Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Med School Finals > Ear, Nose & Throat (ENT) > Flashcards

Ear, Nose & Throat (ENT) Flashcards

(100 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

List some ototoxic medications.

A

Loop diuretics (e.g. furosemide)
Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin)
NSAIDs (e.g. ibuprofen)
Salicylates (e.g. aspirin)
Platinum agents (e.g. cisplatin)
Antimalarials (e.g. quinine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Rinne’s and Weber’s test results in conductive hearing loss?

A

Rinne’s = BC > AC in affected ear (“negative”)
Weber’s = sound localises to affected ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rinne’s and Weber’s test results in sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Rinne’s = AC > BC in both ears (“positive”)
Weber’s = sound localises to unaffected ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hearing threshold considered normal in audiometry?

A

0-20dB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Features of a sensorineural vs conductive hearing loss audiogram?

A

Sensorineural = AC and BC impaired
Conductive = AC impaired and “air-bone gap”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Top 3 bacterial causes of acute otitis media?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Moraxella cataharrlis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Clinical and otoscopy features and management of acute otitis media?

A

Otalgia
Recent/current URTI
Otorrhoea (if perforation)
Otoscopy = bulging/red TM, loss of light reflex
Management = self-limiting, consider antibiotics if ≥4 days, perforation, systemically unwell, immunocompromised, bilateral OM in child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Antibiotic options for otitis media (if required)?

A

1st line = amoxicillin
2nd line = clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Timescale for perforated tympanic membrane to heal and management if unresolved?

A

6-8 weeks
Myringoplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Clinical and otoscopy features and management of glue ear (otitis media with effusion)?

A

Hearing loss
Behavioural issues
Speech and language delay
Otoscopy = indrawn TM, bubbles, visible fluid level, loss of light reflex
Management = self-limiting, grommets if persistent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Chalky white tympanic membrane in patient with history of glue ear/grommet insertion?

A

Tympanosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Features of malignant otitis media and associated pathogen?

A

Immunocompromised patient (90% in diabetics)
SEVERE otalgia
Headache
Ottorhoea
Associated pathogen = pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Complication of malignant otitis media?

A

Temporal bone osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Causes of otitis externa?

A

Staphyloccocus aureus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Fungal infection
Dermatitis (contact or seborrheic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clinical and otoscopy features and management of otitis externa?

A

Otalgia
Pruritus
Otorrhoea
Otoscopy = red/swollen/flaky ear canal
Management = aural toilet + topical antibiotic/steroid, ear wick if canal very swollen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Clinical and otoscopy features and management of cholesteatoma?

A

Foul-smelling otorrhoea
Otoscopy = attic crust
Management = surgical removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Antibiotics used for otitis externa?

A

Ciprofloxacin
Neomycin
Gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Management for otitis externa not responding to topical treatment or worsening pain?

A

Take a swab
Refer to ENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Features and management of mastoiditis?

A

Swollen/red mastoid process
Affected ear protruding forwards
Management = admission + IV antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Management of pinna haematoma and complication if untreated?

A

Drainage within 24 hours
Avascular necrosis leading to “cauliflower ear”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clinical and otoscopy features and management of otosclerosis?

A

Hearing loss
Tinnitus
Strong family history (AD)
Worse during pregnancy
Otoscopy = flamingo flush/Schwartze (~10%)
Management = hearing aids, stapedectomy or stapedotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Key audiogram sign of otosclerosis?

A

Impaired BC at 2000Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common hearing loss in elderly, audiogram feature and management?

A

Presbycusis
Bilateral loss of high-frequency hearing
Hearing aids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Management options for ear wax?

