E5 EPME Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?

A

$10.00

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2
Q

Where are deadlines for Personal Data Extract (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?

A

The message

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3
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), Time in Rating and Time in Service are computed up to what point?

A

Terminal Eligibility Date (TED)

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4
Q

On your Personal Data Extract, award points are earned up to what point?

A

SED or Service Wide Eligibility Date

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5
Q

Sea Time points on a Personal Data Extract (PDE) are calculated at what rate?

A

2 points per year or 0.166 points per month

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6
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE) you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first advancement on or after what date?

A

January 1st, 2010

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7
Q

What should you do if you find errors on your Personal Data Extract (PDE)?

A

If errors are found, note them on the printed copy of this form, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel.

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8
Q

What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume?

A

Click “Return to Previous Page.”

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9
Q

What is your next step once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for your eResume?

A

Click “Save to Job Basket.”

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10
Q

You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections?

A

Resubmit

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11
Q

What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Development Plan (IDP)?

A

CG-5357 (10-05)

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12
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is _____.

A

A development partnership between the individual and supervisors, A vehicle to address needs of the individual and the organization, A tool to identify developmental needs, A tool to facilitate a relationship between a mentor and a mentee, A broadly defined developmental plan, An ongoing process

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13
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is NOT _____.

A

A one-time activity
A performance appraisal
A contract for training
A guarantee of promotion
A fix for all relationships

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14
Q

A first term enlisted member’s Individual Development Plan (IDP) must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor within _____ days of reporting to the unit.

A

30

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15
Q

What does analysis of mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?

A

Lack of deliberate and systematic RM during preparation, planning, and execution of operations

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16
Q

What does the Risk Management (RM) process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?

A

Effective teamwork and communication

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17
Q

Which of the following is the foundation of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Hazard identification

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18
Q

In step 1 of the Risk Management (RM) process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed, what model can be used?

A

PEACE

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19
Q

In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, “Why” analysis is used in which action?

A

Action 3 - list causes

20
Q

How is risk defined within Risk Management (RM)?

A

The possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard

21
Q

Which of the following is a risk assessment pitfall?

A

Over optimism, misrepresentation, alarmism, indiscrimination, prejudice, inaccuracy, enumeration.

22
Q

Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Step 3 – develop controls and make risk decisions

23
Q

Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task, to another individual, unit or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using the _____ approach.

A

STAAR
Transfer

24
Q

The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

STAAR
Spread Out

25
What is the control option used for specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?
STAAR Avoid
26
Within the Risk Management (RM) process, which is a type of control that can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?
Engineering, physical, administrative, educational, operational
27
What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?
STAAR
28
In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member establish accountability?
Step 4 – implement controls
29
Which of the following is an action in step 4 of the Risk Management (RM) process?
* Make implementation clear * Establish accountability * Provide support
30
Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall Risk Management (RM) process?
Step 5 – supervise and evaluate/review
31
How many actions are there in the last step of the Risk Management (RM) process?
Step 2 – monitor and evaluate
32
In step 5 of the Risk Management (RM) process, ensure changes requiring further RM are identified, is part of which action?
Action 1 - monitor
33
In the Risk Management (RM) process, what action follows an evaluation?
Feedback
34
What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
Define conflict
35
What is the third stage of conflict?
Identify stages of conflict
36
What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict?
Increasingly aggressive
37
What is the first stage of conflict escalation?
Stage 1 - disagreement
38
Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive?
Stage 3 - escalation
39
Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?
De-escalation
40
The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is __ ___.
collaborating
41
In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires.
Competing
42
In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.
Accommodating
43
In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want.
Compromising
44
What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?
Facilitate a resolution
45