EENT trigger Flashcards

1
Q

pain with EOM is a red flag for what diagnosis

A

orbital cellulitis

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2
Q

Antiparkinsons, antispasmodics, antipsychotics, MAOIs and TCAs all increase the risk of what disorder?

A

glaucoma

also dilating eye drops

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3
Q

treat with keflex or augmentin. PCN allergy = clinda

A

periorbital cellulitis (OUTPATIENT adults and older children w/ mild symptoms)

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4
Q

IV rocephin OR Unasyn +vanc OR FQ + metro/clinda (PCN allergy)

A
  • periorbital cellulitis for young children/severe presentation
  • orbital cellulitis (add topical nasal decongestant)
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5
Q

when is the only time you use HOT or warm compresses?

A

HOT = periorbital cellulitis
Warm = hordeolum or chalazion

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6
Q

a young child presents with a hx of maxillary sinusitis and now has symptoms of erythema, edema and pain with movement of the eye. The child will not hold still long enough for a proper exam. What imaging will be used for this child? will you use contrast?

A

orbital CT and YES YOU WILL USE CONTRAST

this is suspicious of orbital cellulitis

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7
Q

when do you treat with polymyxin B?

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

unless they wear contact lenses, then treat with FQ or tobramycin d/t pseudomonas

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8
Q

when do you treat with topical antihistamines

A

viral conjunctivitis and allergic conjunctivitis

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9
Q

when do we see preauricular lymphadenopathy

A
  • HSV keratoconjunctivitis
  • viral conjunctivitis
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10
Q

ciliary flush with diminished VA and poor pupillary reactivity to light. photophobia is also present

A

anterior uveitis/iritis

“ciliary flush”
“consensual photophobia”
poor reactivity to light = miosis
diminished VA = clouding of aqueous humor

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11
Q

intense itching with papillae on inferior conjunctiva and cobblestoning

A

allergic conjunctivitis

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12
Q

photophobia with consensual photophobia is hallmark for which diagnosis. what else would you see in these patients?

A

Iritis/ anterior uveitis

also see:
conjunctival injection/ciliary flush
miosis w poor reactivity
diminished VAs d/t clouded aqueous humor

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13
Q

pt presents with periorbital edema but no chemosis and IOP is normal. you decide to treat them outpatient but they have a PCN allergy, what will you treat them with?

A

Clindamycinnnn

this is periorbital cellulitis

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14
Q

Slit lamp exam shows keratic precipitates and aqueous flares. you could also see hypopyons in these patients

A

anterior uveitis / Iritis

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15
Q

3 year old patient presents with periorbital edema and erythema. Orbital CT is negative for orbital cellulitis. you decide to still admit this patient d/t their young age and presentation. you find they have a PCN allergy, what is the tx

A

FQ + Metro/clinda

periorbital cellulitis

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16
Q

when would you use prednisolone drops and a long acting cycloplegic (cyclogyl, cyclopentolate or homatropine)?

A

anterior uveitis (iritis)

remember anterior uveitis can be seen in other diagnoses such as HZV ophthalmicus and blunt eye trauma. prednisolone would also be given if it is seen in those scenarios.

DO NOT give topical steroids if infectious anterior uveitis or if there is an abrasion or elevated IOP.

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17
Q

Fluorescein stain shows a staining defect with a white hazy infiltrate.

can also see hypopyon or iritis

A

corneal ulcer (culture this ulcer!!!!)

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18
Q

When do we use ophthalmic FQs (ofloxacin, cipro or tobramycin) and topical cycloplegics

A

corneal ulcers

ALSO for contact wearers who develop bacterial conjunctivitis or a corneal abrasion

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19
Q

when should we avoid eye patching and topical steroids

A

corneal ulcers

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20
Q

fluorescein stain shows geographic ulcer upake pattern

A

HSV keratoconjunctivitis

you could also see a dendritic lesion uptake

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21
Q

topical trifluridine (viroptic) with erythromycin ointment along with oral acyclovir is used in what diagnosis?

