E2 EPME Flashcards
(325 cards)
1
Q
Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?
A
ETQC
2
Q
Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?
A
ESO Designation Memos
ESO Reference Guides and Links
Administering a Qualification Exam/Deck Watch Officer
Updating Degrees in DA and Iperms
Joint Services Transcript
Armed Forces Classification Testing
Defense Language Proficiency
Federal Aviation Admin
Aviation Selection Test Battery
3
Q
Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?
A
COAST GUARD VOLUNTARY CREDENTIALING PROGRAM (VCP), COMDTINST 1540.10
4
Q
Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?
A
ETQC-SMB-TAG@USCG.MIL
5
Q
Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT Waiver Request Guide be found?
A
Course Support and Testing on ETQC Website
6
Q
The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as ____ ?
A
Forever GI Bill
7
Q
Under the Post-9/11 GI Bill, a Veteran enrolled at more than one-half time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DoD’s Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) rate for an _____ with dependents.
A
E5
8
Q
The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to _____ months of education benefits.
A
36
9
Q
The GI Bill Comparison Tool offers information based on which of the following GI Bill benefits?
A
Post 9/11 FRY Scholarship Select Reserve GI Bill Veteran Readiness and Employment Survivor and Dependents Educational Assistance
10
Q
In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized for?
A
TA is authorized for courses leading to a first and or second academic certificate, a first and or second associate degree, and a first and or second bachelor’s degree, and a first master’s degree. TA will fund associates to master’s degree bridge programs.
11
Q
One purpose of the _____ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.
A
Advanced Education
12
Q
Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the Advanced Education program?
A
a. Apply to Advanced Education PM approved educational institution(s); b. Gain acceptance to the educational institution and the specific degree program; c. Complete necessary prerequisites and route documents to ensure adequate processing for enrollment, tuition payment, and PCS; d. Act as Coast Guard liaison between the Coast Guard and the institution regarding their attendance, including the educational institution’s Military Advocate, the Bursar’s Office, and third party payments office; e. Maintain Coast Guard military requirements and standards by complying with all COMDTINSTs while in DUINS, to include urinalysis, Physical Health Assessment (PHA), dental, and weigh-ins; f. Monitor and comply with fiscal requirements; g. Report all scholarships to the SM for guidance and adhere to the policy in this chapter paragraph E.7; h. Carry a fulltime credit hour load, year-round, at the respective educational institution, in accordance with table 12.3; i. Maintain academic proficiency throughout the program, in accordance with F4; j. Complete program of study’s requirements in the allotted time; and k. Follow-up with the attended University and FINCEN prior to graduation to ensure all financial matters have been reconciled.
13
Q
Who acts as subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?
A
ESO
14
Q
Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
A
- Treat all firearms as if they are loaded. The firearm handler must always know the condition of his/her firearm(s). This rule is intended to prevent unintentional injury or damage due to careless handling of weapons or perceived low risk. Treat every weapon with the respect due to a loaded weapon.
- Always maintain proper muzzle control. The firearm handler must be fully aware of his/her muzzle position and what they are pointing at. This rule is to reinforce the importance of muzzle control and muzzle awareness. When at the range, the safe direction is down range; in the line of duty, the safe direction that does not cross the path of another person or vessel. ALWAYS handle a weapon so that you control the direction of the muzzle, even if you stumble.
- Keep finger off the trigger until on target and ready to shoot. The firearm handler keeps his/her trigger finger indexed along the frame or receiver until the command/decision has been given/made to shoot. This rule is intended to minimize accidental discharge due to an individual being startled, bracing in a fall, or experiencing a rush of adrenalin.
- Know your target and what is beyond it. The firearm handler must positively identify his/her target and target environment. This rule is intended to reinforce positive target identification and situational awareness prior to engaging a target with deadly force. Being aware of the target and what is beyond the target is to take into consideration the risk to potential bystanders that may be affected by your weapons fire.
15
Q
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?
A
TIS/COMMAND ENDORSEMENT
16
Q
Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?
A
Graduating A School?
17
Q
The _____ and ASVAB tests are different version of the same battery of tests.
A
Pending Internet Computerized Adaptive Test (PiCat)
18
Q
Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an “UNSAT” conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?
A
Are required to complete six months of good conduct prior to being advanced to E-4 or E-5. A Commanding Officer’s approval on a Career Development Worksheet, Form CG-2030, satisfies the recommendation requirement and an unscheduled EER is not required. Commanding Officers are not required to wait for the next semi-annual EER before approving the Career Development Worksheet, Form CG-
19
Q
Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?
A
Diver and Investigator
20
Q
Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?
A
ALCOAST Message
21
Q
Where are “A” school rating requirements listed?
A
ALCOAST MESSAGES BY THE RATING TRAINING ADVISORY COUNCIL (RTAC)
22
Q
Which stress management term is defined as “bad” stress?
A
Distress
23
Q
“Good” stress is related to which stress management term?
A
Eustress
24
Q
Which term is defined as “the non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor”?
A
Stress
25
What are stressors?
The causes of stress (transfers, deadlines, etc.)
26
What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person's personal stress load?
Stressmap
27
Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as:
The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor (anxiety, frustration, depression, etc.)
28
The services provided by the _____ are available for professional assistance with Stress Management.
Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)
29
Which Stress Management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of sailors, families, and commands?
Operational Stress Control
30
How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?
CG SUPRT (Employee Assistance Program)
1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) || Web (for EAP): www.CGSUPRT.com
31
Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?
