EAE, Milk Fever, Nairobi, Ketosis Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

Main source of infection of Chlamydophilal abortion

A

Viral shedding during lambing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which bacteria is the most common infectious cause of Enzootic abortion of Ewes in UK?

A

Chlamydophila abortus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Infectious secretions of EAE

A

Placental, fetal, and uterine fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Gestation period of sheep

A

143 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the placentation of sheep

A

Cotyledonary, non-deciduate, and epitheliochorial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Enzootic abortion in sheep is primarily caused by infection with Chlamydophila during which stage of the sheep’s life?

A

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or False: Enzootic abortion is primarily a disease transmitted from sheep to other animal species.
a) True
b) False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why does mixing sheep prior to pregnancy not effective in controlling enzootic abortion?

A

Non-pregnant sheep can develop a latent infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where does the Chlamydophila organism initially colonize in a non-pregnant sheep after oral intake?

A

Lining of the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Activation of the Chlamydophila organism leads to inflammation of the connection between the fetus and dam, a condition known as?

A

Placentitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is the shedding of Chlamydophila organisms typically highest in sheep?

A

In aborting sheep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long does the significant risk of transmission of Chlamydophila infection typically persist after abortion or lambing?

A

For several days, until vaginal discharges dry up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The survival of the Chlamydophila organism in the environment is generally limited to a few days under average spring weather but can be extended by?

A

Colder temperatures, near or below freezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In latently infected ewes, the Chlamydophila organism is:
a) Easily detectable by serology
b) Undetectable by any means, including serology

A

Undetectable by any means, including serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The assumed route of primary infection with Chlamydophila

A

Oronasal following ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The primary site of initial establishment of Chlamydophila infection after ingestion

A

Tonsil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Around 60 days of gestation in sheep, what develops at the maternofetal interface in the hilus of each placentome?

A

Maternal haematomata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which cells are the first to be invaded by C. abortus in the placenta?

A

Hilar chorionic epithelial cells (trophoblast cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Related to enzootic abortion of ewes, the characteristic thickened placental membranes seen at the time of abortion are a result of?

A

Chorionic epithelial damage, oedema, and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The likely underlying cause of abortion in enzootic abortion

A

Destruction of the chorionic epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which hormone, vital for maintaining pregnancy in sheep, is produced by chorionic epithelial cells in the latter part of gestation?

A

Progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Levels of which three hormones are affected in a placental chlamydial infection and may trigger fetal expulsion?

A

Progesterone, oestradiol, prostaglandin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When do maternal antibody titres to C. abortus typically rise significantly?