A

HSV keratoconjunctivitis

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22
Q

what nerve does HZV ophthalmicus affect

A

V1 of the trigeminal nerve

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23
Q

Fluorescein stain shows small, elevated dendrites with no terminal bulbs or central ulcerations.

A

herpes zoster ophthalmicus (these stain findings are called peudodendrites)

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24
Q

slit lamp showing diffuse, punctate corneal edema. Fluorescein shows punctate corneal abrasions

A

UV keratitis

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25
when do we use ketorolac drops with erythromycin ointment?
corneal abrasions. (unless contact wearer, then FQ/tobra) DO NOT PRESCRIBE TOPICAL ANESTHETICS TO THESE PATIENTS!!!!
26
when is the seidel test indicated
any time there is a suspected globe perforation such as with a corneal foreign body. this test reveals leakage of the aqueous humor.
27
when do you treat with oral keflex, erythromycin and a cold compress
lid laceration (also stitch it up w soft 6/7-0 sutures if its >1mm)
28
tear drop pupil and limited EOM suggest what diagnosis? what test can confirm
globe rupture seidel test can confirm as long as the wound is unsealed if you have one of these you also wanna get a CT scan of the orbit
29
Vanc + ceftazidime + zofran
globe rupture give eye shield, NPO, sit upright (avoid IOP increase) emergent oph consult
30
restricted upward/lateral gaze with associated bruising around the eye suggest what diagnosis
orbital blow out fracture
31
when would we get a CT of facial bones WITHOUTTTT contrast
blunt eye trauma
32
Cupping of the optic disc on PE
glaucoma
33
describe sniffing position
lean forward neck neutral nose straight
34
sudden onset eye pain with fixed midposition pupil and a hazy cornea. PE shows increased IOP
Acute angle closure glaucoma you would also see halos around lights with nausea and vomiting
35
sudden onset eye pain w halos around lights and N/V
acute angle closure glaucoma also: increased IOP fixed midposition pupil HA sudden onset eye pain
36
Gonioscopy showing iridocorneal angle
gold standard test for acute angle closure glaucoma
37
definitive tx is laser peripheral iridotomy
acute angle closure glaucoma
38
painless color vision loss with a positive afferent pupillary defect and a swollen optic disc on exam
anterior optic neuritis (retrobulbar ON has a normal optic disk)
39
painless color vision loss with a positive afferent pupillary defect and a normal optic disc on exam
retrobulbar optic neuritis (anterior ON has a swollen optic disc)
40
cherry red spot on exam with segmented arterioles in a boxcarring fashion
central retinal arterial occlusion
41
diffuse retinal hemorrhages on fundoscopic exam
central retinal vein occlusion (this is a blood and thunder fundus)
42
floaters, flashes of light and a dark veil/curtain sensation. PE shows visual field by confrontation has been affected
retinal detachment
43
tenderness of external ear that is worse w auricle palpation
acute otitis externa also: clear/purulent discharge erythema/edema of external canal
44
tx for AOE
* tylenol/motrin * oflox or cipro drops * acetic acid or hydrocortisone drops * ear wick
45
CI in perforated TM or when TM cant be visualized
ciprofloxacin hydrocortisone (you CAN use ofloxacin)
46
CT head w contrast shows bone erosion
malignant otitis externa
47
IV tobramycin + piperacillin or rocephin or cipro
malignant otitis externa
48
fever and otalgia with a bulging and erythematous TM
Acute otitis media
49
tx with amoxicillin or cefdinir if PCN allergy
acute otitis media tx w augmentin if recent abx use or recurrent OM
50
postauricular pain, swelling, erythema and tenderness w associated otalgia and fever
acute mastoiditis
51
CT head WITH contrast shows loss of bony septae and periosteal thickening.
acute mastoiditis also shows mastoid clouding and destruction/irregularity of mastoid cortex
52
granulation tissue on the floor of the ear canal is suggestive of what diagnosis
