EconPlusDal Micro Y2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of short run?

A

A period of time when there is at least one fixed factor of production

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2
Q

What is the equation for marginal product?

A

The extra output gained or lost when adding one more unit of input.

Change in total product
/
Change in quantity of labour

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2
Q

What is the law of diminishing returns?

A

Law of diminishing returns states that in the short run when variable factors of production are added to a stock of fixed factors of production total/marginal product will initially rise and then fall

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3
Q

What is the equation for average product?

A

Total product
/
Quantity of labour

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4
Q

Why does labour productivity increase when adding a unit of labour?

A

Specialisation
- training from other workers
- more experience

Under utilisation of fixed FofP

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5
Q

Why does labour productivity start to decrease when adding to many units of labour?

A

Fixed FofP constrain production

  • workers get in the way
  • not enough materials
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6
Q

When is total product maximised, in relation to marginal product?

A

Total product maximised when marginal product = 0

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7
Q

What is long run vs short run?

A

Long run is when all factors of production are variable

Short run is when there is at least one fixed factor of production

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8
Q

What two types of costs are there in economics?

A

Explicit
Implicit

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9
Q

What are implicit costs?

A

Opportunity costs

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10
Q

What are explicit costs?

A

Fixed costs
- rent
- salaries
- interest on loans

Variable costs
- wages
- utility bills
- raw materials costs

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11
Q

What is the formula of total fixed costs?

A

total costs - total variable costs

average fixed costs x quantity

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12
Q

What is the formula for average fixed costs?

A

Total fixed costs
/
Quantity

or

Average costs - average variable costs

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13
Q

What shape is the average variable cost?

A

Smiley face ( U )

Assume wages are the only variable costs.

Law of diminishing returns causes AVC to rise.

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14
Q

What is the formula for average variable costs?

A

Total variable costs
/
Quantity

or

Average cost - Average FC

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15
Q

What is the formula for marginal cost?

A

Change in total costs
/
Change in quantity of output

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16
Q

What is the formula for average costs?

A

Total costs
/
Quantity of output

or

AFC + AVC

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17
Q

Marginal means what?

A

One more unit.

Marginal formulas will always be the same as average formulas but with changes in it.

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18
Q

What shape is the total variable cost curve?

A

~ (diagonally upwards)

The shallow part of the curve is when productive gains occur, specialisation and resources utilised.

Beginning steep curve there is under utilisation

End steep curve too much labour, not enough resources

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19
Q

What is scale?

A

When the business increases its factors of production, business is scaling up

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20
Q

What does the long run average cost curve look like?

A

U with an extended flat bottom, like a bucket

Long run is made up of many short runs

Beginning of U
- Increasing returns to scale

Bottom of U
- Constant of returns to scale

Upward U
- Decreasing returns to scale

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21
Q

What is increasing returns to scale?

A

% change output
>
% change input

Economies of scale

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22
Q

What is constant returns to scale?

A

% change output

% change input

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23
Q

What is decreasing returns to scale?

A

% change in output
<
% change in output

Diseconomies of scale

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24
Q

What is the minimum efficient scale?

A

The MES is the lowest level of output required to fully exploit economies of scale.

After this costs cannot become any less

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25
Q

What is economies of scale?

A

Economies of scale is a reduction in LRAC as output increases

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26
Q

What is internal economies of scale?

A

Really Fun Mums Try Making Pies

Risk bearing eos
Financial eos
Managerial eos
Technical eos
Marketing eos
Purchasing eos

Quantity produced is increasing much more than total costs

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27
Q

What is external economies of scale?

A

Business within an industry benefit from economies of scale due to external factors:

Better transport infrastructure

Component suppliers move closer

R&D firms move closer

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28
Q

What is diseconomies of scale? 3Cs and an M

A

Diseconomies of scale is an increase in LRAC as output increases

  • Control as workforce increases, worse
  • Communication as business grows, slows.
  • Coordination harder as business grows
  • Motivation, less valued as business grows

Total costs are increasing much faster than quantity

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29
Q

What is total revenue?

A

Price x quantity

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30
Q

What is average revenue?

A

Price

Total Revenue
/
Quantity

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31
Q

What is the formula for marginal revenue?

A

Change in total revenue
/
Change in quantity

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32
Q

What are the characteristics of perfect competition?

