Questions Flashcards
(173 cards)
1
Q
- The principal energy source for ejaculation spermatozoa is: a. prostatic acid phosphatase b. internal glucose c. prostatic citric acid d. fructose in seminal vesicle fluid e. glycogen release from the vaginal epithelium
A
d. fructose in seminal vesicle fluid
2
Q
- Of the barriers to sperm survival and transport within the female reproductive tract, low pH is most important in the: a. upper uterine tube b. lower uterine tube c. uterine cavity d. cervix (is a barrier for other reasons not pH) e. vagina
A
e. vagina
3
Q
- During the menstrual cycle, a sharp spike in plasma levels of which of the following hormone jus before ovulation is responsible for ovulation? a. fsh b. LH c. estrogen d. progesterone e. estradiol 17 beta
A
b. LH
4
Q
- Transcription of which of the following genes is required to permit cleavage to proceed to the 2 cell stage in mammalian embryos? a. nanog b. 4-oct c. cdx-2 d. sox-2
A
b. 4-oct
5
Q
- Which of the following cells are responsible for the production of testosterone in the testes? a. sertoli cells b. leydig cell c. grandulose cells d. spermatogonia
A
b. leydig cell
6
Q
- The graafian follicle, in addition to participating in ovulation, also has endocrine function. What components of the graafin cfollicle formteh corpus luteum? a. granulose cells b. Thecal cells c. Corona radiate cells d. Both granulose and thecal cells
A
d. Both granulose and thecal cells
7
Q
- In mammalian embryos, unlike non mammalian and inverte embryos, most transcription via the embryonic genome, as opposed to the maternal genome, occurs as early as which ofhe following stages a. zygote b. 4-cell stage c. balstula d. gastula
A
b. 4-cell stage
8
Q
- In Drosophoila from which ofhte following genes categories adre mRNA derived fromt eh maternal genone rathe than embryonic genome a. Egg polarity genes b. Pair rule genes c. Homeotic genes d. Gap genes
A
a. Egg polarity genes
9
Q
- Which of the following is a transcription factor a. FGF b. Pax c. TGF d. Notch e. Wnt
A
b. Pax
10
Q
- Zinc fingers or helix loop helix arrangements are characteristic of members of what class of molecules? a. Proto-oncogenes b. Signaling molecules c. Receptors d. Transcription factors e. None of the above
A
d. Transcription factors
11
Q
- Sonic hedgehog is produced in which signaling center a. Notochord b. Interstinal portals c. Floor plate of neural tube d. Zone of polarizing activity in the limb bud e. All of the above
A
e. All of the above
12
Q
- Based on your knowledge of paralogous groups, which gene would be expressed most anteriorly in the embryo? a. Hoxa-13 b. Hoxc-9 c. Hoxd-13 d. Hoxb-1 e. Hoxb-6
A
d. Hoxb-1
13
Q
- The principal inductor in primary neural induction is the: a. Hypoblast b. Primitive streak c. Extraembryonic mesoderm d. Notochordal process e. Embryonic ectoderm
A
d. Notochordal process
14
Q
- Cells of which germ layer are not present in the oropharyngeal membrane? a. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. All are present
A
b. Mesoderm
15
Q
- Brachyury, a deficiency in caudal tissues in the body, is cuased by a mutation in what gene? a. Lim-1 b. Noggin c. T d. Sonic hedgehog e. Activin
A
c. T
16
Q
- Hypoblast is a bilaminar, early embryo gives rise to which of the following tissue types? a. Extraembryonic only b. Embryonic only c. Embryonic and extraembryonic d. Neither
A
a. Extraembryonic only
17
Q
- In meiosis pair of homologous chromosomes begins during which of the followoing stages of prophase I: a. Leptotine b. Zygotene c. Pachytene d. Diplotene
A
b. Zygotene
18
Q
- Which of the following description best describes the oogonium and the ovary during the early fetal period? a. Diploid, no follicle b. Diploid, few follicle cells c. Haploid, no follicle d. Haploid, few follicle cells
A
a. Diploid, no follicle
19
Q
- Inhibin released by the granulose cells during the mammary cycle inhibits secretions of gonadotropins especially FSH. Resulting in which of the following
A
Regression of the corpus luteum
20
Q
- Splitting of the blastocyst during early development, results in the two complete blastocyst enclose within a single trophoblast is the most common mode of twinning. Assuming complete normal identical twins result what developmental property is illustrated? a. Differentiation b. Determination c. Regulation d. Morphogenesis
A
c. Regulation
21
Q
A 33 year old woman has have both ovaries removed because of large bilateral ovarian cyst. The next year she is on an extended expedition in northern canada, and her canoe tips, sending her replacement hormonal medicate to the bottom of the lake. More than 6 weeks elapse before she is able to obtain a new supply of medication. Which of the following would be least affected by the loss of the medication? A. blood levels of FSH and LH B. Ciliated cells of the uterine tube C. Mass of the heart D. Glandular tissue of the breasts E. Thickness of the endometirum