malignant otitis externa
53
external auditory canal with bullae that spread along the TM. pt has severe otalgia and middle ear infusion
bullous myringitis
54
sudden onset pain and hearing loss with vertigo and tinnitus. possible bloody otorrhea
TM perforation
55
MC area is kiesselbachs plexus
anterior nose bleed
56
MC area is sphenopalantine artery
posterior nose bleed
57
bilateral nose bleed and bleeding into the nasopharynx
posterior nose bleed
58
when is a lateral canthotomy used
orbital cellulitis with increased IOP or optic neuropathy
59
hemodynamic instability is MC in which type of epistaxis
posterior
60
pt presents with a hx of purulent drainage from the right eye. you see that the conjunctiva are injected however hte cornea is clear w/o flourescent uptake. the pt wears contacts, what is the treatment
FQ or tobramycin
61
oxymetazoline or phenylephrine is used in what scenario
management of epistaxis (vasoconstrictor)
62
CI in active hemorrhage, bilateral bleeding, recent cauterization
chemical management of anterior epistaxis (silver nitrate) ONLY USED IN ANTERIOR NOSE BLEEDS
63
thrombogenic foam, oxidized cellulose and floseal gelatin matrix are all used when
anterior epistaxis when chemical cauterization w silver nitrate fails. can also do nasal packing at this point
64
what muscle can become entrapped with an orbital blowout fracture
inferior rectus
65
a 72 year old diabetic pt comes to your office complaining of a continued ear infection despite being on otic ofloxacin for like 2-3 weeks. on exam you see granulation tissue resting on the floor of the ear canal. What imaging do you get to confirm diagnosis on this patient? what will you see? what cranial nerve is known to sometimes be affected in these pts?
CT head **WITH WITH WITH WITH** CONTRAST youd see bone erosion because this dude has malignant otitis externa sorry for the yelling. my brain refuses to remember that this is with contrast. cranial nerve VII
66
A patient who presented with a posterior nose bleed is now undergoing nasal packing. the plan is to leave it in for 3 days. what should this patient also be sent home with.
* augmentin or cephalosporin or bactrim * DO NOT TAKE NSAIDS
67
contralateral deflection of uvula with associated unilateral tonsillar enlargement suggests what diagnosis.
peritonsillar abscess
68
muffled voice with cervical adenopathy and neck pain. may also see respiratory distress and stridor
retropharyngeal abscess
69
can be assessed with a neck Xray, however hte gold standard testing for this diagnosis is a CT neck WITH contrast
retropharyngeal abscess with contrast with contrast with contrast
70
immaging shows nonsuppurative edema, mild fat stranding and linear fluid.
retropharyngeal abscess early on later on will see: necrotic nodes, low attenuation, ring enhancement ct neck WITH contrast
71
prep for airway placement in these patients and administer IVF, IV clinda and cefoxitin. what is this diagnosis? what is used if they have PCN allergy
this is retropharyngeal abscess. if PCN allergy use zosyn or unasyn
72
anterior neck tenderness with progressive dysphagia and dyspnea. pt is sitting criss cross and leaning forward on arms to aid in breathing. what is dx, diagnostic studies, and tx
epiglottitis neck Xray showing thumbprint sign prep airway, humidified O2, IVF and give IV cefotaxime + vanc + methylprednisolone give resp FQ if PCN allergy
73
Xray shows thumbprint sign. what is the Gold standard for this diagnosis?
transnasal fiberoptic laryngoscopy this is epiglottitis
74
When do you use IV glucagon?
relaxation of the LES to hopefully allow a swallowed FB in the distal esophagus to pass
75
when is IVF, NPO unasyn + clinda + cipro used?
TOXIC odontogenic abscesses nontoxic = oral PCN VK or amoxicillin or clinda for PCN allergy
76
what swallowed items warrant an emergent endoscopy and surgery consult
food impaction coins sharp objects
77
when do you see ludwigs angina and what does it consist of?
Odontogenic abscess includes: trismus, fever, edema of floor, displacement of tongue)