* Active-Duty members and their dependents
* Reservists
* Civilian Employees of the Coast Guard
32
Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
1. Emotional Responses during a traumatic event may include, but are not limited to, shock, fear, hopelessness, helplessness, grief, depression, panic, horror, anxiety, irritability, guilt, denial, loneliness, emptiness, intense anger, feeling overwhelmed or as if “in a fog,’ and/or a general loss of emotional control.
2. Cognitive Responses to traumatic exposure, often reflected in impaired concentration, confusion, disorientation, difficulty in making a decision, a short attention span, suggestibility, vulnerability, forgetfulness, self-blame, blaming others, lowered self-efficacy, thoughts of losing control, hypervigilance, and constant repetitious thoughts of the traumatic event. For example, a survivor of an automobile accident, may cognitively still “be in” the automobile replaying/reliving the accident repeatedly in their mind.
3. Behavioral Responses in the face of a traumatic event may include withdrawal, “spacingout,” non-communication, changes in speech patterns, regressive behaviors, erratic movements, impulsivity, a reluctance to abandon property, seemingly aimless walking, pacing, an inability to sit still, an exaggerated startle response, and antisocial behaviors.
4. Physiological Responses may include rapid heartbeat, elevated blood pressure, difficulty breathing, shock symptoms, chest pains, cardiac palpitations, muscle tension and pains, fatigue, fainting, flushed face, pale appearance, chills, cold clammy skin, increased sweating, thirst, dizziness, vertigo, hyperventilation, headaches, grinding of teeth, twitches, and gastrointestinal upset.
5. Spiritual Distress Responses may include anger at God or other deity, withdrawal from faith-based community, and a “crisis of faith.”
33
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
* Keep a journal.
* Download an app that provides relaxation exercises (such as deep breathing or visualization) or tips for practicing mindfulness, which is a psychological process of actively paying attention to the present moment.
* Exercise, and make sure you are eating healthy, regular meals.
* Stick to a sleep routine, and make sure you are getting enough sleep.
* Avoid drinking excess caffeine such as soft drinks or coffee.
* Identify and challenge your negative and unhelpful thoughts.
* Reach out to your friends or family members who help you cope in a positive way.
34
Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
1. Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues. Help each member and command understand how to approach and handle substance misuse, abuse, and chemical dependence, which are referred to as SUDs.
2. Encourage, Teach, and Support Low-Risk Guidelines for Alcohol Use.
3. Provide Periodic Prevention Training. Provide members, cadets, recruits, and commands with prevention training, early problem identification skills, and resources for screening and treatment.
4. Support Commands. Assist commands by providing the tools and procedures to address irresponsible alcohol use.
5. Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse. Support zero tolerance for the intentional and wrongful use of illegal drugs and the wrongful misuse of prescription medication. This also pertains to the wrongful use of any non-controlled substance used with the intent to induce intoxication, excitement, or impairment of the central nervous system. This will also pertain to “substances” used for the purposes of obtaining a “high,” which includes but is not limited to, herbals, gases, aerosols, and manufactured or yet-to-be manufactured designer drugs, such as, spice, bath salts, etc.
6. Support Mission Readiness. Ensure that members are aware of how SUDs interfere with CG mission readiness and a safe work environment.
7. Align with Other Policy. Administrative concerns are directed to Reference (a)
35
The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that "zero" drinks is the low-risk option when _____.
pregnant, driving, operating machinery, or taking certain medications
36
Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
* ZERO – Sometimes, zero drinks is the only low-risk option. Use this guideline when you are driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, on duty, or on certain medications
* ONE - consume no more than one standard * drink per hour
* TWO - consume no more than two standard * drinks per occasion
* THREE - never exceed three standard drinks per occasion.
37
Where can you find additional clarification on low risk drinking guidelines?
National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) website
38
What is one responsibility of a Command Drug and Alcohol Representative (CDAR)?
a. Contact the SAPS within 24 hours of Commanding Officer notification of a potential substance-related issue;
b. Collaborate with the SAPS to provide administrative support to the command regarding prevention strategies and treatment options;
c. Collaborate with the SAPS to prepare the appropriate Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307;
d. Schedule and document required unit substance abuse prevention training, as needed, and in accordance with directions provided by SAPS;
e. Prepare and prominently display prevention awareness materials;
f. Collaborate with the SAPS to initiate substance abuse screenings, referrals, treatment, aftercare, and support plans. NOTE: Never diagnose or infer a diagnosis; failure to comply will result in removal from position and may lead to further administrative action;
g. Ensure that all documentation is complete before arranging treatment or training via the SAPS;
h. Keep the command informed of the status of members undergoing treatment, including expected date of completion and/or return, prognosis, and personal needs (e.g., pay, orders, etc.);
i. Collaborate with the SAPS to develop support and aftercare plans;
j. Monitor mandatory pre-treatment and aftercare plans with the Commanding Officerk.
k. Provide updates to the SAPS for all members who are:
(1) Assigned an aftercare plan; and
(2) Transferred or separated from service while in aftercare
l. Provide copies of all documentation to the receiving command when members on an aftercare plan are transferring;
m. Complete annual HIPAA training related to substance abuse patient records;
n. Provide Substance Abuse Prevention Training minimally one time per year, especially during “Alcohol Awareness Month;” and
o. Enact and annually review with the unit “Seven Steps to an Effective Command Prevention Program.”