A
C. Mass of the heart
22
Q
During spermatogenesis, histone is replaced by which of the following, to allow better packing of the condensed chromatin in the head of the spermatozoon? A. inhibin b. prostaglandin E c. testosterone d. protamine e. androgen-binding protein
A
d. protamine
23
Q
Which cell type is located outside the blood-testis barrier? A. spermatozoon B. Secondary spermatocyte C. Spermatid D. Primary spermatocyte E. Spermatogonium
A
E. Spermatogonium
24
Q
Which of the following cells normally participates in mitotic divisions? A. primary oocyte B. oogonium C. Primary spermatocyte D. spermatid E. secondary spermatocyte
A
B. oogonium
25
At what stage of oogenesis is meiosis arrested in the female?
At prophase (dipotene stage) of the first meiotic division and at metaphase of second meiotic division
26
What is the underlain cause of most spontaneous abortions during the early weeks of pregnancy?
Chromosomal abnormalities such as polyploidy
27
The actions of what hormones are responsible for the changes in the endometrium during the menstrual cycle
Estrogen, secreted by ovary support preovulatory proliferative phase Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum
28
Sertoli cells in the testis are stimulated by what two major reproductive hormones?
FSH produced by anterior pituitary Testosterone produced by Leydig cells
29
What is the principle hormonal stimulus for ovulation?
The sharp surge of LH
30
What is capacitation?
Interaction between a spermatozoon and female reproductive tissues that increase sperm ability to fertilize an egg
31
Where does fertilization occur?
upper this of uterine tube
32
What is polyspermy, how is it prevented after a spermatozoon enters the egg
prevented through fast block
33
What is the most common condition associated with spontaneous aborted embryos? A. Maternal imprinting B. Paternal imprinting C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Chromosomal abnormailites E. Lack of X-chromosomal inactivation
D. Chromosomal abnormailites
34
What tissue from the implanting embryo directly interfaces with the endometrial connective tissue A. Corona radiata B. Inner cell mass C. Extraembryonic mesoderm D. Epiblast E. Syncytiotrophoblast
E. Syncytiotrophoblast
35
The zona pellucida: A. Aids in the penetration of the endometrail epithelium B. Serves as a source of nutrients for the embryo C. Prevents premature implantation of the cleaving embryo D. All of the above E. None
C. Prevents premature implantation of the cleaving embryo
36
What is the importance of the inner cell mass of the cleaving embryo?
The embryonic body proper arises from the inner cell mass
37
Parental imprinting is a phenomenon showing that certain homologous maternal and paternal chromosomes have different influences on the development of the embryo. Excess paternal influences result in abnormal development of what type of tissue at the expense of development of the embryo itself?
Trophoblastic issues
38
What is the function of integrins in implantation?
They allow the trophoblast of the embryo to adhere to the uterine epitheium
39
Where in the cell is the retinoid acid receptor located?
The receptors for retinoid acid are located in nucleus
40
A mutation for what receptor is the basis for basal carcinomas of the skin? A. Patched B. Retinoic acid C. Notch D. FGF receptor E. None
A. Patched
41
Zinc finger or helix loop helix arrangements are characteristic of members of what class of molecules? A. proto-oncogenes B. signaling molecules C. Receptors D. Transcription factors E. None
D. Transcription factors
42
Sonic hedgehog is produced in which signaling center? A. notochord B. intestinal portals C. Floor plate of neural tube D. Zone of polarizing activity in limb bud E. All
E. All
43
A 35 year old married man with a history of chronic respiratory infection sis found on a routine X-ray examination to have dextrocardia. Further physical examination and imaging studies reveal that he has complete sinus inversus. He has also been going to another clinic for completely different problem, which is related to the same underlying defects. What clinic a. urology b. dermatology c. infertility d. orthopedic e. oncology
c. infertility Because of respitatory issues with situs inverses, probably has mutation of a dynein gene. Person have immotile sperm
44
Which of the following tissues arises from cells passing through the primitive streaks? a. embryonic endoderm b. hypoblast c. cytotrophoblast d. primary yolk sac e. anmion
b. hypoblast
45
The prechordal plate plays an important role in regionalization of the: a. notochord b. forebrain c. embryonic mesoderm d. primitive node e. hindbrain
b. forebrain
46
Which layer of the bilaminar (two-layered) embryo gives rise to all of the embryonic tissue proper?