A

Hypothetical theory

  • Many buyers and sellers
    (infinite)
  • Homegenous goods
  • Firms are price takers
  • No barriers to entry/exit
  • Perfect information
  • MR = AR = D curve
  • Positive diagonal Total Revenue curve
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33
Q

What are the characteristics of imperfect information?

A
  • Few buyers and sellers
  • Differentiated goods
  • Firms are price makers
  • High barriers to entry/exit
  • Imperfect information
  • AR = D, negative diagonal curve
  • MR = twice as steep as AR
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34
Q

At imperfect competition when does total revenue peak?

A

When marginal revenue = 0

MR = 0

When marginal revenue becomes negative, total revenue will start fall.

When marginal revenue is positive, there is still room for revenue to be gained

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35
Q

What is the difference between economic profit and accounting profit?

A

Economic profit considers both implicit and explicit costs (physical costs & opportunity costs)

Accounting profit considers only explicit costs (physical costs)

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36
Q

What does each economic profit mean?

A

0 economic profit
- normal profits
- carry on with production
- AR = AC

> 0
- supernormal profits
- carry on with production
- AR > AC

<0
- subnormal profits
- produce the alternative
- AR < AC

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37
Q

What point on a graph is profit maximisation?

A

MC = MR

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38
Q

Why should firms profit maximise?

A
  • Re-investment
  • Dividends for shareholders
  • Lower costs & lower prices for consumers
  • Reward for entrepreneurship
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39
Q

Why would firms avoid profit maximisation?

A
  • Knowledge of MC & MR
  • Greater scrutiny
  • Key stakeholders harmed (satisfice instead)
  • Other objectives more appropriate
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40
Q

What is profit satisificing?

A

Sacrificing profit to satisfy as many key stakeholders as possible

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41
Q

What point on the graph does revenue maximisation occur?

A

MR = 0

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42
Q

Why would firms revenue maximise?

A
  • Economies of scale
  • Predatory pricing
  • Principle agent problems
    Divorce between ownership and control
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43
Q

What point on a graph does sales maximisation occur?

A

Break-even

AC = AR

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44
Q

Why may a firm sales maximise?

A
  • Growth
  • Economies of scale
  • Limit pricing
  • Divorce between ownership and control (principle agent problem)
  • Flood the market
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45
Q

What will public sector organisations aim for on a graph?

A

P = MC
Demand = Supply
Allocative efficiency

Maximise society welfare

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46
Q

What objectives may firms have?

A
  • Profit max
  • Profit satsifice
  • Revenue max
  • Sales max
  • Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
  • Public sector organisations (P = MC, D = S, Allocative efficiency)
  • Survival
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47
Q

What are barriers to entry?

A

Any obstacle that prevents a new firm entering a market

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48
Q

What legal barriers to entry is there?

A
  • Patents
  • Licenses/patents
  • Red tape
  • Standards vs regulations
  • Insurance
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48
Q

What technical barriers to entry is there?

A
  • Start up costs
  • Sunk costs
  • Economies of scale
  • Natural monopoly
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49
Q

What nmeumonic is there to remember the types of barriers to entry?

A

Lloyds TSB

Legal
Technical
Strategic
Brand loyalty

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50
Q

What strategic barriers to entry is there?

A
  • Predatory pricing
  • Limit pricing
  • Heavy advertising
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51
Q

What are sunk costs?

A

Sunk costs are costs that can’t be recovered

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52
Q

What barriers to exit is there?

A
  • Under valuation of assets
  • Redundancy costs
  • Penalties for leaving contracts early
  • Sunk costs
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53
Q

What are barriers to exit?

A

Barriers to exit are any obstacles that prevents a firm leaving a market

54
Q

When does productive efficiency occur?

A

Productive efficiency occurs when a firm is operating at the lowest point on their AC curve

55
Q

When does X-efficiency occur?

A

When a firm produces on the AC curve, minimising waste

56
Q

What is dynamic efficiency?

A

Dynamic efficiency occurs when re-investment of LR supernormal profit

57
Q

What is static efficiencies?

A
  • Allocative
  • Productive
  • X-efficiency
58
Q

What is the definition of allocative efficiency?

A

Where demand is equal to supply.

Maximising society surplus

P = MC

59
Q

What does allocative efficiency mean for consumers?

A
  • Resources follow consumer demand
  • Low prices
  • High choice
  • High quality
60
Q

What does allocative mean for producers?

A
  • Retain or increase market share
  • Stay ahead of rivals
  • Increase profit
61
Q

What is the definition of productive efficiency?

A

Maximising output at the lowest possible average cost.

Maximum exploitation of economies of scale.

Min. of AC curve

MC = AC

62
Q

What does productive efficiency mean for consumers?

A
  • Lower prices
  • Higher consumer surplus
  • Full exploitation of EOS
63
Q

What does productive efficiency mean for producers?

A
  • More production at lower AC
  • Higher profit
  • Lower prices and greater market share
64
Q

What is the definition of dynamic efficiency?

A

Re-investment of supernormal profits into innovation, R&D & new tech to lower LRAC.

Supernormal profit in LR

65
Q

What does dynamic efficiency mean for consumers?

A
  • New innovative products
  • Lower prices over time
  • High consumer surplus
66
Q

What does dynamic efficiency mean for producers?

A
  • LR profit max.
  • Lower costs over time
  • Retain/increase market share
  • Stay ahead of rivals
67
Q

What is the definition of X-efficiency?

A

Production with no waste

Production on AC curve

68
Q

What does x-efficiency mean for consumers?

A
  • Low prices
  • Higher consumer surplus
69
Q

What does x-efficiency mean for producers?

A
  • Lower costs
  • Higher profit
  • Lower prices & increased market share
70
Q

What are the characteristics of a perfect competition market structure?

A
  • Many buyers and sellers (infinite)
  • Homogenous goods
  • Price takers
  • No barriers to entry/exit
  • Perfect information
  • Firms are profit maximisers

MC=MR

  • Supernormal or Subnormal profit SR
  • Normal profit LR
71
Q

What efficiencies does perfect competition have?

A

Allocative
Productive
X-efficiency

Not dynamic efficiency as there is no profits in the long run

72
Q

What is the shutdown condition?

A

PERFECT COMPETITION

AR = AVC

AR < AVC = shutdown

AR > AVC = continue for SR, firms will leave market and return to normal profit

73
Q

What is the breakeven condition?

A

PERFECT COMPETITION

AR = AC

73
Q

What are the characteristics of a monopoly market structure?

A
  • One seller dominating the market
  • Differentiated products
    firm is a price maker
  • High barriers to entry/exit
  • Imperfect information
  • Firm is a profit maximiser
74
Q

What is a pure monopoly?

A

Extreme theory

ONE single firm in market

75
Q

What is a monopoly power?

A

Legal monopoly

When one firm owns 25% or more market share

76
Q

What efficiencies does a monopoly market structure have?

A

Statically INEFFICIENT

ONLY dynamic efficiency

Higher prices lead to DWL for society and less quantity produced

77
Q

What is the definition of price discrimination?

A

Where a firm charges different prices to different consumers for an identical good/service with no differences in costs of production

78
Q

What conditions are necessary for price discrimination?

A
  • Price making ability
    legal monopoly
  • Information to separate the market
  • Prevent re-sale (market seepage)
79
Q

What is 1st degree price discrimination?

A

Consumer surplus turned into monopoly profit

80
Q

What is 2nd degree price discrimination?

A

Consumer surplus occurs from last minute deals when price is reduced to increase quantity sold.

81
Q

What is 3rd degree price discrimination?

A

Occurs when a firm can seperate elastic and inelastic demand and therefore charge different prices.

Inelastic demand = high price

82
Q

What are the cons of price discrimination?

A
  • No allocative efficiency
  • Inequalities
  • Anti-competitive pricing
83
Q

What are the pros of price discrimination?

A
  • Dynamic efficiency
  • Economies of scale
  • Some consumers benefit
    2nd & 3rd degree (elastic)
  • Cross subsidisation
84
Q

What are the characteristics of natural monopoly?

A
  • Huge fixed costs
  • Enormous potential for economies of scale
  • Rational for 1 firm to supply the entire market
    (competition is undesirable)
  • Competition would result in a waste, allocative productive inefficiency
    (EOS not exploited)
85
Q

Examples of natural monopolies?

A

Railways

Water supply

86
Q

What are the cons of monopoly market structure?

A
  • Allocative inefficiency
  • Productive inefficiency
  • X inefficiency
  • Inequalities in necessity markets
87
Q

What are the pros of monopoly market structure?

A
  • Dynamic efficiency
  • Greater EOS
  • Natural monopoly
  • Cross subsidisation
88
Q

How can monopoly market structure be evaluated?

A
  • Dynamic efficiency?
    (not always likely)
  • EoS or DoS
  • Objective dependent
  • Regulation
  • Price discrimination
  • Competition or threat of
  • Natural monopoly?
  • Type of good or service, necessity or luxury?
89
Q

What are the pros of competitive markets?

A
  • Allocative efficiency
  • Productive efficiency
  • X-efficiency
  • Jobs
90
Q

What are the cons of competitive markets?

A
  • Lack of dynamic efficiency
  • Lack of economies of scale
  • Cost cutting in dangerous areas
  • Creative destruction, u/e and living standard problems
91
Q

How can competitive markets be evaluated?

A
  • Still dynamic efficiency?
  • Level of EoS
  • Natural monopoly
  • Where is cost cutting taking place & role for regulation for safety
  • Static vs Dynamic efficiency depends on type of good/service
92
Q

What are the characteristics of a monopolistic competition market structure?

A

Competitive market with some characteristics of monopoly

  • Many buyers & sellers
  • Slightly differentiated goods
    (firms are price makers)
    (price elastic demand)
  • Low barriers to entry/exit
  • Good information
  • Non-price competition
  • Firms are profit maximisers, MR = MC
93
Q

Examples of monopolistic competition

A
  • Taxis
  • Bars & nightclubs
94
Q

How is a monopolistic market structure diagram shown?

A

Normal profits in long run

1) AR & MR curves
2) MC curve
3) Profit Max, MC = MR
4) AC, touches quantity level and lowest point crosses MC

95
Q

What efficiencies does monopolistic competition have?

A

NO efficiencies in theory

AE & PE Not as bad compared to monopoly

Potential dynamic efficiency, in long run re-investment may be a part of competition amongst firms even at normal profit levels

96
Q

Example of how concentration ratio can be shown for 4 firms?

A

4:70

4 largest firms have 70%

97
Q

What are the characteristics of an oligopoly competition market structure? Oli means few*

A
  • Few firms dominate the market
    (high conc. ratio)
  • Differentiated goods
    (price makers)
  • High barriers to entry/exit
  • INTERDEPENDENCE
    (price rigidity)
  • Non-price competition
  • Profit max. not sole objective, market share might be.
  • Oligopoly is a dog fight for market share, firms react to others, interdependent
98
Q

Examples of oligopolies?

A

UK airlines
UK supermarkets
UK fuel market

99
Q

What does the kinked demand curve show for oligopolies?

A
  • Firms don’t WANT to change price
  • Firms don’t NEED to change price

Elastic demand
- Small increase in price will lead to big fall in quantity sold, affecting market share

Inelastic demand
- Large reduction in price will not greatly affect quantity sold in proportion, leads to a price war and in long run there is no market share change but a fall in revenue.

Therefore prices remain rigid at optimal point

MR has vertical gap, if MC is to then increase at same price level, then profit maximisation will ensure that same quantity will be sold.

100
Q

Conclusions for oligopoly market structure?

A
  • Price competition
  • Non-price competition
  • Temptation to collude amongst firms, act as cartel, fix prices, make supernormal profits.
  • Incentive to cheat on a collusive agreement
  • Prisoner dilemma
    nash equilibrium, outcome over long term

dominant strategy, the option that firms will pick, not the best.

101
Q

What factors promote competitive oligopoly?

A
  • Large no. of firms
  • New market entry possible
  • One firm with significant cost advantages
  • Homogenous goods
  • Saturated market
102
Q

How do competitive oligopolies compete?

A

Price

Non-price competition

103
Q

How do collusive oligopolies compete?

A

Overt

Tacit (price leadership)

104
Q

How can competitive oligopolies performance be evaluated?

A

Pros and Cons of competitive outcomes

105
Q

How can collusive oligopolies performance be evaluated?

A

Pros and Cons of monopoly outcomes

106
Q

What two types of oligopoly is there?

A

Competitive

Collusive

107
Q

What are the factors promoting collusive oligopoly?

A
  • Small no. of firms
  • Similar costs
  • High entry barriers
  • Ineffective competition policy
  • Consumer loyalty
  • Consumer inertia
108
Q

What is a contestable market?

A

When there is a threat of entry and contestability

109
Q

What are the characteristics of contestable markets?

A
  • Low barriers to entry/exit
  • Large pool of potential entrants
  • Good information
  • Incumbent firms subject to hit and run competition
  • Effects of technology
110
Q

How has technology affected contestability and contestable markets?

A
  • Lower barriers to entry and exit
  • Increased pool of potential entrants
  • Improved information
111
Q

What are the pros of a contestable market?

A
  • Allocative efficiency
  • Productive efficiency
  • X-efficiency
  • Job creation
112
Q

Why do contestable markets produce at AC=AR?

A

AC = AR = break-even point

Operate at normal profit and lower price, reduce incentives for new firms to enter market.

MC = MR profit max, supernormal profits, incentive for new firms.

113
Q

What are the cons of contestable markets?

A
  • Lack of dynamic efficiency
  • Cost cutting in dangerous areas
  • Creative destruction
  • Anti-competitive strategies
114
Q

What is the difference between contestable and competitive markets?

A

Contestable isn’t actual competition, just the potential.

115
Q

How can contestable markets be evaluated?

A
  • Length of contestability, how long is it contestable for?
  • Role of technology, could reduce due to patents etc.
  • Regulation, minimise the cons
  • Dynamic efficiency
116
Q

Who enacts competition policy?

A

Competition and markets authority (CMA)

European Competition Commission (EU)

Regulatory bodies:
- ORR
- CAA
- OFCOM
- OFWAT
- OFGEM

117
Q

What are the aims of competition policy?

A

Act in public interest

  • prevent excessive pricing
  • promote competition
  • ensure quality, standards and choice
  • regulate natural monopolies, ensure effective privatisation
  • promote technological innovation
118
Q

When will competition authorities intervene?

A
  • Antitrust & cartel agreements
  • Investigate mergers
  • Liberalise concentrated markets
  • Monitor state aid control
119
Q

What monopoly regulation is there?

A
  • Price regulation
  • Quality control/performance targets
  • Profit control cover costs and adding % return on capital employed
  • Windfall taxes on profit
  • Merger policy

Promote competition:
- Privatisation

  • Deregulation
  • Reducing trade barriers
120
Q

What is the issue with price regulation as a way of regulating monopolies?

A
  • Cost
  • Incentive to keep costs low
  • Regulatory capture
121
Q

What is the issue with quality control and performance targets?

A
  • Unintended consequences
  • ‘Game the system’
122
Q

What is the issue with profit control covering costs and adding % return to capital employed?

A
  • Asymmetric information
  • Incentive to increase costs
  • Incentive to over-employ capital
123
Q

What is the issue with windfall taxes on monopoly regulation?

A
  • Worsens monopoly outcomes
  • Tax evasion/avoidance
  • Less innovation
  • Under-reporting of profit
124
Q

How can monopoly regulation be evaulated?

A
  • Level of information that regulation authorities have
  • Costs vs benefits
  • Regulatory capture

All leading to gov. failure, costs of intervention outweigh benefits

  • Benefits of monopoly
125
Q

What is regulatory capture?

A

When the firms being regulated dominate the regulating authorities

they are ‘captured’

126
Q

What are the advantages of privatisation?

A
  • Increased allocative efficiency
  • X inefficiency falls
  • Efficiency incentive which drives dynamic efficiency
127
Q

What are the disadvantages of privatisation?

A
  • Limited competition
    (productive and allocative inefficiency)
  • Loss making services cut even if socially desirable
  • Loss of natural monopoly and loss of economies of scale
    (productive inefficiency)
128
Q

What does the effectiveness of privatisation depend on?

A
  • Level of competition post privatisation
  • Level of government regulation
129
Q

What is deregulation?

A

Deregulation is when governments reduce legal barriers to entry in given industries

130
Q

What are the advantages of deregulation?

A
  • More firms will increase consumer choice, incentive to be allocatively efficient
  • Increased productive and x-efficiency
  • Increased dynamic efficiency
131
Q

What are the disadvantages of deregulation?

A
  • Loss of natural monopoly
    Increased average costs
    Less productive efficiency
  • Wasteful duplication of resources, allocative inefficiency
  • Formation of oligopolies and local monopolies
132
Q

What does the effectiveness of deregulation depend on?

A
  • Short run vs long run outcomes
  • Height of other barriers to entry
  • Level of government regulation to make sure there isn’t too many other barriers to entry
133
Q
A