A

After abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which type of immune mechanism is considered to be of particular importance in protective immunity against enzootic abortion in sheep?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What may be the only presenting clinical sign of EAE?
Serosanguineous vulvar discharges
26
Chlamydia-infected animals may also present these signs, aside from vulvar discharges.
Arthritis, Pneumonia
27
Infection of Chlamydia abortus to animals prior to 120 days of gestation results to?
abortion, stillbirths, or birth of weak lambs
28
True or False: Infection of C. abortus to ewes after 120 days of gestation results in potentially normal births.
True
29
True or False, regarding EAE: Ewes or does generally abort only once and recovered animals will be immune to future infection.
True
30
Give the five main syndromes of Chlamydia abortus infection
1. Barren to tup 2. Abortion 3. Mummification 4. Stillbirth 5. Birth of weak lambs
31
What is the clinical sign which is characteristic of enzootic abortion ?
Thickening of the intercotyledonary area
32
Give at least 3 placental lesions induced by Chlamydia infection
1. Intercotyledonary plaques 2. Necrosis 3. Cotyledonary hemorrhages
33
2 diseases that is major differential for late term abortion for Chlamydia abortus
Q fever Necrotizing placentitis
34
Related to Chlamydia abortus, what are the two organisms that should also be considered for late-term abortion in sheep?
Campylobacter and Toxoplasma
35
Treatment for EAE
Oxytetracycline
36
3 aspects to control enzootic abortion of ewes
1. Retaining sheep in the flock after an abortion episode 2. Biosecurity 3. Vaccination
37
Vaccination of Chlamydia abortus is administered prior to?
Tupping (Copulation)
38
Parturient paresis in adult dairy cows is primarily caused by?
Hypocalcemia
39
The onset of parturient paresis most commonly occurs?
At or soon after parturition
40
Besides paralysis, clinical signs of parturient paresis can also include?
Changes in mentation
41
At the onset of lactation, daily calcium excretion in dairy cows suddenly increases by approximately?
20 g (Increases from 10 g to 30 g)
42
What is the normal lower reference range for blood calcium concentration in cows?
8.5 mg/dL
43
Cows with parturient paresis typically have blood calcium concentrations below?
5.5 mg/dL
44
Parturient paresis is most common in high-producing dairy cows entering their? a) First lactation b) Second lactation c) Third or later lactations
Third or later lactations
45
Stage 1 parturient paresis is characterized by?
Standing but showing hypersensitivity and excitability
46
Signs of hypersensitivity and excitability in stage 1 milk fever can include? (3)
Fine tremors, ear twitching, and head bobbing
47
Stage 2 parturient paresis is characterized by?
Inability to stand and weak peripheral pulses
48
Smooth muscle paralysis in stage 2 milk fever can lead to?
Bloat and failure to defecate
49
An S-shaped curve to the neck in a recumbent cow with milk fever is due to?
Asymmetry of the cervical musculature
50
Stage 3 parturient paresis is characterized by?
Progressive loss of consciousness to the point of coma
51
Untreated cows in stage 3 milk fever may survive for only?
A few hours
52
What is the main method of confirming the diagnosis of parturient paresis?
Response to intravenous calcium treatment
53
Intravenous calcium infusion should be administered slowly (over 10-20 minutes) to prevent?
Fatal cardiac arrhythmia
54
Cows with stage 1 parturient paresis (standing) should be treated with?
Oral calcium supplementation
55
In milk fever treatment, acidogenic sources of calcium enhance the cow's own calcium homeostasis by improving ____________ ?
PTH receptor responsiveness
56
The standard intravenous treatment for an adult dairy cow with milk fever is typically 500 mL of a _______
23% calcium gluconate (or borogluconate) solution
57
For paresis puerperalis treatment, what is the preferred site for intravenous calcium infusion?
Jugular vein
58
In stage 1 milk fever, the fine tremors are most commonly observed over which areas of the cow's body?
Flanks and triceps
59
Why does gastrointestinal stasis occur in stage 2 milk fever?
Smooth muscle paralysis
60
What is the elemental calcium content provided by the standard intravenous treatment (500 mL of 23% calcium gluconate)?
Approximately 10.7 g
61
A tickborne viral disease of sheep and goats characterized by fever, hemorrhagic gastroenteritis, abortion, and high mortality.
Nairobi sheep disease
62
A zoonotic pathogen transmitted by ticks and primarily affects naïve small ruminants in which infection leads to severe and often fatal hemorrhagic gastroenteritis
Nairobi sheep disease virus
63
Known to be the most pathogenic virus of small ruminants.
Nairobi sheep disease virus
64
What is the principal vector for NSDV in Africa?
brown ear tick / Rhipicephalus appendiculatus
65
Virus can survive in brown ear ticks for how many days?
800 days
66
Regarding NSDV, the viral vector which is an unfed adult ticks can transmit the virus for how many years after infection?
> 2 years
67
What is the of NSDV in Asia?
Haemaphysalis intermedia
68
NSDV virus is shed throug?
Feces and urine
69
How longs is the incubation period of Nairobi sheep disease virus?
2-6 days
70
A disease manifested by mucopurulent to hemorrhagic nasal discharge, occasional conjunctivitis, and fetid dysentery that causes painful straining.
Nairobi sheep disease
71
More susceptible to NSDV
Sheep
72
In NSDV, hemorrhage are typically found in these areas (3)
Abomasums Colon Female genital tract
73
Common signs of NSDV as a result of nasal discharges.
Conjunctivitis and dried crusts around the nostrils
74
On external examination of the carcass, what is the most striking feature of NSDV?
Soiling of the hindquarters with feces (or a mixture of blood and feces)
75
The preferred specimens for direct virus detection of NSDV and serum to detect antibodies.
Plasma from febrile animals Mesenteric lymph nodes Spleen
76
A disease of dairy cows in early lactation characterized by hyporexia and reduced milk production.
Ketosis
77