39
What is Substance Abuse Prime for Life training used for?
* These evidence-based programs have shown to be clinically valuable in reducing high-risk choices and high-risk drinking. An on-line version of PFL or myPRIME is available when face-to-face classroom instruction is not accessible or feasible.
* The MO will prescribe PFL or myPRIME for personnel who do not require formal outpatient or inpatient treatment. The member is to arrange to attend a PFL class or obtain an entry code for myPRIME. If prescribed myPRIME, the member must obtain a myPRIME code within seven days of completing their medical visit.
* Members have 30 days to complete PFL or myPRIME if assigned to a land unit and 60 days if assigned to an afloat unit.
* The SAP will give the member one “reminder notice” if they do not complete the program after their scheduled medical visit (screening). The SAP will allow an additional 30 days to complete the educational program if needed. If the member does not complete the program within 30 days, the SAP will notify and inform the member’s command about the non-compliance. SAPs will then instruct the command to complete an Administrative Remarks, Form 3307, stating that the member “Failed to Comply with Substance Abuse Education Intervention” assigned by their MO
40
What is the definition of substance abuse?
Use of alcohol, prescription drugs, illicit drugs, over the counter compounds or any substance that is used to change mood or induce a “high” that causes cognitive, behavioral or physiological impairment problems.
41
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), as an individual's BAC increases, the risk of _____ increases.
injury, impaired judgement, accidents, and alcohol-related health problems
42
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), drinking too much over time can raise your risk for _____, cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses.
heart disease
43
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than _____ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.
178,000
44
Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is _____.
a risk factor for alcohol problems
45
What is considered binge drinking for men?
Five or more drinks
46
What is considered binge drinking for women?
Four or more drinks
47
Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?
0.08%
48
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?
0.08%
49
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being "sloppy" drunk?
0.16%
50
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?
0.30%
51
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?
0.40%
52
A sign of alcohol poisoning is:
* Passes out and cannot be awakened
* Vomiting while passed out
* Has cold, clammy, and/or pale skin
* Breathing is slow and irregular
53
Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience:
* Injuries: Alcohol-related injuries include motor vehicle crashes, falls, burns, and drownings
* Sexual assault: Underage drinking increases the risk of being the victim or perpetrator of sexual assault
* Alcohol overdose: Alcohol overdose is a consequence of underage drinking
* Alcohol use disorder: Underage drinking increases the risk of developing alcohol use disorder later in life
* Brain and mental health: Alcohol can interfere with normal brain development, which can lead to cognitive or learning problems
* Social, academic, and legal issues: Underage drinking can lead to problems in school or with the law
* Substance use: Underage drinking is associated with the use of other substances
* Suicide: Underage drinking is associated with suicidal ideation
* Mortality: Underage drinking is associated with mortality
54
Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?
Studies show that women start to have alcohol-related problems sooner and at lower drinking amounts than men and for multiple reasons.3 On average, women weigh less than men. Also, alcohol resides predominantly in body water, and pound for pound, women have less water in their bodies than men. This means that after a woman and a man of the same weight drink the same amount of alcohol, the woman’s blood alcohol concentration (the amount of alcohol in the blood) will tend to be higher, putting her at greater risk for harm. For example, research suggests that women are more likely than men to experience hangovers and alcohol-induced blackouts at comparable doses of alcohol.5,6 Other biological differences may contribute as well.
55
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
1.5 OUNCES
56
How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
5 OUNCES
57
How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
12 FLUID OUNCES
58
Across the United States, a recorded Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) test of _____ or higher alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.
0.08%
59
A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential _____ upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral.
Alcohol Use Disorder (AUD)
60
A member diagnosed within the first _____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.
180
61
Which of the following is required for self-referral for potential substance abuse?
(1) A request must be made to a Chaplain, Command, CDAR, SAPS, or health care provider.
(2) There can be no credible evidence of involvement in an alcohol/drug incident.
(3) Members may self-refer for drug abuse; however, self-referral may result in a drug incident determination and administrative actions in accordance with Reference (a).
(4) A self-referral for alcohol related issues is not to be punitive.
(5) A self-referral resulting in a diagnosis (e.g., current version of DSM of Mental Disorders) will result in administrative action if treatment is required and the member refuses, fails, or does not complete it. The member's refusal, failure, or incomplete treatment requires a copy of the referral, screening, and treatment plan be maintained in the member’s health record. The health of the member takes priority over career and advancement.
(6) A reservist not in an IDT or ADT status may self-refer. However, a Readiness Management Plan (RMP,) or next scheduled IDT or ADT, whichever occurs sooner, will be used to complete the initial meeting that may be required by the command. An additional RMP is allowed for the initial health support screening if it cannot be completed during the initial meeting with the command
62
Which statement reflects Coast Guard policy on tobacco use and abuse?
The Coast Guard policy on tobacco use and abuse is to discourage all forms of tobacco use, prioritize the protection of non-smokers from secondhand smoke, and consider tobacco use in public areas as detrimental to a professional military appearance; essentially, the Coast Guard actively discourages tobacco use in all forms and prioritizes the health of non-smokers.
63
Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?
Taking a prescription drug without a valid prescription constitutes unauthorized use and can lead to drug abuse, unlike taking medications as directed by a healthcare provider. option a is correct.
64
Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?