A

Ear syringing
Softeners (e.g. olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%)
Microsuction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Pathology of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?
Otoconia dislodge and float around semi-circular canals, stimulating hair cells in the Organ of Corti
26
Features of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?
Sudden onset vertigo Triggered by position No auditory symptoms Episodes last for secs to mins +ve Dix Hallpike (vertigo and rotatory nystagmus)
27
Management of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?
Epley manoeuvre (80% success) Brandt-Daroff exercises
28
Pathology of Meniere's disease?
Excess fluid in the endolymph (endolymphatic hydrops)
29
Features of Meniere's disease?
Sudden onset vertigo Tinnitus, hearing loss, fullness Nausea and vomiting Episodes last hours
30
Management of Meniere's disease?
Acute attack = prochloperazine Prophylaxis = betahistine
31
Features of vestibular labyrinthitis?
Sudden onset vertigo Tinnitus, hearing loss Nausea and vomiting Horizontal nystagmus Episodes lasting weeks Recent/current URTI
32
Rule of 3 for vestibular labyrinthitis?
3 bed days 3 weeks off work 3 months off balance
33
Difference between vestibular neuritis and labyrinthitis?
Neuritis = CN VIII involvement with no hearing impairment (just vertigo) Labyrinthitis = CN VIII + labyrinth involvement with hearing impairment
34
Test to differentiate central (e.g. stroke) from peripheral (e.g. vestibular neuritis) cause of vertigo?
HINTS exam: Head Impulse, Nystagmus, Test of Skew
35
Type of nystagmus seen in vestibular neuritis vs. stroke?
Neuritis = horizontal unidirectional Stroke = horizontal bidirectional
36
Classic features of Ramsay-Hunt syndrome (CN VII palsy) and management?
Otalgia Facial paralysis Vesicular rash around ear Management = oral aciclovir + steroid
37
Most common cause of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL), audiometry criteria, other investigation and treatment?
Idiopathic (90%) Loss of ≥30 dB in 3 consecutive frequencies MRI/CT head 1st line = high-dose oral steroids 2nd line = intra-tympanic steroids
38
Features and management of vestibular schwannoma?
Unilateral hearing loss Vertigo, tinnitus Absent corneal reflex <40mm = 6 monthly MRI >40mm = surgery
39
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas?
Neurofibromatosis type II
40
Most common bone affected in a basal skull fracture?
Temporal bone
41
Classic features of a basal skull fracture fracture?
Battle's sign (mastoid bruise) Raccoon eyes Haemotympanum CSF rhinorrhoea Cranial nerve palsy
42
What does "sore throat" cover?
Pharyngitis Laryngitis Tonsilitis
43
Centor criteria aim, features and score indicating antibiotic is needed?
Screens for GAS pharyngitis Fever, tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical nodes, absence of cough ≥3 needs antibiotic
44
Antibiotic management (if needed) for pharyngitis, laryngitis and tonsillitis?
1st line = phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) 2nd line = clarithromycin
45
Complications of GAS throat infection?
Otitis media Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy) Scarlet fever Rheumatic fever Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis Post-streptococcal reactive arthritis
46
Most common cause of bacterial tonsillitis?
Streptoccoccus pyogenes (GAS)
47
Indications for tonsillectomy?
≥7 episodes in the same year OR ≥5 episodes in previous 2 years OR ≥3 episodes in previous 3 years
48
Management of post-tonsillectomy primary vs secondary haemorrhage?
Primary (<24 hours) = urgent return to theatre Secondary (>24 hours) = admission + antibiotics
49
Features and management of a peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)?
Throat pain (worse on affected side) Odynophagia Drooling Trismus Deviated uvula Management = aspiration + IV antibiotics
50
What is Lemierre's syndrome, risk factor and complications?
Thrombophlebitis of internal jugular vein Peritonsillar abscess Septic emboli/sepsis
51
Cause of rheumatic fever and scarlet fever?
GAS (strep pyogenes) infection
52
Features and management of rheumatic fever?
Generally unwell (e.g. fever) Polyarthritis (migratory) Pancarditis and valve disease Erythema marginatum Subcutaenous nodules Sydenham's chorea Management = NSAID + oral penicillin V
53
Cells seen in rheumatic heart disease?
Aschoff bodies
54
Features and management of scarlet fever?
Generally unwell (e.g. fever) Strawberry tongue Sandpaper texture rash Desquamation Manament = penicillin V
55
School exclusion for children with scarlet fever?
24 hours after starting antibiotics
56
Features of mononucleosis (glandular fever)?
Sore throat Exudative tonsilitis Lymphadenopathy Palatal petechiae Hepatosplenomegaly
57
Haematological manifestations of EBV infection?
Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes Haemolytic anaemia (cold agglutins/IgM)
