer in which organs? (Select all that apply.)
Larynx
Brain
Esophagus
Lung
Breast
liver

A

A. Larynx
C. Esophagus
E. Breast
F. Liver

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16
Q

When an oncologist is discussing the degree to which an organism’s development is contingent on its environment, which of the following is the oncologist explaining?
Transgenerational inheritance
Epigenetics
Histone modification
Developmental plasticity

A

D. Developmental plasticity

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17
Q

The nurse explains to a parent that young children diagnosed with Down syndrome are at higher risk for developing:
Leukemia
Retinoblastoma
Nephroblastoma
rhabdomyosarcoma.

A

A. Leukemia

18
Q

A 3-year-old female was diagnosed with Wilms tumor. This disease is a tumor of the:
Kidney
Brain
Bone marrow
Liver

A

A. Kidney

19
Q

An oncologist is discussing when a cancer cell loses differentiation. Which of the following is the oncologist describing?
Metastasis
Anaplasia
Autonomy
Pleomorphic

A

B. Anaplasia

20
Q

A nurse is giving an example of inflammation as an etiology for cancer development. What is the best example the nurse should give?
Hypercholesterolemia and leukemia
Ulcerative colitis and colon cancer
Prostatic hypertrophy and prostate cancer
Pneumonia and lung cancer

A

B. Ulcerative colitis and colon cancer

21
Q

The most common type of tissue cancer occurring between ages 15 and 19 is:
Carcinoma
Sarcoma
Squamous cell
Neuroma

A

A. Carcinoma

22
Q

A 40-year-old female developed adenocarcinoma of the vagina. Which prenatal event is the most likely cause of her cancer?
Exposure to radiation
Rb gene mutation
Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES)
Exposure to solvents

A

C. Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES)

23
Q

A 45-year-old male presents with persistent, severe stomach pain. Testing reveals a peptic ulcer. Further laboratory tests reveal the presence of Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following is of concern for this patient?
Lung cancer
Gastric cancer
Leukemia
Adenocarcinoma of the colon

A

B. Gastric cancer

24
Q

A patient asks when adjuvant chemotherapy is used. How should the nurse respond? Adjuvant chemotherapy treatment is used:
as the primary treatment
Before radiation therapy
After surgical removal of the tumor
In cancer with little risk of metastasis

A

C. After surgical removal of the tumor

25
Q

Which of the following indicates a nurse understands a protooncogene? A protooncogene is best described as a ____ gene
Tumor-suppressor
Altered
Inactive
Normal

A

D. Normal

26
Q

A patient asks why indoor pollution is worse than outdoor pollution, how should the nurse respond. Indoor pollution is considered worse than outdoor pollution because of cigarette smoke and:
Radon
Benzene
Chlorine
Fireplace wood smoke

A

A. Radon

27
Q

The role of physical activity in the prevention of colon cancer is identified in which of the following?
It increases blood supply, therefore increasing oxygen to the colon
It increases fluid loss, leading to thirst and increased fluid intake, hydrating the colon
It increases gut motility, decreasing the time the bowel is exposed to mutagens
It increases the secretion of hydrochloric acid, thereby killing the mutants

A

C. In increased gut mobility, decreasing the time the bowel is exposed to mutagens

28
Q

What event occurs in about 70% cases of childhood cancers?
Cured.
Participated in clinical trials
Developed a secondary malignancy
Required only chemotherapy

A

A. Cured

29
Q

Brachytherapy is being used to treat cancer in a patient. What types of cancers respond well to brachytherapy. (Select all that apply).

Cervix
Head
Lung
Prostate
Neck

A

A. Cervix
B. Head
D. Prostate
E. Neck

30
Q

A 30-year-old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus. After 2 months, the virus is still active. Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient?
B-cell lymphoma
T-cell lipoma
Kaposi sarcoma
T-cell leukemia

A

A. B-cell lymphoma

31
Q

A 16 year old with aspirations of becoming a bodybuilder spends 3 hours a day in the gym. Five years later, a hepatocellular carcinoma was discovered. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the cancer?
A viral infection
Immunosuppressive agents
Cytotoxic agents
Anabolic steroids

A

D. Anabolic steroids

32
Q

Which information indicates a nurse understands characteristics of malignant tumors?

Has a well-defined capsule
Is well differentiated
Grows slowly
Invasive

A

D. Invasive

33
Q

The most important environmental risk factor for cancer is exposure to:

Ultraviolet radiation
Cigarette smoke
Radon
estrogen

A

B. Cigarette smoke

34
Q

When an aide asks why carcinomas rarely occur in childhood, how should the nurse respond? (Select all that apply.)
Carcinomas need a long time from exposure to occurrence.
Carcinomas are mesodermal.
Carcinomas cannot develop in an immunosuppressed environment.
Carcinomas are due to environmental exposures.
Carcinomas occur primarily in secondary sexual organs.

A

A. Carcinomas need a long time from exposure to occurrence
D. Carcinomas are due to environmental exposures

35
Q

What is the effect of telomere caps on cancer cells?
Clonal distinction
Mutation abilities
Limited mitosis
Repeated Divisions

A

D. Repeated divisions

36
Q

What event occurs in about 70% of the cases of childhood cancers?
Required only chemotherapy.
Cured
Participated in clinical trials.
Developed a secondary malignancy

A

B. Cured

37
Q

A patient develops skin cancer on the head and neck following years of sunbathing. Which of the following cancers is most likely?
Leukemia
Lymphoma
Adenoma
Basal cell carcinoma

A

D. Basal cell carcinoma

38
Q

Which information should the nurse include when teaching about angiogenic factors? In cancer, angiogenic factors stimulate:
New blood vessel growth
Release of growth factors
Apoptosis
Tumor regression

A

A. New blood vessel growth

39
Q

A primary care provider is attempting to diagnose cancer and is looking for a tumor marker. Which of the following could be a possible marker?
Apoptotic cells
Enzymes
Red blood cells
Neurotransmitters

A

B. Enzymes

40
Q

A patient has a tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer. Which of the following terms best describes this growth?
Malignant tumor
Meningioma
Lipoma
Hypertrophy

A

A. Malignant tumor

41
Q

Chromosome aberrations and mutations in cells that were not directly irradiated are referred to as
Delayed reproductive death
Lethal mutation
Genetic instability
Bystander effect

A

D. Bystander effect

42
Q

Which of the following indicates a nurse understands a proto-oncogene? A proto-oncogene is best defined as a ___ gene.
Altered
Tumor-suppressor
Inactive
normal

A

D. Normal