(a) Intentional use of drugs;
(b) Wrongful possession of drugs;
(c) Trafficking (distribution, importing, exporting, or introduction into a military facility) of drugs;
(d) The intentional use of other substances, such as inhalants, glue, and cleaning agents, or over-the-counter (OTC), or prescription medications to obtain a "high," contrary to their intended use; or,
(e) A civil or military conviction for wrongful use, possession, or trafficking of drugs, unless rebutted by other evidence.
Note: The member need not be found guilty at court-martial, in a civilian court, or be awarded NJP for the conduct to be considered a drug incident.
65
Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample, and_____.
scientifically analyzing the samples to detect the presence of drugs
66
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
Suicide
67
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
Self-Harm
68
What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide Threat
69
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Suicide Attempt
70
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with no injury is reported as _____.
Level 1
71
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with injury is reported as _____.
Level 2
72
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm resulting in death is reported as _____.
Level 3
73
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as _____.
Level 2
74
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as _____.
Level 1
75
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide Related Ideations
76
What would be the cause to report a Self-Harm Level 3 in the Suicide Prevention Program?
Fatal
77
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Undetermined Suicide-Related Behavior
78
Dismissing _____ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
efforts
79
In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____ at some point in their lives.
episode of suicidal thinking
80
What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
Suicidal-Related Communications
81
What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior?
Suicide Plan
82
What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide Plan
83
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
ISPATHWARM
IDEATION Thoughts of suicide expressed, threatened, or written
SUBSTANCE USE Increased or excessive alcohol or drug use.
PURPOSELESSNESS Seeing no reason for living or having no sense of meaning or purpose of life.
ANXIETY Feeling anxious, agitated, frequent nightmares, or unable to sleep (or sleeping all the time).
TRAPPED Feeling trapped, like there is no way out.
HOPELESSNESS Feeling hopeless about self, others, the future.
WITHDRAWAL Withdrawing from family, friends, usual activities, society.
ANGER Feeling rage or uncontrolled anger, seeking revenge for perceived wrongs.
RECKLESSNESS Acting without regard for consequences, excessively risky behavior.
MOOD CHANGES Experiencing dramatic changes in mood. Unstable mood.
84
____ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.
Ask
85
What may be helpful to lead into the question "Are you thinking about killing yourself?"
It may be helpful to lead into this question with a statement of your observations
86
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE
Ask
Care
Escort
87
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
Ask
88
During the _____ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
Care
89
During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
Care
90
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
Care
91
In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
Care
92
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Care
93
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Care
94
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?
Escort
95
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?
Escort
96
If you ask a person "Are you thinking about killing yourself?" and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
Ask the question again
97
If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?
(a) How? - Does he/she have a plan? Is the plan specific? Does he/she possess the means (pills, gun, etc.)? Are the means lethal? If there is a plan, does the person express or imply an intention to actually go through with it?
(b) Situation? - Is he/she alone (if communication is by phone or e-mail)? Have they been drinking?
(c) History? - Prior attempts? Hospitalizations? Any family history of suicidal behaviors?
98
Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Contact your Regional Work-Life Office for specific contact information
99
Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans?
All Active duty and SELRES
100
Who do you submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?
Supervisor
101
When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?
April - October
102
The most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved by _____.
Member and Supervisor
103
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?
150 minutes or 2 hours and 30 minutes
104
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?
Two or more days per week
105
All active-duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____ per week.
180 minutes
106
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.
150
107
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of strength training.
30
108
Because the effects of physical activity are cumulative, exercise sessions may vary in length, with a minimum of _____ minutes, in order to be beneficial.
10
109
In general, physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?
3 days per week
110
Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a _____ level of intensity.
medium to vigorous
111
According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?
Moderate-Intensity
112
What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?
CG-6049
113
Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve _____.
Risk
114
What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps if not managed?
Communications, assertiveness, leadership, mission analysis, situational awareness, adaptability, decision making.
115
Deliberate use of the Risk Management process _____ by reducing member exposure to hazards.
Increase mission success
116
The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the _____.
The expected risk exposure
117
What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?
The Risk Management Process
118
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?
GAR 2.0
119
When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?
When hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate.
120
Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is _____.
Continuous and adaptive
121
Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?
Risk management fundamentals
122
What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as-needed-basis, when new missions/activities are introduced to the unit?
Risk Assessment Matrix
123
What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?
Crew endurance
124
Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _____.
Address unique operational realities
125
Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?
STAAR
Spread out
Transfer
Avoid
Accept
Reduce
126
_____ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.
Risk
127
_____ is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity.
Risk management
128
How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
3
129
Which is an action taken during the first step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
Action 1 – mission/task analysis
Action 2 – what can go wrong analysis
Action 3 – why analysis/list cause
130
What are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?
PEACE/STAAR analysis
131
What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?
PEACE
Planning
Event Complexity
Asset
Communications
Environment
132
What model outlines potential strategies to mitigate and/or control risk?
STAAR
Spread out
Transfer
Avoid
Accept
Reduce
133
Which models, when used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the chain of command, assist in decision making, and encourage robust risk management?
PEACE and STAAR
134
Which models can also be applied to activities outside the workplace that are often spontaneous and dynamic?
PEACE and STAAR
135
What shall all units use to conduct a real-time risk assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personnel to hazards?
GAR 2.0
136
Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?
Unit Commander, Commanding Officer, or Officer-in-Charge
137
When are CG-owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses and dependents?
From the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity.
138
Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?