58
Key test for mononucleosis (glandular fever)?
Heterophil antibody (Monospot test)
59
School exclusion for children with glandular fever?
No need to stay off if well
60
Classic reaction to ampicillin or amoxicillin in patient with mononucleosis (glandular fever)?
Pruritic, maculopapular rash
61
Virus associated with nasopharyngeal cancer and B cell lymphomas?
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
62
Red flags for nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
Eustachian tube dysfunction Bloody nasal discharge Persistent epistaxis Unilateral nasal mass e.g. polyp
63
Virus associated with oropharyngeal cancer?
HPV 16
64
Red flags for oral cancer?
Lump in the mouth or lip Ulcer lasting >3 weeks Erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia
65
Timescale for head and neck symptoms to be urgently referred (2 week pathway)?
Persistent for >3 weeks
66
Risk factors for Reinke's oedema (vocal cord oedema)?
Smoking (most cases) Hypothyroidism Voice overuse Laryngopharyngeal reflux
67
Risk factors for head and neck cancer?
Smoking tobacco Alcohol Age > 40 HPV (16) and EBV UV exposure Poor dental hygiene
68
Most common type of head and neck cancer?
Squamous cell carcinoma
69
Midline neck lump which moves upwards on swallowing and tongue protrusion?
Thyroglossal cyst
70
Midline neck lump that gurgles on palpation?
Pharyngeal pouch
71
Neck lump between angle of jaw and sternocleidomastoid?
Branchial cyst
72
Most common branchial cleft to form a cyst?
Second
73
Lateral neck lump present at birth?
Cystic hygroma
74
Neck lump associated with thoracic outlet syndrome?
Cervical rib
75
What do salivary gland tumours cover?
Parotid (most common) Sublingual Submandibular
76
Most common parotid gland tumour?
Pleomorphic adenoma
77
Most common bilateral parotid gland tumour?
Warthin's tumour
78
Most common malignant parotid gland tumour?
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
79
Parotid tumour associated with perineural invasion?
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
80
Systemic causes of bilateral parotid disease?
Mumps HIV infection Lymphoma Sarcoidosis Tuberculosis Sjögren's syndrome
81
Rule of 80 for parotid tumours?
80% benign 80% pleomorphic adenomas 80% superficial lobe
82
Most common location of sialolithiasis?
Wharton's duct of the submandibular gland
83
What is Ludwig's angina and list some causes?
Cellulitis involving the floor of the mouth Dental abscess Sialolithiasis
84
What does sinusitis vs rhinosinusitis involve?
Sinusitis = paranasal sinuses Rhinosinusitis = paranasal sinuses + nasal cavity
85
Most common causes of acute sinusitis?
Streptococcus pneumoniae Haemophilus influenzae Rhinovirus
86
Features and management of acute sinusitis?
Recent/current URTI Facial pain (worse bending forward) Purulent nasal discharge Loss of smell and taste Management = self-limiting, intranasal steroid + antibiotic if > 10 days
87
Timescale of acute vs chronic sinusitis?
Acute = <12 weeks Chronic = >12 weeks
88
Management of chronic sinusitis?
Nasal irrigation with saline solution Intranasal steroid
89
Features of allergic rhinitis?
Sneezing Nasal pruritus History of atopy Clear nasal discharge Associated allergic conjunctivitis
90
Drug options for allergic rhinitis?
1st line = oral or intranasal antihistamine (1st gen) 2nd line = intranasal steroid 3rd line = oral steroid N.B. nasal decongestants can also be used
91
Nasal decongestant examples and side effects with prolonged use?
Oxymetazoline, phenylephrine, pseudoephedrine Side effects = tachyphylaxis, rhinitis medicamentosa
92
Antihistamine mechanism of action and 1st gen vs 2nd gen examples?
H1 receptor antagonist 1st gen = chlorphenamine, promethazine 2nd gen = cetirizine, loratadine, fexofenadine
93
Which generation of antihitamines has a higher risk of sedation and anticholingergic side effects?
1st gen e.g. cyclizine
94
Samter's triad?
Aspirin sensitivity Asthma Nasal polyps
95
Management of nasal polyps?
Topical steroid Surgery if persistent
96
Management of a nasal septal haematoma and complication if untreated?
Drainage within 24 hours Avascular necrosis leading to "saddle-nose" deformity
97
Management of epistaxis?
1st line = first aid (10-15 mins) 2nd line = cautery via silver nitrate sticks (if bleed source visible) 3rd line = nasal packing (if cautery fails or bleed source not visible) 4th line = sphenopalatine ligation Naseptin for 10 days to reduce crusting and vestibulitis
98
Drug options for oral candidasis?
1st line = miconazole gel or nystatin suspension 2nd line = oral fluconazole
99
Management of acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis?
Urgent dental referral Analgesia (e.g. NSAIDs) Oral metronidazole + chlorhexidine mouthwash
100
Drugs which cause gingival hyperplasia?
Phenytoin Ciclosporin Calcium channel blockers (especially nifedipine)

Med School Finals (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions