Embryo T3 CQ Flashcards by Aubrey Ann

Which of these cell and tissue types arises from cranial, but not trunk, neural crest cells? A. Sensory ganglia B. Adrenal medulla C. Melanocytes D. Schwann cells E. None of the above

E. None of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a poor substrate for migrating neural crest cells? A. Laminin B. Chondroitin sulfate C. Fibronectin D. Type IV collagen E. Hyaluronic acid

B. Chondroitin sulfate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Neural crest cells arise from which of the following? A. Somite B. Dorsal non-neural ectoderm C. Neural tube D. Splanchnic mesoderm E. Yolk sac endoderm

C. Neural tube

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is involved in the migration of neural crest cells from the neural tube? A. Snail B. BMP-2 C. Mash-1 D. Norepinephrine E. Glial growth factor

A. Snail (Slug)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is not a derivative of neural crest? A. Sensory neurons B. Motor neurons C. Schwann cells D. Adrenal medulla E. Dental papilla

B. Motor neurons

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What maintains the competence of neural cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons? A. Shh B. Acetylcholine C. Mash 1 D. Glial growth factor E. TGF-Beta

C. Mash 1

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If trunk neural crest cells are transplanted into the cranial region, they can form all of the following types of cells except: A. Pigment cells B. Schwann cells C. Sensory neurons D. Cartilage E. Autonomic neurons

D. Cartilage

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What molecule produced by the notochord is instrumental in inducing the floor plate of neural plate? A. Hoxa-5 B. Retinoic acid C. Pax-3 D. Msx-1 E. Shh

E. Shh

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The cell bodies of the motor neurons of a spinal nerve arise from which of the following? A. Basal plate B. Marginal zone C. Floor plate D. Roof plate E. Alar plate

A. Basal plate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Growth cones adhere strongly to a substrate containing which of the following? A. Acetylcholine B. Laminin C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine E. Shh

B. Laminin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Complete failure of the neural tube to close in the region of the spinal cord is: A. Spina bifida occulata B. Meningocele C. Cranioschisis D. Rachischisis E. Myelomeningocele

D. Rachischisis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Rhombomeres are segmental divisions of which of the following? A. Forebrain B. Midbrain C. Hindbrain D. Spinal cord E. None of the above

C. Hindbrain

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Rathke’s pouch arises from which of the following? A. Diencephalon B. Stomodeal ectoderm C. Mesencephalon D. Pharyngeal endoderm E. Infundibulum

B. Stomodeal ectoderm

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Shaping of the snout involves the establishment of a gradient between which of the following pairs of signals? A. FGF-8 and Edn-1 B. Hox and Pax C. TGF-2 an dBMP-4 D. FGF-8 and Shh

D. FGF-8 and Shh

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In craniofacial development, segmentation of the cranial neural tube occurs as a result of expression of which of the following genes? A. Sox B. BM) C. Hox D. TGF

C. Hox

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Except for the pharyngeal muscles, pharyngeal arch mesoderm (tendons, etc.) are derived from which of the following? A. Neural crest B. Somitomeres C. Paraxial mesoderm D. Parachordal mesoderm

A. Neural crest

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In molar development, induction of secondary enamel knots by the primary enamel knot followed by apoptosis of the primary enamel knot is associated with which of the following morphogenic events? A. Formation of future molar cusps B. Induction of the ameloblast layer C. Induction of ondontoblast layer D. Formation of the dental sac

A. Formation of future molar cusps

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

At which of the following stages in tooth development do both the ameloblast and odontoblast layers first appear together? A. Tooth bud stage B. Cap stage C. Bell stage D. Dental sac stage

C. Bell stage

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is necessary for tooth development to continue past the bud stage? A. BMP-4 B. Shh C. FGF-8 D. Pax-9

D. Pax-9

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cleft lip results from lack of fusion of which of the following? A. Nasomedial and nasolateral process B. Nasomedial and maxillary processes C. Nasolateral and maxillary D. Nasolateral and mandibular processes

B. Nasomedial and maxillary processes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following abnormalities in teath development is characterized by teeth the appear blue-gray or amber brown and are opalescent and may be caused by mutation in type I collagen? A. Amelogenesis imperfecta B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta C. Enamel fluorosis D. KGB syndrome

B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Muscles of facial expression are innervated by cranial nerve seven. This relationship would suggest that these muscles are derived form which of the following pharyngeal arches? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

B. Second

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The malleus of the middle ear in mammals is derived from which of the following former jaw articulation bones? A. Columella B. Meckel’s cartilage C. Quadrate D. Articular

Articular

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which bone forms around Meckel’s cartilage? A. Mandible B. Malleus C. Stapes D. Maxilla

A. Mandible

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following develop from the third pharyngeal pouch in response to high concentrations of Shh? A. Thyroid B. Superior parathyroids C. Thymus D. Inferior parathyroids

D. Inferior parathyroids

Hypoplasia of mandible and facial bones is commonly associated with an autosomal dominant condition involving TCOF1 gene. IN this condition, there is reduced populationof neural crest cells in 1st pharyngeal arch. This condition is associated with which of the following anomalies? A. Treacher Collins Syndrome B. Pierre Robin Syndrom C. DiGeorge syndrome

A. Treacher Collins Syndrome

Which of the following is derived from Rathke’s pouch? A. Neurohypophysis B. Thymus C. Adenohypophysis D. Thyroid

C. Adenohypophysis

The auditory tube is derived of which of the following pharyngeal pouches? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

First

Calcitonin secreting cells (C cells\_, embedded in the thyroid gland, are derived from which of the following primordia? A. Ventral midline gut endoderm B. Third pharyngeal pouch C. Fourth pharyngeal pouch D. Rathke’s pouch

C. Fourth pharyngeal pouch

An infant with a tuft of hair over the lumbar region of the vertebral column undergoes surgery for a congenital anomaly in that region. During surgery it was found that the dura and arachnoid layers over the spinal cord were complete, but that the neural arches of several vertebra were missing. What condition did the infant have? Meningocele Meningomyelocele Encephalocele Spina bifida occulta rachischisis

Spina bifida occulta

6 month- old infant exhibits multiple congenital defects, including cleft palate, deafness, ocular hypertelorism, and a white forelock but otherwise but otherwise dark hair on his head. The probable diagnosis is CHARGE association Von Recklinghausen's disease (fibroneuromas) Hirchsprung's disease Waardenburg's syndrome None of the above

Waardenburg's syndrome

Neural-crest derived cells constitute a significant component of which tissue of the eye Neural retina Lens Optic nerve Cornea None

Cornea

The otic placode arises through an inductive message given off by the Telencephalon Rhombencephalon Infundibulum Diencephalon Mesencephalon

Rhombencephalon

What molecule plays a role in guidance of advancing retinal axons through the optic nerve Pax2 FGF3 BMP4 PAX6 BMP7

Pax2

Surface ectoderm is induced to become corneal epithelium by an inductive event originating in the Optic cup Chordamesoderm Optic vesicle Lens vesicle Neural retina

Lens vesicle

The second pharyngeal arch contributes to the Cochlea and earlobe Auditory tube and incus Stapes and earlobe Auditory tube and stapes Otic vesicle and stapes

Stapes and earlobe

The facial nerve (CN 7) supplies muscles derived from which pharyngeal arch? First Second Third Fourth Sixth

Second

In the case of holoprosencephaly, defects of facial structures are typically secondary to defects of the Pharynx Oral cavity Forebrain Eyes Hindbrain

Forebrain

Meckel's cartilage is a prominent structure in the early formation of the Upper jaw Hard palate Nasal septum Soft palate Lower jaw

Lower jaw

An early induction in tooth development consists of the ectoderm of the dental epithelium acting on the underlying neural crest mesenchyme. Which of the following molecules is an important mediator of the inductive stimulus? BMP-4 Tenascin Hoxb-13 Msx-1 Syndecan

BMP-4

Which of following does not connect directly with the primary nephric (mesonephric) duct? Metanephros Cloaca Nephrotomes Mesonephric tubules Ureteric bud

Metanephros

Which association is correct? Potter's facies and hydramnios Urachal fistula and hydramnios Horseshoe kidney and superior mesneteric artery GDNF and metanephrogenic blastema Bilateral renal agenesis and compensatory hypertrophy

GDNF and metanephrogenic blastema

Which defect is strongly associated with olifohydramnios? Pelvic kideny Renal agenesis Horseshoe kidney Crossed ectopia Polycystic kidney

Renal agenesis

The uterus arises from? Paramesonephric ducts Urogenital sinus Mesonephric tubules Pronephric ducts Mesonephric ducts

Paramesonephric ducts

The metanephrogenic blastema is induced by the Pronephric duct Ureteric bud Mesonephric tubules Allantois Mesonephric duct

Ureteric bud

Nucleated erythrocytes found circulating in the embryo are produced in the Yolk sac Para-aortic clusters Liver Bone marrow None of above

Yolk sac

In a 7M fetus, blood draining the left temporalis muscle enters the heart via the Left anterior cardinal vein Coronary sinus Left common cardinal vein Superior vena cava None of above

Superior vena cava

Adherons are inductive particles released by what structure in the endocardinal cushion area? Endocardium Cardiac jelly Myocardium Epicardium None of above

Myocardium

Neural crest contributes to the structures of which of the following Truncus arteriosus Ascending aorta Plumonary trunk All of the above None of the above

All of the above

For which of these cardiovascular malformations is a paten ductus arteriosus necessary for survival of the individual Atrial septal defect Ventricular septal defect Double aortic arch Right subclavian artery from arch of aorta None of the above

None of the above

5 days after birth, an infant becomes cyanotic during a prolonged crying spell. Cyanosis is most likely caused by venous blood entering the systemic circulation through the Interatrial septum Ductus arteriosus Ductus venosus Umbilical vein Interventricular septum

Interatrial septum

The internal carotid artery arises from aortic arch number 1 2 3 4 5

10. Infant w/ Tuft of hair, dura and arachnoid layers complete, neural arches of several vertebrae missing? Which of the following did it have? a. Meningocele b. Meningomyelocele c. Encephalocele d. Spina bifida occulta e. Rachischisis

d. Spina bifida occulta

18. Which of the following is caused by failure of the choroid fissure to close during the sixth week of pregnancy? a. Anophthalmos b. Microphthalamos c. Cyclopia d. Colobomo e. Presbyopia

Colobomo

Neural crest cells form many components of the nervous system but do not form what?

