EM COMAT Flashcards

(84 cards)

1
Q

What is the mnemonic for remembering the 5 types of Salter-Harris fractures?

A
I - S = Slip
II - A = Above
III - L = Lower
IV = TE = Through Everything
V = R = Rammed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe a type I Salter-Harris fracture

A

I - S = Slip, Straight across the cartilage of the growth plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe a type II Salter-Harris fracture

A

II - A = Above, a fracture of the growth plate and metaphysis, Above and Away from the physis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe a type III Salter-Harris fracture

A

III - L = Lower, a fracture of the growth plate and epiphysis, below the physis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe a type IV Salter-Harris fracture

A

IV - TE = Through Everything, a fracture of the growth plate, the metaphysis and the epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe a type V Salter-Harris fracture

A

V - R = Rammed, a crush fracture of the physis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of traveler’s diarrhea?

A

enterotoxigenic E. coli (caused by heat labile enterotoxin and heat-stable enterotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

patient, pathology, sx,

A

obese males age 10-16

femoral head remains within the acetabulum but is displaced posteriorly and inferiorly in relation to the femoral neck

gradually worsening pain and gait abnormalities but patient remains able to ambulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

drug of choice for ICP secondary to brain neoplasm

A

dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

blood gas in salicylate poisoning (3 Phases)

A

Phase 1 (up to 24 hours) - primary respiratory alkalosis with elevated pH and decreased PaCO2 due to hyperventilation from direct respiratory center stimulation

Phase 2 - compensation for phase 1 leads to KHCO3 and NaHCO3 leaving in urine. When enough K+ has been lost, you get paradoxical aciduria

Phase 3 - lactic acidosis due to inhibition of citric acid cycle and uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ABG pH 7.24, PaCO2 48, HCO3- 22 - disorder?

A

acute primary respiratory acidosis - can occur in respiratory depression due to opioid intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ABG pH 7.39, PaCO2 48, HCO3- 30 - disorder?

A

primary metabolic alkalosis (because HCO3- is increased) with compensatory respiratory acidosis (because PaCO2 is increased and pH is normal) - this can occur with patients taking thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ABG pH 7.41, PaCO2 41, HCO3- 23 - disorder?

A

none, this is normal. learn your normal values, Mik

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ABG pH 7.50, PaCO2 44, HCO3- 30 - disorder?

A

uncompensated metabolic alkalosis - copious vomiting can cause this picture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

prinzmetal angina sx and tx

A

sx - cardiac chest pain that occurs at rest due to coronary artery vasospasm
tx - CCB (amlodipine) for prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ANC calculation and cut off for neutropenia

A
ANC = WBC x (% neutrophils + % bands)
neutropenia = ANC <1500, high risk = ANC <500
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is recommended with ANC < 100?

A

broad spectrum Abx therapy with piperacillin-tazobactam, cefepime, meropenem, or imimpenem-cilastatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where is a tube thoracotomy placed?

A

fifth intercostal space at mid-axillary line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What test diagnoses acute Hep A?

A

Hepatitis A IgM antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What medications are known to cause Stephens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)?

A

sulfonamide antibiotics, allopurinol, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenobarbital, and piroxicam

(mycoplasma pneumonia and viral infections can also cause these, and HIV infection is a risk factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the treatment for SJS/TEN?

A

discontinuing offending medication, IV fluids, electrolyte management, pain management, and wound care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Contrast the crystals found in gout vs. pseudogout

A

gout - negatively birefringent urate crystals (needle-shaped)

pseudo gout - positively birefringent calcium pyrophosphate crystals (rhomboid shaped)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tx of PEA?

A

epinephrine (inotrope) 1 mg q3-5 minutes. The first or second dose of epinephrine can be replaced by vasopressin 40 units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest?

A

H’s:
Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ions (acidosis), Hypo/Hyperkalemia, Hypoglycemia, and Hypothermia) and T’s: Toxins, cardiac Tamponade, Tension pneumothorax, and Thrombosis (MI or PE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
When can atropine be used in PEA?
if the underlying electrical rhythm is slower than 60 bpm (dose = 1 mg q5 minutes up to 3 doses)
26
Acute phenytoin toxicity sx
nystagmus and ataxia, uncommonly cardiac arrhythmia can occur with rapid IV administration of phenytoin
27
What does chronic phenytoin use cause?
decreased folate -> megaloblastic anemia, gingival hyperplasia
28
What drug-drug interactions should you remember with phenytoin?
isoniazid, fluconazole, sulfonamides, and trimethoprim
29
What are the most common causes of methemoglobinemia?
exposure to oxidizing agents, most commonly local anesthetic agents (prilocaine and benzocaine) and dapsone (can also be caused by congenital enzyme deficiencies)
30
What are the symptoms of decreased serum pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) levels?
dermatitis, glossitis, AMS, peripheral neuropathy, sideroblastic anemia
31
What changes can you see in blood cells in lead poisoning? What are the symptoms?
blood cells - basophilic stippling and ringed sideroblasts (RBC precursors with nuclei surrounded by mitochondria containing iron granules) Sx - anemia, neurotoxicity, and GI toxicity; in acute poisoning, CNS symptoms may predominant, esp visual disturbances
32
What are the two shockable rhythms?
V tach and V fib
33
What are the most common causes of v tach?
Hx of acute or chronic infarction, ischemia, myocardial scar, ventricular hypertrophy, cardiac conduction abnormalities, or QT interval prolongation Electrical abnormalities (hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, and hypomagnesemia) Medications (digoxin, methamphetamine, and cocaine)
34
Class I Hemorrhage
involves up to 15% of blood volume. These patients typically do not have detectable hemodynamic changes
35
Class II Hemorrhage
involves 15-30% of blood volume. These patients typically have tachycardia (100-120 bpm) and narrowed pulse pressure
36
Class III Hemorrhage
Involves 30-40% of blood volume. These patients typically have tachycardia (120-140 bpm), hypotension with decreased pulse pressure, and tachypnea. They exhibit signs of end-organ hypo perfusion (AMS and oliguria)
37
Class IV Hemorrhage
involves over 40% of blood volume. These patients have tachycardia (>140 bpm), significant hypotension, and tachypnea above 35 breaths per minute. They exhibit end-organ hypo perfusion with confusion/stupor and negligible urine output
38
TRALI cause and sx
caused by donor antibodies targeted against recipient WBCs Sx - occurs in the first 6 hours (usually within 2 hours), picture similar to ARDS with dyspnea, hypotension, and hypoxemia TRALI will NOT show signs of circulatory volume overload and will be unresponsive to diuretics
39
Tx for snake bites?
Snake venoms cause injury due to destructive enzymatic proteins. Tx = antivenom (or antivenin), which consists of antibodies (or antibody fragments) against snake venom that are derived from the serum of the host animal, typically horse or sheep
40
Empiric tx of CAP for those at risk of multi-drug resistant infections
cover for pseudomonas w/o requiring hospitalization = respiratory fluoroquinolone, such as levofloxacin or moxifloxacin requiring hospitalization = respiratory fluoroquinolone or pip-tazo plus a macrolide (commonly azithromycin or clarithromycin)
41
What bleeding parameter does warfarin affect?
prothrombin time (PT) and INR (WEPT = Warfarin Extrinsic PT) drugs that can affect warfarin levels: amiodarone, simvastatin, fluconazole, macrolides, fluoroquinolones, Bactrim, mirtazapine, metronidazole, St Johns Wort, SSRIs (and tamoxifen is contraindicated)
42
What bleeding parameter does heparin affect?
partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
43
mechanism of botulinum toxin?
prevents the release of acetylcholine from axons at the neuromuscular junction, leading to flaccid paralysis
44
mechanism of organophosphate poisoning?
prevents neurotransmitter degradation, irreversibly inhibiting acetylcholine esterase resulting in increased concentrations of ACh at synapses and neuromuscular junctions
45
Sx of HIV infection
sore throat, myalgias, diarrhea, arthralgias, rash, and mucocutaneous ulcerations
46
Anterior cord syndrome path and Sx
path - interruption of the anterior spinal artery Sx - loss of motor function and sensation of pain and temp below the level of injury (retention of touch, proprioception and vibratory sensation)
47
Brown-Sequard syndrome path and sx
path - injury to one half of the spinal cord, typically due to penetrating injury Sx - ipsilateral upper motor neuron signs below the level of the lesion due to corticospinal tract damage as well as ipsilateral loss of tactile, vibration, proprioception sense below the level of the lesion due to dorsal column damage. And ipsilateral loss of all sensation at the level of the lesion and ipsilateral lower motor neuron signs (flaccid paralysis) at the level of the lesion. Loss of pain and temp occurs on the contralateral side below the level of the lesion due to damage of the spinothalamic tract
48
Central cord syndrome path and sx
path - trauma to the cervial spine Sx - decreased motor function and sensation in both upper extremities with less severe symptoms in both lower extremities
49
coccidioidomycosis path, sx, labs, complication
path - inhalation of airborne spores of coccidioides species of soil fungus, most commonly encountered in the southwestern US Sx - primarily pulmonary symptoms labs - elevated eosinophils Complication - cavitary lung disease
50
Fat embolism syndrome path, sx, dx
path - release of fat emboli into the systemic circulation, most commonly following long bone fracture Sx - petechial rash, respiratory decompensation, and change in level of consciousness Dx - macrophages with lipid inclusions on bronchoalveolar lavage
51
Most common causes of orbital cellulitis
staph aureus, strep pneumo, beta-hemolytic strep
52
blunt chest trauma with hypotension and diminished pulses in the lower extremities and possibly left upper extremity - dx?
thoracic aortic transection
53
Imaging of nephrolithiasis?
U/S or CT scan show the stone and proximal ureteral dilation and/or hydronephrosis in the case of an obstructing stone
54
When does nephrolithiasis require urologic consult and intervention?
obstructing renal stones in an infected collecting system, failure of stones to pass spontaneously, and large-sized stones (>10mm)
55
local anesthetic toxicity (injection intravascularly) sx
CNS or cardiovascular toxicity CNS - circumoral or tongue numbness, metallic taste, lightheadedness, dizziness, and disorientation before progressing to unconsciousness or seizures CV - chest pain, dyspnea, or palpitations that can lead to prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals
56
What features of a seizure suggest PNES (pyogenic non-epileptic seizures)?
long duration, fluctuating course, closed eyes, ictal crying, and memory recall
57
Tx of suspected rabies
wound cleansing and debridement, administration of human rabies immunoglobulin (administered at the site of injury), and inactivated rabies vaccine (administered as a series of four doses over 14 days)
58
Hunter criteria for diagnosis of serotonin syndrome
must meet one of the following: - spontaneous clonus or - inducible clonus plus agitation or diaphoresis or - ocular clonus plus agitation or diaphoresis, or - tremor plus hyperreflexia or - hypertonism plus temp greater than 38 degrees celsius (100.4)
59
ECG and Tx of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW)
ECG - short PR interval (less than 120 ms), a slurred upstroke of the QRS complex (delta wave), and a widened QRS complex (greater than 120 ms). Tx - procainamide 1st line, amiodarone and propafenone 2nd line (definitive tx = radiofrequency ablation) Medications that slow AV node conduction (CCB, beta-blockers, adenosine) may lead to ventricular arrhythmia in WPW
60
characteristics of empyema
purulent fluid with a positive gram stain and/or bacterial culture, pH less than 7.2, glucose less than 60 mg/dL
61
Light's criteria
pleural effusion is likely exudative if: 1. the ratio of pleural fluid protein to serum protein is > 0.5 2. the ratio of pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH > 0.6 3. pleural fluid LDH is greater than 0.6 times the upper limit of normal for serum LDH
62
Wernicke encephalopathy triad
confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia
63
mechanism of PCP
NMDA receptor antagonist
64