Official Purposes, Ceremonies, Non-CG Employees in Official Capacity, Official Travel, Military Recruits, Spouse and Dependents with Member while member is participating in official capacity
139
Only Government employees that possess a __Current and unrestricted ___ state, territorial, or District of Columbia driver license are permitted to operate a motor vehicle.
Current and unrestricted
140
To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, commands must identify hazards and reduce risks when assigning long-distance driving duties to personnel who have been on-duty within the previous _____ hours.
8
141
To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, members must not exceed _____ hours of combined duty-hours and driving hours.
14
142
Which form is used to report accidents involving a government motor vehicle?
Motor Vehicle Accident Report, Form SF91
143
Personnel convicted of a serious moving violation while operating a GMV, must _____.
Complete a Driver Improvement Course
144
What term is defined as the process (or steps) involved in managing one's personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments, for an individual or family?
Personal Financial Management
145
The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances?
Personal Financial Readiness
146
What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individual's or family's income and expenditures and recommending short and long-term actions to achieve financial goals and ensure individual, family and mission readiness?
Financial Planning and Counseling
147
The Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) consists of how many elements?
3
148
Which of the following is an element of the Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)?
Education and Training, Counseling, Information and Referral
149
Commands with at least _____ personnel assigned, must have a trained Command Financial Specialist (CFS).
25
150
What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the Thrift Saving Plan?
10%
151
The compliance tab in CGBI is broken down into _____ categories, based on level of compliance.
3
152
What will you need to do if your preferred email address is not listed as an option when signing up for email notifications in CGBI?
Contact CGBI support to verify if your email address is eligible for notifications and to request that it be added to the system; they may need to manually add your address depending on their setup.
153
If your personal readiness data in CGBI need corrections, select the ____ icon in the top-right corner of the "Skills" Tab.
GET MORE INFORMATION
154
What is a purpose of the EES?
* To set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of all enlisted members.
* To inform enlisted members of the performance standards they will be measured against.
* To provide a means by which enlisted members can receive feedback on how well they are measuring up to the standards.
* To capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance so the Coast Guard may advance and assign members with a high degree of confidence.
* To provide the Coast Guard with a tool to support a wide variety of human resource decisions including discharges, reenlistments, conduct determination, advancement eligibility, assignments and reductions in rate.
* To provide members’ of boards and panels with the necessary information to make selections and decisions based on enlisted members observed performance and potential.
155
Which of the functions is the evaluee's responsibility within the EES?
* Familiarization. Must become thoroughly familiar with the Instructions, Competencies, and standards of the EES and understand the rating chain expectations.
* Performance. Obtain sufficient feedback or counseling and using that information in adjusting, as necessary, to meet or exceed the standards.
* Evaluation Input. Provide a list of significant accomplishments, if required by the rating chain, to the rating chain no later than 14 days prior to the end of the marking period.
* Acknowledgment. Sign the member’s signature block of the counseling sheet and retain this form as a receipt to indicate acknowledgement of;
1. The counseling and review of their evaluations report
2. The impact of their evaluation report on the Good Conduct eligibility
3. The Appeal time frame; and
4. Their advancement potential and recommendation.
* Verification. Verifying through Direct Access self-service that their EER was properly recorded.
156
The _____ comprised of designated members who execute the enlisted evaluation report process for enlisted members.
rating chain
157
Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?
Quality of Work, Technical Proficiency, and Initiative
158
A new period of eligibility for the Good Conduct award begins _____.
the day after the effective date of the EER in which an unsatisfactory conduct mark was awarded. If confinement is imposed by NJP or CM and the member is confined, the good conduct eligibility period starts on the date of release, regardless if on probation. If no confinement is included in the punishment or sentence, the good conduct eligibility period starts the day following conviction or awarding of NJP.
159
The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report _____.
may not be appealed to an appeal authority
160
Who is normally the appeal authority for an EER?
Normally, the first flag officer in the evaluee’s chain of command.
161
What is the definition given in the Recruit Training Master Pamphlet for effective communication?
An effective communicator is successful in establishing an active two-way link with another individual or group.
162
What are the common barriers to effective communication?
* Physical / Distance
* Ambient Noise
* Distracting Movement
* Language (dialect, accent)
* Past experience - can lead to assuming intentions or behaviors of individuals.
* Stereotypes - making large sweeping generalizations with different groups of people.
* Emotional blocking - fear or worry can cloud the thought process.
* Social status - people treat each other based on economic conditions.
163
What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?
* Parroting - repeat back the same words you heard.
* Paraphrasing - the idea in words you can understand. This allows the sender to confirm the idea they sent.
* Clarifying - ask open-ended questions.
164
What is one type of listening for effective communication?
* Inactive - This is the kind of listening you want to avoid. It is inefficient and unproductive. “In one ear and out the other.”
* Selective - This kind of listening is probably the most common. It’s when you hear what you want to hear.
* Active - Listening is a conscious effort to listen for the complete message.
* Reflective - Listening to the whole message and reflecting back on what was said. Reflective is used to clarify what is being said.
165
What is a reason for feedback in effective communication?
* Achieve personal growth. Anytime someone tells you something in a constructive manner, you should consider it a gift and say thank you.
* Receiver gains insight into something they may not have observed about themselves.
* Feedback creates an open environment by allowing for the sharing of ideas and information.
* It helps you prepare for the future by not dwelling on the past.
166
For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for giving feedback?
* Be specific and to the point. Express exactly what happened.
* Focus on behavior of the person and not on the person.
* Direct feedback toward changeable behavior only.
* Feedback must be solicited. When someone asks for help, that person is open to feedback.
* Feedback must be timely. Do not wait to give it.
* Check for understanding. Use active listening skills.
167
For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for receiving feedback?
* Try to be open minded and receptive. Don’t be defensive.
* Ask for relevant examples that they have seen.
* Summarize to ensure understanding of the feedback.
* Say “Thank you.” Remember, feedback is a gift and you should treat it that way.
168
What is the Coast Guard's definition of leadership?
A leader is one who influences and inspires others toward a goal.
169
The Coast Guard Leadership Development Framework consists of _____ categories of leadership competencies.
5
170
How do you access and view your pay slip?
Member Self Service/ AD/RSV Payslips
171
What dependent information in the pay slip is important for eligibility to receive benefits?
Date of birth
172
Which block of the pay slip contains a member's basic pay?
Earnings
173
What information can be found in the tax data section of they pay slip?
Marital Status and Allowances (Tax options)
174
In which section of your pay slip can you validate whether or not you are receiving the correct pay and/or allowances?
Middle Section (Earnings, Taxes, Deductions, and Allotments)
175
Which information can be found in the bottom section of the pay slip?
All current and year to date (YTD) wages and taxes are shown that appear on a W2. A summary of leave is also shown, and the Net Pay Distribution section shows Direct Deposit info and the amount that was actually deposited into your account.
176
What information is found in the Net Pay Distribution block of the pay slip?
Shows Direct Deposit info and the amount that was actually deposited into your account.
177
Which section of the pay slip will show information unique to each member?
Remarks
178
Onboard ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?
The CO, Officers senior to the CO, visiting officers and officers making inspection.
179
You must render salutes to which of the following?
Officers of the Armed Forces, National oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Public Health Services and Foreign Armed Services.
180
If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem, the driver shall _____.
stop
181
When are salutes rendered by persons in motor vehicles?
When passing or being passed by the National Ensign being carried, uncased, in military formation.
182
When in uniform at a parade, if the flag passes you, you shall _____.
salute
183
While in civilian attire at a parade, when the flag passes you shall __ ___.
place your hand on your heart
184
The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has _____ articles.
6
185
All members of the Armed Forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied in the Code of Conduct __ ___.
while in combat or in captivity. To ensure achievement of these standards, members of the armed forces liable to capture shall be provided with specific training and instruction designed to better equip them to counter and withstand all enemy efforts against them, and shall be fully instructed as to the behavior and obligations expected of them during combat or captivity
186
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
Participate in partisan political fundraising activity without respect to the uniform, use official authority influence to interfere with an election, allow or cause to be published partisan political literature that solicits votes, serve in any official capacity with or be listed as a sponsor of a partisan political club, speak before a partisan political gathering, conduct a political opinion survey under the auspices of a partisan political club and others
187
Which of the following would be an authorized political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
Register, vote, and express a personal opinion on political candidates and not issues, but not as a representative of the Armed Forces, Promote and encourage others to exercise their voting franchise, Join a partisan or nonpartisan political club and attend its meetings when not in uniform-Serve as an election official, if such service is not as a representative of the partisan political party, and does not interfere with the performance of military duties. (cannot be in uniform)
188
The National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) consists of how many types of advisories?
2
189
Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
Bravo
190
Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
Bravo
191
Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?
FPCON Normal
192
Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?
FPCON Alpha
193
Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?
FPCON Charlie
194
Which Type I PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?
Sterns Model I600 Type I
195
Boat characteristics include which two types of frames?
Transverse and Longitudinal
196
Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?
1/4 inch
197
Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?
Neatly Groomed
198
Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosed with Pseudo Folliculitis Barbae (PFB)?
CO's and OIC's
199
Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosed with Pseudo Folliculitis Barbae (PFB)?
August 4th, 1790
200
The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.
10
201
In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?
Steamboat Inspection Service within the Treasury Dept
202
The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _____ when the Revenue Cutter Gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.
1831
203
The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?
January 25th, 1915
204
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?
April 1st, 1967
205
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?
March 1st, 2003
206
Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first _____.
Secretary of Treasury
207
Who was the Coast Guard's first aviator?
Elmer Stone
208
Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?
Ellsworth Price Bertholf
209
On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____.
United States Revenue Cutter Service
210
Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of Marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?
Douglas A. Munro
211
Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?
Guadalcanal
212
SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at Point Cruz, ____?
Guadalcanal
213
What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?
Harriet Lane
214
The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____ during World War I.
German U-boat
215
An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish _____ duties for the United States Coast Guard.
Coast Guard Captain of the Ports
216
Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?
World War 1
217
During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
6
218
During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?
Captain Quentin R. Walsh
219
Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day?
Captain Quentin R. Walsh
220
During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.
Operation Market Time
221
During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?
26
222
Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?
Persian Gulf
223
The United States Coast Guard were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on _____.
September 11, 2001
224
In which year did the United States Coast Guard conduct the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina?
2005
225
The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest Homeland Security operation since World War II, following _____.
September 11, 2001
226
In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for _____ days.
87
227
DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
Bronze Star with Combat “V” and the Purple Heart
228
Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?
Damage Controlman Third Class (DC3) Nathan Bruckenthal
229
How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
26
230
The Coast Guard Ensign consists of _____ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.
16
231
The _____ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws.
Coast Guard Ensign
232
The __________ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.
Coast Guard Ensign
233
The __________ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.