Motor neurons

What mutant has specific behavioral defects related to the cerebellum? Due to what abnormal cell? Formation of what abnormal

Weaver Radial glial cells in cerebellum Formation of granular layer of the cerebellar cortex

What is characterized by abnormal behavior and absence of normal cortical layering? What is defective? What does this do?

Reeler Reelin: extracellular protein defective Reelin: may serve as a stop signal for radial neuronal migration or as an insertional signal for migrating neurons

Rostral patterning center?

FGF-8

What may serve as a stop signal for radial neuronal migration or as an insertional signal for migrating neurons

Reelin

Dorsal patterning center?

BMPs and Wnts

Ventral patterning center

Shh

Neural crest cells are from what?

Neural plate

Neural crest cells from trunk transplanted into head form most neural crest derivates except -What also differentiates

Cartilage or skeletal elements (even though normally do) Some cells differentiate into cholinergic parasym instead of adrenal sympathetic normally produced

Most neural crest cells from somites 1-3

Pass into pharyngeal arches 4 and 6 or form cardiac crest

Neural crest cells from somites R4-R7

Make up vagal crest Form parasympathetic innervation for digestive tract

What induces formation of lens placed from lens ectoderm?

Optic vesicle

Absence of Pax6 in eye development

Optic vesicle can't induce formation of lens placode

Corneal epithelium is induced to from cornea by what?

Lens vesicle

groove in optic vesicle is what?

Choroid fissure

What runs in the choroid fissure?

Hyaloid artery to posterior chamber

Rathke's pouch is an evagination from the roof of what? What is its primordium for the anterior pituitary

Stomodeal ectoderm -Adenohypophysis

First arch develops into ______ because of the lack of _____ gene expression

Jaws Hox

Expression of what keeps arch 2 from differentiating into arch 1 and forming jaws

Hoxa2

Segmentation of cranial neural tube occurs as a result of what gene expression

Hox

Frontonasal ectodermal zone, shaping of tip of snout is done by what

Shh and FGF-8

What is necessary for tooth development to continue past the bud stage

Pax9

Primary enamel knots can give rise to secondary enamel knots which progress to what

Molar cusps

For salivary gland development the signaling between Shh and FGF occurs where

Within the epithelium (Rather then between epithelium and mesenchyme)

Malformation of anterior endoderm and prechordial plate leads to this clinical

Holoprosencephaly

Main organizer for pharyngeal arch development is

Foregut endoderm

The opening of the thyroglossal duct that persists as a small pit at base of tongue

Foramen cecum

Prevents neurons from crossing the midline of the central nervous system

Slit-2 and Robo

Uroplakins

Proteins that make the ureter epithelium impermeable to water

Steps in potters syndrome

1. Renal agenesis --\> 2. Reduced urinary output --\> 3. Oligohydramnios--\> 4a. Hip dislocation 4b. pulmonary hypoplasia --\> death 4c. flattened face and ears

If SRY gene then get what factor

Sox-9

What maintains meiotic competency of germ cells and without individuals would be sterile

Dazl

Primary heart field -Name -Part of heart -Exposure -Timeline -Express

Heart crescent Left ventricle and atria -atria if high RA -ventral if not RA Most primitive Express Hand-1

Secondary heart field -Part of heart -Derived -Form -Express

Right ventricle and proximal outflow tract Derived from pharyngeal mesoderm Can form cardiac or skeletal muscle Express Hand-2

Primary myocardium is guided by

Tbx-2

What is the first asymmetrical embryonic structure to appear

Cardiac tube

Chamber myocardium is guided by

Tbx-5

Interatrial septum primum

Downward growth from cephalic wall of single atrium to endocardial cushion Separates atrium into left and right chambers

Interatrial septum secundum

Forms to the right of septum primumand grows from dorsal to the ventral part of atrium

Foramen ovale -what is it -where

Right to left atrial shunt Space formed within the septum secundum

Fourth aortic arch -Right -Left Sixth aortic arch -associated with -dorsal portion

Right- Right subclavian A Left- Aortic arch Pulmonary system Dorsal portion becomes ductus arterioles shunt --\> ligamentum arteriosus

Right vitelline vein becomes

Portal vein

Left umbilical vein becomes

Hepatic portal vein

What allows oxygenated placental blood to bypass capillary network of liver

Ductus venosus

Embryo T3 CQ Flashcards

(98 cards)