What is a key symptom of inferior wall myocardial infarction, and what leads will be affected?
referred pain to the epigastrium. Dx based on ECG changes in leads II, III, aVF
65
Sx of right sided MI, and affected leads?
hypotension, distended neck veins, clear lung fields with ECG findings of ST elevation in II, III, and aVR Pre-load dependent, so avoid nitrates and opioids
66
Most common cause of malignant otitis external? Treatment?
Pseudomonas can use an Abx with pseudomonas coverage, such as IV ciprofloxacin. If this therapy fails to improve symptoms, patient should be treated with a broad spectrum beta-lactam, such as pip-tazo, ceftazidime, and cefepime
67
When can you not use FENa for evaluation of kidney injury? What should be used instead?
You cannot use FENa in the case of a patient on diuretics in which case the kidneys' ability to retain sodium is impaired. You have to use FEUrea instead FEUrea = 100% * [(Urine urea)*(Serum creatinine)]/[(Blood urea nitrogen)*(Urine creatinine)] FEUrea below 35% suggests prerenal acute kidney injury
68
What is the complication of infection with vibrio vulnificus, and what is the treatment?
Complication - sepsis or necrotizing fasciitis | Treatment - doxycycline and ceftazidime
69
Definition of a prolonged QT?
QTC > 480 ms QTc = (QT interval)/(square root of RR interval)
70
Sx of Fournier gangrene, what are predisposing conditions?
(usually preceded by anorectal, urogenital, or dermatologic infection) Sx - exquisite pain and tenderness often preceded by a prodrome of fever and lethargy. As tissue necrosis occurs, there is increasing pain and erythema that progresses to a dusky skin appearance. Ultimately, causes crepitus, purulent drainage, and gangrene of the genitals predisposing conditions - diabetes, morbid obesity, liver disease (alcoholic hepatitis or cirrhosis), and other causes of immune dysfunction (HIV, immunosuppressive meds)
71
What is the treatment for benzo withdrawal?
long half-life benzos, typically diazepam or chlordiazepoxide
72
triad of acute cholangitis and tx?
fever, RUQ pain, jaundice Tx = IV zosyn
73
Sx of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
fever, muscular rigidity, AMS, and autonomic dysfunction
74
Sx of acute cholecystitis?
postprandial RUQ pain, fever, leukocytosis, positive Murphy's sign
75
What is the immediate management of Boerhaave syndrome?
NPO status, IV PPI, and IV broad-spectrum Abx EGD shouldn't be done if presenting >48 hours after symptoms or if clinical signs of sepsis are present
76
Dx and Tx of acute chest syndrome
(pulmonary manifestation of sickle cell disease) Dx - new infiltrate on CXR in combo with at least one clinical sign or symptom (chest pain, cough, wheezing, tachypnea, fever) Tx - if patient doesn't improve with symptomatic treatment, exchange transfusion is indicated
77
Sx of malaria and prophylaxis against
Sx - periodic fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, hemolytic anemia, and jaundice prophylaxis: atovaquone/proguanil, doxycycline, or mefloquine
78
Lemierre syndrome cause, sx, and complication?
cause - F. necrophorum bacteria most commonly Sx - pharyngitis, fever, sepsis Complication - bacterial thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein
79
presentation of a hemolytic transfusion reaction
acute onset of fever, flank pain, and red/brown urine that begins soon after a transfusion is initiated
80
Sx of acute intermittent porphyria (AIP)
abdominal pain, followed by psychiatric symptoms and peripheral neuropathies (which are predominantly motor). Less common CNS effects are seizures, delirium, cortical blindness, and coma
81
Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB) drug effects, MOA, complications
causes AMS, unconsciousness, and impaired recall known as a date rape drug GABAB receptor agonist Complications include respiratory depression and convulsions
82
3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) street name, effects, adverse effects
ectasy causes euphoria and heightened sensations Adverse effects - hyperthermia and dehydration
83
Lysergic acid diethylamide street name, effects, adverse effects
LSD AMS and hallucinations Adverse effects - severe anxiety/panic attacks ("bad trip")
84
CSF analysis in bacterial meningitis?
elevated opening pressure, elevated WBC (predominantly neutrophils), elevated protein, and decreased glucose