E2 Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

What is the root of the mesentery vulnerable to?

A

Increased lumbar lordosis
Omental obesity
Scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the transversus aponeurosis vulnerable to?

A
Abdominal wall weakness
Weak muscles
Hernias
Stretch from pregnancy
Mesenteric obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the fascia lata vulnerable to?

A
Leg length inequality
Pelvic side shift
Instability of knee
Ankle sprain
Arch collapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the tension component of fascia lata?

A

IT band and investing fascia of thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the compression component of fascia lata?

A

Inominate, femur, tibia, fibula, talus, calcaneus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the external mechanism that controls tension in the IT band?

A

Fascia lata: tensor fascia lata and gluteus maximus muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does leg length inequality affect the lower limb and pelvis?

A

It creates pelvic side shift and excessive tension on the IT band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does ankle sprain affect the IT band?

A

It draws the fibular head inferiorly and posteriorly. If held in this position, it increases tension in the ITB, which will result in pelvic side shift.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is plantar fascia vulnerable to?

A

Longitudinal arch collapse
Plantar fasciitis
Gait abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the function of the subscapular fascia and how is it unique?

A

Allows motion of the scapula against the rib cage

It is a fascial “joint”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Scapulo-Thoracic Syndrome?

A

Inflammation of the fascial joint with scarring and condensation of the fascia, loss of shoulder motion, and scraping or grinding sound as scapula is circumducted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is subscapular fascia vulnerable to?

A

Abnormal tracking of scapula due to other girdle problems
Distortion of the rib cage
Scoliosis
Kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the compression elements of cranial dura?

A

Ethmoid, frontal, parietal, basisphenoid, and petrous temporal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the tension elements of cranial dura?

A

Falx cerebri
Tentorium cerebelli
Falx cerebelli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does damage to cranial dura result in?

A

Alteration of cerebral blood flow and tension on the venous sinuses

Change in shape of cranium with the potential for tension or compressive cranial neuropathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some consequences of pelvic side shift?

A

Excessive tension on iliotibial band, which can cause…

Trochanteric Bursitis (ITB rubbing greater trochanter)
Fibular nerve compression
Premature Osteoarthritis of the Hip Joint on longer leg side
Excessive Pronation of the foot
Abnormal Ankle & Foot Mechanics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some examples of spontaneous fascial contractures?

A
Dupuytren disease (palmar fascia)
Plantar fibromatosis (plantar fascia)
Frozen shoulder (shoulder capsule)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does fascia contain that enables it to contract?

A

Myofibroblasts (similar to smooth muscle cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What types of fibers can be found in innervating fascia?

A
Primary afferent (sensory)
Peripheral sympathetic efferent (visceromotor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is fascia important to muscle function?

A

It allows it to function by creating a surface on which to glide, and also by coalescing with muscles to form tendons and entheses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What structures create a strong connection between tendon and bone?

A

Sharpey’s fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What can be found traveling within fascia?

A

Nerves, arteries, veins, lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a clinical correlate relating to psoas fascia?

A

Osteomyelitis of the lumbar spine can spread down this fascia under the inguinal ligament and present as swelling in the groin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the primary goal of STT?