Coast Guard Ensign
234
On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the __________.
Coast Guard Ensign
235
During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with _____.
battle streamers
236
The design of the _____ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.
CG Standard
237
The _____ is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.
CG Standard
238
This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.
CG Standard
239
What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?
Streamers
240
Battle streamers are attached to the _____, replacing cords and tassels.
CG Standard
241
Individual units may only display those _____ that they have earned.
streamers
242
Only _____ may display a complete set of battle streamers.
Major Head Quarter Commands
243
The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____.
US Marine Corp
244
The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____ battle streamers.
43
245
The _____ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port.
Union Jack
246
The _____ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.
Union Jack
247
The _____ is the canton of the United States Flag.
Union Jack
248
The presence of the _____ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.
commissioning pennant
249
The _____ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.
Coast Guard Seal
250
The _____ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.
Coast Guard Seal
251
The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in _____.
1957
252
The Coast Guard _____ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.
Emblem
253
The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.
Shield
254
The Coast Guard _____ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.
CG Stripe
255
The Coast Guard _____ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.
CG Stripe
256
Semper Paratus is the Latin word meaning: _____.
always ready or ever ready
257
When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?
Oct 1896 – May 1897
258
The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of _____, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham.
New Orleans
259
What language did Semper Paratus originate from?
Latin
260
The music for Semper Paratus was written by _____.
Francis Sultus Van Boskerck
261
What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when workers are at risk of exposure to HAZMAT?
Safety Data Sheet
262
If the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?
Manufacturer
263
What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badge assignment standard tour length?
2 years
264
Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?
By O-6 or Higher
265
What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned?
Relocation Assistance Program
266
Who can provide you with community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned?
Transition/Relocation Managers (TRMs)
267
Transition/Relocation Managers may provide _____ with local resource information.
welcome packages
268
How should you contact your Transition/Relocation Manager?
Contact Regional Work-Life Staff
269
Your _____ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program.
Family Resource Specialist
270
Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program?
Family Resource Specialist
271
What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the Special Needs Program (SNP)?
DD Form 2792
272
What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?
Family Advocacy Specialist
273
One purpose of the Family Advocacy Program is to _____.
prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment
274
One purpose of the _____ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment.
The Family Advocacy Program
275
CGSUPRT is part of HSWL’s _____.
Office of Work-Life CG-111 Site
276
Members can call _____ 24 hours a day, 365 days a year, to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor.
CGSUPRT
277
The _____ has been designed to capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance, so the Coast Guard can advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence.
Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
278
The __________ has been designed to inform enlisted members of the performance standards against which they are measured.
Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
279
The __________ has been designed to provide a means by which each enlisted member can receive feedback on how well the member is measuring up to the standards.
Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
280
The _____ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility, and reductions in pay grade.
Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
281
The __________ has been designed to set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of each enlisted member.
Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
282
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-1 is the last day of which months?
January (all) and July (AD only)
283
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-2 is the last day of which months?
January (all) and July (AD only)
284
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-3 is the last day of which months?
February (all) and August (AD only)
285
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months?
March (all) and August (AD only)
286
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months?
April (all) and October (AD only)
287
When do you need to need to provide evaluation input for your EER?
Provide a list of significant accomplishments, if required by the rating chain, to the rating chain no later than 14 days prior to the end of the marking period.
288
What is done with the completed original EER counseling sheet?
The Evaluee retains the original counseling sheet as a receipt to indicate acknowledgement
289
Your signature on the member's signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgement of _____.
1. The counseling and review of their evaluation report
2. The impact of their evaluation report on their Good Conduct eligibility
3. The appeal time frame
4. Their advancement potential and recommendation.
290
The Marking Official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than ____ days after the evaluation report period ending date.
5
291
The _____ is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently through the period.
Rating Chain
292
What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?
Conduct
293
What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the Coast Guard evaluates its enlisted members called?
Competencies
294
How many major categories of performance are there in the EES?
1. Military
2. Performance
3. Professional Qualities
4. Leadership
295
Which factor type in the EER measures the member's ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions?
Military
296
Which factor type in the EER measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?
Leadership
297
Performance Standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of _____ in each competency.
2, 4 or 6
298
If a member receives an unsatisfactory conduct mark on their EER, it will negatively impact their _____.
Advancement, and Good Conduct Award Eligibility
299
Appeals to the approving official's decision on the advancement recommendation _____.
The Approving official’s decision on the advancement recommendations is final and may not be appealed
300
What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?
Ready, Not Ready, & not recommended
301
What must occur when a member does not receive an advancement recommendation?
The approving official must counsel the member on why this mark was assigned and on the steps necessary to earn a ready for advancement and prepare required comments.
302
The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following?
Incorrect information, prejudice, discrimination, or disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances.
303
What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?
The specific competencies in dispute and supporting information indicating why the marks should be reviewed. Supporting information must include specific examples of demonstrated performance that indicate how the member met or exceeded the written standards. The member attaches a copy of the signed evaluation report counseling sheet as the first enclosure and other enclosures pertinent to the assigned marks.
304
What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process?
Request an audience with the rating chain, if unresolved, submit a written appeal to the appeal authority via the CO.
305
As a result of an EER appeal, what actions may an approving official take?
Raise or leave marks unchanged but May not lower marks; if the member accepts the relief the approving official grants, the appeal need not be sent to the appeal authority.
306
What is the deadline for active-duty members to submit an appeal for their EER?
15 calendar days
307
What is the deadline for reservists to submit an appeal for their marks?
45 calendar days
308
What are EER forms CG-3788A-G used for?
These forms are optional and may be used by units with limited or no access to Direct Access to include cutters away from homeport operating for extended periods without shore side connectivity.
309
The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of _____.
hazing
310
Which directive requires a commanding officer to "prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel"?
Article 4.1.15 of the Coast guard regulations 1992, COMDTINST M5000.3
311
Which is true of hazing?
No service member may engage in hazing or consent to being hazed; its prevention is an all-hands responsibility.
312
Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of “inclusion" is defined as _____.
hazing
313
Which is true of hazing and bullying?
It erodes mission readiness and will not be tolerated, bullying happens 4 times more often than sexual harassment or racial discrimination, hazing and bullying can be conducted through the use of electronic devices or communications and by other means as well as in person, early reporting of perceived abuse allows command to quickly address and correct a problem before it has the opportunity to become more severe.
314
If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, ____.
may be held accountable as well
315
Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship?
o Two crewmembers going to an occasional movie dinner concert or other social event.
o Members jogging or participating in wellness or recreational activities together.
316
An interpersonal relationship in a professional work environment would be prohibited in what case?
They jeopardize the members impartiality, undermine the respect for authority in a members rank or position, result in embers improperly using the relationship for personal gain or favor, violate a punitive article of the UCMJ, or violate a lawful order regulations or policy regarding inappropriate and prohibited relationships, communications, conduct or contact established by competent military authority
317
Which of the following is an example of unacceptable conduct?
o Supervisors and subordinates gambling together
o Giving or receiving gifts, except gifts of nominal value on special occasions
o Changing duty rosters or work schedules to the benefit of one or more members in a relationship when other members of the command are not afforded the same consideration.
o When between instructors and entry level accessions program students or between recruiters, academy admissions officers, academy admission partners, or MEPS personnel, and prospective members.
Soliciting or providing personal information to or from a student or perspective member, including telephone numbers, social media profiles, email addresses or physical addresses fo other than official business
Using personal vehicles to transport students or perspective member for other than official business
Providing alcohol to a student or prospective member
Lending or borrowing money to/from a student or prospective member
Employing a student or a prospective member for personal service.
318
Which would be an acceptable romantic relationship?
* Members do not have a supervisor subordinate relationship
* Members are not assigned to the same shore unit with less than 60 people
* Members are not assigned to the same cutter
* The relationship is not between a chief petty officer (E-7/8/9) and junior enlisted personnel (E-4 and below)
* The relationship is not manifested in the work environment in a way which disrupts the effective conduct of daily business
319
Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days _____.
Former officer entry level accessions program instructors who transfer to a new unit have a continuing duty to abide by this prohibition in regards to those who were enrolled in officer accession training while the former instructor was assigned to the respective accessions program
320
Enlisted instructors at enlisted entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding _____ is prohibited.
365 days
321
Engaging in sexually intimate behavior in which of the following situations would be prohibited?
Aboard a coast guard vessel of a coast guard controlled workplace.
322
Which of the following would be a prohibited relationship?
* Engaging in sexually intimate behavior aboard and coast guard vessel or in any coast guard controlled work place.
* Romantic relationships outside of marriage between commissioned officers and enlisted personnel including Cadets OCS and ROCI candidates.
* Personal and romantic relationships between instructors at entry level accession programs and other training commands and students.
* Personal and romantic relationships between recruiters, academy admission officers, academy admission partners, or personnel assigned to a military entrance processing station and family members of students or prospective members.
* Romantic relationships between former recruiters who have transferred to a new unit and those perspective members who were engaged in the recruiting process.
323
A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point?
365 days have elapsed since their last contact with a recruiter
324
Which of the following is an example of prohibited use of government office equipment?
* Intentionally and knowingly view, download, store, display, transmit, or copy and materials that are sexually explicit or are predominantly sexually oriented.
* Intentionally creating copying or transmitting any materials or communications that may be considered hate incidents or discriminatory to fellow employees or to the public.
* Loading personal or unauthorized software onto a government computer or other government office equipment
* Making unauthorized configuration changes to a government computer system or other government office equipment
* Using government office equipment or service as a staging ground or platform to gain unauthorized access to other systems
* Deliberate introduction of viruses , worms, or other malicious software into the CG network or any other government network
* Intentionally and knowingly creating, copying or transmitting SPAM, PHISHING, chain letters, or any other unofficial mass mailing regardless of the subject matter
* Subscribing to, downloading (e.g. movies music or books) or streaming media (radio television, MP3, stock tickers, YouTube) or other automatic internet services from a CGWS unless specifically authorized for CG business
* Intentionally and knowingly acquiring, reproducing transmitting, distributing, or using and controlled information including computer software and /or data protected by copyright, trademark, privacy laws or other proprietary data or material with other intellectual property rights beyond fair use, without consent or authorization of the copyright holder, or export-controlled software
* Connecting personally owned IT equipment to the CG network at a CG office or facility without prior approval by Commandant (CG-65) or Commandant (CG-651). This includes visitors, citizens, or foreign nationals, contractors, vendors, and other government agencies or non-CG employees
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Which of the following is an example of inappropriate use of government office equipment?
* Employees using a government computer and internet connection to run a travel business, investment or consultant service
* Organizing charity event participation and soliciting volunteers for non-coast guard sanctioned activities