Epibalst
47
Of what importance is the primitive node in embryonic development?
acts as organizer
48
The migration of mesodermal cells from the primitive streak is facilitated by the presence of what molecules of the extracellular matrix?
hyaluronic acid and fibronectin
49
What molecules can bring about mesodermal induction in an early embryo
Vg1 and activin
50
At what stage in the life history of many cells are cell adhesion molecules lost?
migratory phase Re-express when settle down
51
Which of the following cell and tissue types arise from crania, but not trunk, neural crest cells? a. adrenal medulla b. schwann cells c. melanocytes d. sensory ganglia e. none of the above
none of the above
52
Which of the following is a poor substrate for migrating neural neural crest cells? a. fibronectin b. chondroitin sulfate c. laminin d. collagen IV e. hyaluronic acid
chondroitin sulfate
53
Neural crest cells arise from which of the following? a. somite b. dorsal-non-neural ectoderm c. neural tube d. splanchnic mesoderm e. yolk sac endoderm
neural tube
54
4. Which of the following is involved in the migration of neural crest cells from the neural tube? a. Snail b. BMP-2 c. Mash-1 d. Norepinephrine e. Glial growth factor
Snail
55
5. Which is not a derivative of the neural crest? a. Sensory neurons b. Motor neurons c. Schwann cells d. Adrenal medulla e. Dental papilla
Motor neurons
56
6. What maintains the competence of neural cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons? a. Shh b. Acetylcholine c. Mash 1 d. Glial growth factor e. TGF-beta
Mash1
57
7. If trunk neural crest cells are transplanted into the cranial region they can form all the following types of cells except? a. Pigment b. Schwann c. Sensory neurons d. Cartilage e. Autonomic neurons
Cartilage
58
8. What molecules produced by notochord is instrumental in inducing the floor plate of the neural tube? a. Hoxa-5 b. Retinoic acid c. Pax-3 d. Msx-1 e. Shh
Shh
59
9. The cell bodies of the motor neurons of a spinal nerve arise from which of the following? a. Basal plate b. Marginal zone c. Floor plate d. Roof plate e. Alar plate
Basal plate
60
10. Infant w/ Tuft of hair, dura and arachnoid layers complete, neural arches of several vertebrae missing? Which of the following did it have? a. Meningocele b. Meningomyelocele c. Encephalocele d. Spina bifida occulta e. Rachischisis
Spina bifida occulta
61
11. Growth cones adhere strongly to a substrate containing which of the following? a. Acetylcholine b. Laminin c. Epinephrine d. Norepinephrine e. Shh
Laminin
62
Complete fail of the neural tube to close in the region of the spinal cord is which of the following? a. Spina bifida occulta b. Meningocele c. Cranioschisis d. Rachischisis e. Myelomeningocele
Rachischisis
63
13. Rhombomeres are segmental divisions of which of the following? a. Forebrain b. Midbrain c. Hindbrain d. Spinal cord e. None of the above
Hindbrain
64
Rathke’s pouch arises from which the following? a. Diencephalon b. Stomodeal ectoderm c. Mesencephalon d. Pharyngeal endoderm e. Infundibulum
Stomodeal ectoderm
65
15. Neural crest-derived cells constitute a significant component of which tissue of the eye? a. Neural retina b. Lens c. Optic nerve d. Cornea e. None of the above
Cornea
66
16. What molecule palys a role in guidance of advancing retinal axons through the optic nerve? a. Pax-2 b. FGF-3 c. BMP-4 d. Pax-6 e. BMP-7
Pax-2
67
Surface ectoderm is induced to become corneal epithelium by an inductive event originating in which of the following? a. Optic cup b. Chordamesoderm c. Optic vesicle d. Lens vesicle e. Neural retina
Lens vesicle
68
18. Which of the following is caused by failure of the choroid fissure to close during the sixth week of pregnancy? a. Anophthalmos b. Microphthalamos c. Cyclopia d. Colobomo e. Presbyopia
Colobomo
69
In early days after birth, infant does not pass fecal material and develops abdominal swelling. An anal opening is present. What is condition? a. CHARGE association b. Von Recklinghausen's disease c. Hirchsprung's disease d. Waardenburg's syndrome e. None of the above
Congenital megacolon (hirschsprung's disease)
70