A

RELAX hypertonic musculature
STRETCH shortened, fibrotic, and inelastic fascia

These will have a direct effect of improved ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the secondary effects of STT?
INCREASE circulation | IMPROVE tissue nutrition, oxygenation, and removal of metabolic wastes
26
What are the tertiary effects of STT?
STIMULATE stretch reflex in "hypotonic" muscles DECREASE abnormal somato-visceral and somato-somatic reflexes POTENTIATE other techniques
27
How does cervical direct myofascial release alter sympathovagal balance?
It shifts it from sympathetic to parasympathetic dominance
28
What is fascial creep?
Heat causes collagen to alter its structure; as this occurs, any pressure will cause it to stretch, or "creep."
29
What is soft tissue end-feel?
The sensation provided to palpating fingers near the end of the ROM for the tissue being evaluated
30
What is the end feel for hypertonic musculature?
Soft, but firm
31
What is the end feel for fascial restriction?
The end feel is more abrupt than it is for musculature
32
What are direct and indirect techniques?
Direct: moving toward restriction Indirect: moving away from restriction and toward ease of movement
33
What is the difference between STT and myofascial release?
STT is direct | MR can be direct or indirect
34
What are the contraindications for STT and DMRT?
There are NO absolute contraindications. But use caution and alter position or style if needed
35
What specific conditions may warrant alteration of STT/DMRT techniques?
Ankle sprain or strain Osteoporosis Breast implants
36
What style of technique should be used for ankle sprain/strain?
Indirect
37
How should techniques be altered for osteoporosis?
For osteoporosis in the thoracocostal region: Prone pressure techniques are contraindicated. Switch to lateral recumbent techniques.
38
What style of technique should be used for acute injuries? Chronic injuries? Acute excaerbation of chronic injuries?
Acute is a buzzword: use indirect. | For chronic, use direct.
39
What are the differences in pressure for STT vs. MR?
STT: intermittent, repetitive, rhythmic MR: sustained
40
What anomalies can occur in any region of the spine?
``` Block vertebrae Other failure of segmentation anomalies Hemi vertebrae Spina bifida occulta Hemangioma vertebra ```
41
At what age is surgical reconfiguration of the spine for anterior vertebral agenesis no longer an option?
>25
42
How does a block vertebra form? Do these patients have a ROM restriction?
Failure of segmentation. No ROM restriction, the body adapts to the abnormality.
43
What is typical treatment for a hemivertebra?
Surgical excision during early childhood; OMT
44
Why are hemangioma vertebrae usually incidental findings? What can they be treated with?
They are rarely symptomatic. | If symptomatic, treat with radiation therapy
45
What is the characteristic appearance of hemangioma vertebra?
Striation
46
Which vertebra is subject to a greater number of anomalies than any other bone?
L5
47
What other anomaly is generally associated with lumbar anomalies?
Skin anomalies. Common ones are hairy nevus (Faun's beard), pigmented nevus, lipomatous mass, dermal sinus.
48
What are examples of lumbar anomalies?
``` Facet tropism Transitional lumbosacral segment Spina bifida Low intercrestal line Diastematomyelia ```
49
What is facet tropism?
Facet joint has turned away from its normal anatomic position
50
What is the most common anomaly in the lumbar region?
Zygapophyseal tropism
51
What is the most common facet tropism?
One or both facet joints at L5/S1 turn toward coronal plane
52
What is occult spina bifida?
"Hidden" spina bifida. If the spinous process is not there for the supraspinous lilgament to attach to, then the ligament itself may be congenitally absent at that segment.
53
What is diastematomyelia?
Cleft spinal cord - cord is split in two by a mass of fibrous tissue or bone attached to the vertebral body anteriorly and to the lamina or dura posteriorly
54
What is the most common location of diastematomyelia?
Lumbar spine, but has been reported as high as T3
55
What are the symptoms of diastematomyelia?
Progressive neurologic deficits in the LEs | Child fails to walk normally, or starts normally and then develops a gait disturbance
56
What are the physical findings of diastematomyelia?
Congenital deformities of one or both lower extremities Muscle weakness, atrophy, or even paralysis of the thigh/calf muscles Urinary incontinence / poor bowel control Skin ulcerations on the feet STRONG INDICATOR: CLUB FOOT
57
What is the treatment for diastematomyelia?
Surgical repair
58
What are some examples of cervical anomalies?
``` Swan neck deformity Transitional cranio-cervical segment Cervical ribs Klippel-Feil syndrome Syringomyelia Torticollis ```
59
What are associated symptoms of cervical ribs?
There are none. Symptoms are usually a result of postural abnormalities associated with cervical ribs, such as acquired kyphosis.
60
What type of treatment is best avoided with cervical ribs?
Direct HVLA
61
Klippel-Feil syndrome
Multiple cervical vertebral anomalies (fusions) lead to pterygium colli (webbed neck) with low hairline, very limited ROM, hemivertebrae common
62
What commonly accompanies Klippel-Feil?
Sprengel Deformity -- high riding scapula | Fused ribs and other thoracic anomalies
63
What is the telltale sign of a transitional lumbosacral segment?
Batwing/butterfly vertebra
64
Thoracic outlet syndrome is a cause for concern with what type of congenital anomaly?
Cervical ribs
65
What syndrome is associated with numerous vertebral anomalies, which are often the "tip of the iceberg"?
Klippel-Feil
66
Hypoplasia or absence of the dens can occur in what condition?
Achondroplasia
67
Which somatic dysfunctions can cause increased lordosis?
``` Cervical extended segments Thoracic flexed segments Lumbar extended segments Anterior inominate rotation Sacral flexed dysfunctions: --Bilaterally flexed --Unilaterally flexed --Anterior sacral torsion ```
68
Lateral mid-gravity line
Should be straight between L3 and sacral promontory
69
Fergusen's angle
Normal: 30-40 degrees
70
Mitchell's angle
125 to 145 degrees
71
Cobb angle
aka lumbosacral lordotic angle From superior endplate of S-1 to superior endplate of L-2 Normal = 40 to 60 degrees From superior endplate of L2 to the inferior endplate of L5 Normal = 35 to 55 degrees
72
What is lordosis?
An abnormal extension deformity of the spine
73
Colloquial names for increased lumbar lordosis
Hollow back Sway back Saddle back
74
What is Baastrup syndrome?
Kissing spines. Approximation of spinous processes caused by increased vertebral lordosis
75
Rickets
Vitamin D deficiency causing deformity of the lumbar vertebrae
76
Somatic dysfunctions that can decrease lumbar lordosis
``` Cervical Flexed Segments Thoracic Extended Segments Lumbar Flexed Segments Posterior Innominate Rotation Sacral Extended Dysfunctions: Bilaterally Extended Sacrum Unilaterally Extended Sacrum Posterior Sacral Torsion ```
77
Etiologies of decreased lumbar lordosis
``` Lumbar Sprain & Strain Acute Lumbar Disc Herniation Lumbar Spondylosis Osteoarthritis of the spine Ankylosing Spondylitis Psoas Contracture ```