newborn diagnosed as having incomplete separation btw aorta and pulmonary artery (a mild form of persistent truncus arteriosus). Later, after corrective heart surgery she has more colds and sore throats than her siblings. After testing, the physician tells parents there is evidence of immunodificency. The physician also tells the parents to check parathyroid hormone. What is the basis? a. CHARGE association b. Von Recklinghausen's disease c. Hirchsprung's disease d. Waardenburg's syndrome e. DiGeorge
DiGeorge's syndrome
71
6 month- old infant exhibits multiple congenital defects, including cleft palate, deafness, ocular hypertelorism, and a white forelock but otherwise but otherwise dark hair on his head. The probable diagnosis is a. CHARGE association b. Von Recklinghausen's disease c. Hirchsprung's disease d. Waardenburg's syndrome e. None of the above
Waardenburg's syndrome
72
The otic placode arises through an inductive message given off by the Telencephalon Rhombencephalon Infundibulum Diencephalon Mesencephalon
RHombencephalon
73
The second pharyngeal arch contributes to the Cochlea and earlobe Auditory tube and incus Stapes and earlobe Auditory tube and stapes Otic vesicle and stapes
Auditory tube and stapes
74
What extracellular matrix molecule is often associated with migration of mesenchymal cells, and where does such an event occur in the developing eye
Hyaluronic acid Migration of N.C. cells into developing cornea occurs during a period when large amounts of hyaluronic acid have been secreted into the primary corneal stroma
75
Why are malformations or hypoplasia of the lower jaw commonly associated with abnormalities in the shape or position of the ears?
Similar to the lower jaw, much of the external ear arises from tissue of the 1st arch bordering the 1st pharyngeal cleft
76
Which of these cell and tissue types arises from cranial, but not trunk, neural crest cells? A. Sensory ganglia B. Adrenal medulla C. Melanocytes D. Schwann cells E. None of the above
E. None of the above
77
Which of the following is a poor substrate for migrating neural crest cells? A. Laminin B. Chondroitin sulfate C. Fibronectin D. Type IV collagen E. Hyaluronic acid
B. Chondroitin sulfate
78
Neural crest cells arise from which of the following? A. Somite B. Dorsal non-neural ectoderm C. Neural tube D. Splanchnic mesoderm E. Yolk sac endoderm
C. Neural tube
79
Which of the following is involved in the migration of neural crest cells from the neural tube? A. Snail B. BMP-2 C. Mash-1 D. Norepinephrine E. Glial growth factor
A. Snail (Slug)
80
Which is not a derivative of neural crest? A. Sensory neurons B. Motor neurons C. Schwann cells D. Adrenal medulla E. Dental papilla
B. Motor neurons
81
What maintains the competence of neural cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons? A. Shh B. Acetylcholine C. Mash 1 D. Glial growth factor E. TGF-Beta
C. Mash 1
82
If trunk neural crest cells are transplanted into the cranial region, they can form all of the following types of cells except: A. Pigment cells B. Schwann cells C. Sensory neurons D. Cartilage E. Autonomic neurons
D. Cartilage
83
What molecule produced by the notochord is instrumental in inducing the floor plate of neural plate? A. Hoxa-5 B. Retinoic acid C. Pax-3 D. Msx-1 E. Shh
E. Shh
84
The cell bodies of the motor neurons of a spinal nerve arise from which of the following? A. Basal plate B. Marginal zone C. Floor plate D. Roof plate E. Alar plate
A. Basal plate
85
Growth cones adhere strongly to a substrate containing which of the following? A. Acetylcholine B. Laminin C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine E. Shh
B. Laminin
86
Complete failure of the neural tube to close in the region of the spinal cord is: A. Spina bifida occulata B. Meningocele C. Cranioschisis D. Rachischisis E. Myelomeningocele
D. Rachischisis
87
Rhombomeres are segmental divisions of which of the following? A. Forebrain B. Midbrain C. Hindbrain D. Spinal cord E. None of the above
C. Hindbrain
88
Rathke’s pouch arises from which of the following? A. Diencephalon B. Stomodeal ectoderm C. Mesencephalon D. Pharyngeal endoderm E. Infundibulum
B. Stomodeal ectoderm
89
Shaping of the snout involves the establishment of a gradient between which of the following pairs of signals? A. FGF-8 and Edn-1 B. Hox and Pax C. TGF-2 an dBMP-4 D. FGF-8 and Shh
D. FGF-8 and Shh
90
In craniofacial development, segmentation of the cranial neural tube occurs as a result of expression of which of the following genes? A. Sox B. BM) C. Hox D. TGF
C. Hox
91
Except for the pharyngeal muscles, pharyngeal arch mesoderm (tendons, etc.) are derived from which of the following? A. Neural crest B. Somitomeres C. Paraxial mesoderm D. Parachordal mesoderm
A. Neural crest
92
In molar development, induction of secondary enamel knots by the primary enamel knot followed by apoptosis of the primary enamel knot is associated with which of the following morphogenic events? A. Formation of future molar cusps B. Induction of the ameloblast layer C. Induction of ondontoblast layer D. Formation of the dental sac
A. Formation of future molar cusps
93
At which of the following stages in tooth development do both the ameloblast and odontoblast layers first appear together? A. Tooth bud stage B. Cap stage C. Bell stage D. Dental sac stage
C. Bell stage
94
Which of the following is necessary for tooth development to continue past the bud stage? A. BMP-4 B. Shh C. FGF-8 D. Pax-9
D. Pax-9
95
Cleft lip results from lack of fusion of which of the following? A. Nasomedial and nasolateral process B. Nasomedial and maxillary processes C. Nasolateral and maxillary D. Nasolateral and mandibular processes
B. Nasomedial and maxillary processes
96
Which of the following abnormalities in teath development is characterized by teeth the appear blue-gray or amber brown and are opalescent and may be caused by mutation in type I collagen? A. Amelogenesis imperfecta B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta C. Enamel fluorosis D. KGB syndrome
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
97
Muscles of facial expression are innervated by cranial nerve seven. This relationship would suggest that these muscles are derived form which of the following pharyngeal arches? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
B. Second
98
The malleus of the middle ear in mammals is derived from which of the following former jaw articulation bones? A. Columella B. Meckel’s cartilage C. Quadrate D. Articular
Articular
99
Which bone forms around Meckel’s cartilage? A. Mandible B. Malleus C. Stapes D. Maxilla
A. Mandible
100
Which of the following develop from the third pharyngeal pouch in response to high concentrations of Shh? A. Thyroid B. Superior parathyroids C. Thymus D. Inferior parathyroids
D. Inferior parathyroids
101
Hypoplasia of mandible and facial bones is commonly associated with an autosomal dominant condition involving TCOF1 gene. IN this condition, there is reduced populationof neural crest cells in 1st pharyngeal arch. This condition is associated with which of the following anomalies? A. Treacher Collins Syndrome B. Pierre Robin Syndrom C. DiGeorge syndrome
A. Treacher Collins Syndrome
102
Which of the following is derived from Rathke’s pouch? A. Neurohypophysis B. Thymus C. Adenohypophysis D. Thyroid
C. Adenohypophysis
103
The auditory tube is derived of which of the following pharyngeal pouches? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
First
104
Calcitonin secreting cells (C cells\_, embedded in the thyroid gland, are derived from which of the following primordia? A. Ventral midline gut endoderm B. Third pharyngeal pouch C. Fourth pharyngeal pouch D. Rathke’s pouch
C. Fourth pharyngeal pouch
105
An infant with a tuft of hair over the lumbar region of the vertebral column undergoes surgery for a congenital anomaly in that region. During surgery it was found that the dura and arachnoid layers over the spinal cord were complete, but that the neural arches of several vertebra were missing. What condition did the infant have? Meningocele Meningomyelocele Encephalocele Spina bifida occulta rachischisis
Spina bifida occulta
106
6 month- old infant exhibits multiple congenital defects, including cleft palate, deafness, ocular hypertelorism, and a white forelock but otherwise but otherwise dark hair on his head. The probable diagnosis is CHARGE association Von Recklinghausen's disease (fibroneuromas) Hirchsprung's disease Waardenburg's syndrome None of the above
Waardenburg's syndrome
107
Neural-crest derived cells constitute a significant component of which tissue of the eye Neural retina Lens Optic nerve Cornea None
Cornea
108
The otic placode arises through an inductive message given off by the Telencephalon Rhombencephalon Infundibulum Diencephalon Mesencephalon
Rhombencephalon
109
What molecule plays a role in guidance of advancing retinal axons through the optic nerve Pax2 FGF3 BMP4 PAX6 BMP7
Pax2
110
Surface ectoderm is induced to become corneal epithelium by an inductive event originating in the Optic cup Chordamesoderm Optic vesicle Lens vesicle Neural retina
Lens vesicle
111
The second pharyngeal arch contributes to the Cochlea and earlobe Auditory tube and incus Stapes and earlobe Auditory tube and stapes Otic vesicle and stapes
Stapes and earlobe
112
The facial nerve (CN 7) supplies muscles derived from which pharyngeal arch? First Second Third Fourth Sixth
Second
113
In the case of holoprosencephaly, defects of facial structures are typically secondary to defects of the Pharynx Oral cavity Forebrain Eyes Hindbrain
Forebrain
114
Meckel's cartilage is a prominent structure in the early formation of the Upper jaw Hard palate Nasal septum Soft palate Lower jaw
Lower jaw
115
An early induction in tooth development consists of the ectoderm of the dental epithelium acting on the underlying neural crest mesenchyme. Which of the following molecules is an important mediator of the inductive stimulus? BMP-4 Tenascin Hoxb-13 Msx-1 Syndecan
BMP-4
116
Which of following does not connect directly with the primary nephric (mesonephric) duct? Metanephros Cloaca Nephrotomes Mesonephric tubules Ureteric bud
Metanephros
117
Which association is correct? Potter's facies and hydramnios Urachal fistula and hydramnios Horseshoe kidney and superior mesneteric artery GDNF and metanephrogenic blastema Bilateral renal agenesis and compensatory hypertrophy
GDNF and metanephrogenic blastema
118
Which defect is strongly associated with olifohydramnios? Pelvic kideny Renal agenesis Horseshoe kidney Crossed ectopia Polycystic kidney
Renal agenesis
119
The uterus arises from? Paramesonephric ducts Urogenital sinus Mesonephric tubules Pronephric ducts Mesonephric ducts
Paramesonephric ducts
120
The metanephrogenic blastema is induced by the Pronephric duct Ureteric bud Mesonephric tubules Allantois Mesonephric duct
Ureteric bud
121
Nucleated erythrocytes found circulating in the embryo are produced in the Yolk sac Para-aortic clusters Liver Bone marrow None of above
Yolk sac
122
In a 7M fetus, blood draining the left temporalis muscle enters the heart via the Left anterior cardinal vein Coronary sinus Left common cardinal vein Superior vena cava None of above
Superior vena cava
123
Adherons are inductive particles released by what structure in the endocardinal cushion area? Endocardium Cardiac jelly Myocardium Epicardium None of above
Myocardium
124
Neural crest contributes to the structures of which of the following Truncus arteriosus Ascending aorta Plumonary trunk All of the above None of the above
All of the above
125
For which of these cardiovascular malformations is a paten ductus arteriosus necessary for survival of the individual Atrial septal defect Ventricular septal defect Double aortic arch Right subclavian artery from arch of aorta None of the above
None of the above
126
5 days after birth, an infant becomes cyanotic during a prolonged crying spell. Cyanosis is most likely caused by venous blood entering the systemic circulation through the Interatrial septum Ductus arteriosus Ductus venosus Umbilical vein Interventricular septum
Interatrial septum
127
The internal carotid artery arises from aortic arch number 1 2 3 4 5
3
128
10. Infant w/ Tuft of hair, dura and arachnoid layers complete, neural arches of several vertebrae missing? Which of the following did it have? a. Meningocele b. Meningomyelocele c. Encephalocele d. Spina bifida occulta e. Rachischisis
d. Spina bifida occulta
129
18. Which of the following is caused by failure of the choroid fissure to close during the sixth week of pregnancy? a. Anophthalmos b. Microphthalamos c. Cyclopia d. Colobomo e. Presbyopia
Colobomo
130
Neural crest cells form many components of the nervous system but do not form what?
Motor neurons
131
What mutant has specific behavioral defects related to the cerebellum? Due to what abnormal cell? Formation of what abnormal
Weaver Radial glial cells in cerebellum Formation of granular layer of the cerebellar cortex
132
What is characterized by abnormal behavior and absence of normal cortical layering? What is defective? What does this do?
Reeler Reelin: extracellular protein defective Reelin: may serve as a stop signal for radial neuronal migration or as an insertional signal for migrating neurons
133
Rostral patterning center?
FGF-8
134
What may serve as a stop signal for radial neuronal migration or as an insertional signal for migrating neurons
Reelin
135
Dorsal patterning center?
BMPs and Wnts
136
Ventral patterning center
Shh
137
Neural crest cells are from what?
Neural plate
138
Neural crest cells from trunk transplanted into head form most neural crest derivates except -What also differentiates
Cartilage or skeletal elements (even though normally do) Some cells differentiate into cholinergic parasym instead of adrenal sympathetic normally produced
139
Most neural crest cells from somites 1-3
Pass into pharyngeal arches 4 and 6 or form cardiac crest
140
Neural crest cells from somites R4-R7
Make up vagal crest Form parasympathetic innervation for digestive tract
141
What induces formation of lens placed from lens ectoderm?
Optic vesicle
142
Absence of Pax6 in eye development
Optic vesicle can't induce formation of lens placode
143
Corneal epithelium is induced to from cornea by what?
Lens vesicle
144
groove in optic vesicle is what?
Choroid fissure
145
What runs in the choroid fissure?
Hyaloid artery to posterior chamber
146
Rathke's pouch is an evagination from the roof of what? What is its primordium for the anterior pituitary
Stomodeal ectoderm -Adenohypophysis
147
First arch develops into ______ because of the lack of _____ gene expression
Jaws Hox
148
Expression of what keeps arch 2 from differentiating into arch 1 and forming jaws
Hoxa2
149
Segmentation of cranial neural tube occurs as a result of what gene expression
Hox
150
Frontonasal ectodermal zone, shaping of tip of snout is done by what
Shh and FGF-8
151
What is necessary for tooth development to continue past the bud stage
Pax9
152
Primary enamel knots can give rise to secondary enamel knots which progress to what
Molar cusps
153
For salivary gland development the signaling between Shh and FGF occurs where
Within the epithelium (Rather then between epithelium and mesenchyme)
154
Malformation of anterior endoderm and prechordial plate leads to this clinical
Holoprosencephaly
155
Main organizer for pharyngeal arch development is
Foregut endoderm
156
The opening of the thyroglossal duct that persists as a small pit at base of tongue
Foramen cecum
157
Prevents neurons from crossing the midline of the central nervous system
Slit-2 and Robo
158
Uroplakins
Proteins that make the ureter epithelium impermeable to water
159
Steps in potters syndrome
1. Renal agenesis --\> 2. Reduced urinary output --\> 3. Oligohydramnios--\> 4a. Hip dislocation 4b. pulmonary hypoplasia --\> death 4c. flattened face and ears
160
If SRY gene then get what factor
Sox-9
161
What maintains meiotic competency of germ cells and without individuals would be sterile
Dazl
162
Primary heart field -Name -Part of heart -Exposure -Timeline -Express
Heart crescent Left ventricle and atria -atria if high RA -ventral if not RA Most primitive Express Hand-1
163
Secondary heart field -Part of heart -Derived -Form -Express
Right ventricle and proximal outflow tract Derived from pharyngeal mesoderm Can form cardiac or skeletal muscle Express Hand-2
164
Primary myocardium is guided by
Tbx-2
165
What is the first asymmetrical embryonic structure to appear
Cardiac tube
166
Chamber myocardium is guided by
Tbx-5
167
Interatrial septum primum
Downward growth from cephalic wall of single atrium to endocardial cushion Separates atrium into left and right chambers
168
Interatrial septum secundum
Forms to the right of septum primumand grows from dorsal to the ventral part of atrium
169
Foramen ovale -what is it -where
Right to left atrial shunt Space formed within the septum secundum
170
Fourth aortic arch -Right -Left Sixth aortic arch -associated with -dorsal portion
Right- Right subclavian A Left- Aortic arch Pulmonary system Dorsal portion becomes ductus arterioles shunt --\> ligamentum arteriosus
171
Right vitelline vein becomes
Portal vein
172
Left umbilical vein becomes
Hepatic portal vein
173
What allows oxygenated placental blood to bypass capillary network of liver
Ductus venosus
