Emergencies Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

What is the initial dose of adrenaline for anaphylactic shock?

A

500mcg of 1:1000 IM (repeat every 5 minutes)

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2
Q

3 investigations in sepsis

A

Blood cultures, Urine output hourly, Lactate

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3
Q

What is the recommended initial dose of oxygen for pulmonary edema?

A

15 L via non-rebreathe mask

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4
Q

What is the cutoff diameter in primary and secondary pneumothorax to determine whether or not to aspirate

A

2 cm and 1 cm

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5
Q

What antibiotics are recommended for meningitis before urgent transfer to the hospital?

A

Benzylpenicillin or cefotaxime (give IM)

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6
Q

What is the secondary prevention for TIA with an ABCD2 score ≥4?

A

Clopidogrel 75mg for life

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7
Q

What is the treatment for unconscious hypoglycemia?

A

20% glucose 50mL IV or glucagon 1mg IM/SC

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8
Q

What is the fluid of choice for initial resuscitation in DKA?

A

0.9% sodium chloride 500mL boluses

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9
Q

What is the antidote for paracetamol poisoning?

A

Acetylcysteine / activated charcoal (if within 1 hour)

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10
Q

What is the specific antagonist for benzodiazepine poisoning?

A

Flumazenil

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11
Q

What medication is administered after three shocks in non-shockable cardiac arrest rhythms?

A

Amiodarone 300mg IV

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12
Q

What does MONAC stand for in the context of ACS treatment?

A

Morphine, Oxygen, Nitrates, Aspirin, Clopidogrel

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13
Q

What is the recommended treatment for stable broad complex tachycardia with an irregular rhythm?

A

Magnesium sulfate 2g IV

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14
Q

What is the recommended duration for secondary prevention of ischemic stroke with clopidogrel?

A

Lifelong

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15
Q

What symptoms may overlap between meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Headache and neck stiffness

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16
Q

What type of hemorrhage presents with a lucid interval between loss of consciousness and rapid decline?

A

Extradural

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16
Q

What is the primary treatment for oesophageal varices-related upper GI bleed?

A

Terlipressin IV + endoscopic therapy (EVL) + antibiotic

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17
Q

What is the recommended treatment for conscious hypoglycemia?

A

Glucose 10-20g orally then a sustained carbohydrate

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18
Q

What symptoms may indicate aspirin poisoning?

A

Hyperventilation, tinnitus, vasodilatation

19
Q

What is the role of GTN (glyceryl trinitrate) in the management of pulmonary oedema?

A

Vasodilator for blood pressure control

20
Q

What is the recommended secondary prevention for ACS with the acronym ‘BADS’?

A

BB (bisoprolol), ACEi (ramipril), Dual antiplatelets (aspirin and clopidogrel), Statin (atorvastatin)

21
Q

What are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest included in ‘The H’s’?

A

Hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypo-/hyper-kalemia, hypothermia

22
Q

Complication of correction of chronic hypernatraemia too fast

A

cerebral oedema

23
Q

Sepsis 6 (3 in, 3 out)

A

In: oxygen, fluid challenge, broad-spectrum antibiotics

Out: Measure serum lactate, blood cultures, urine output

24
What is acute hypercalcaemia management
IV fluids + loop diuretics
25
Which transfusion blood product has the highest risk of bacterial contamination?
Platelet transfusion
26
Common triggers for anaphylaxis
Seafood, nuts, beans, chocolate, eggs, grains
27
Signs / symptoms of anaphylactic shock
Hypotension, tachycardia, widespread urticaria, swollen tongue, lips, eyes, laryngeal oedema, swollen epiglottis
28
Why does blood pressure drop in anaphylactic shock?
Vasodilatation, increased vascular permeability, fluid loss from vascular space
29
Which immunoglobulin and inflammatory cells are involved in anaphylaxis ?
IgE and mast cells
30
What enzyme / test can be used to detect anaphylaxis?
Tryptase
31
Dose of IM adrenaline in anaphylaxis of different age groups
- Up to 6 years old = 150 mcg - 6-12 years old = 300 mcg - Above 12 = 500 mcg (0.5 ml 1 in 1000)
32
Define refractory anaphylaxis and its management
2 doses of adrenaline (5 mins apart) fail to cease the reaction - seek specialist help to administer IV adrenaline
33
Post-anaphylaxis management
Non-sedating antihistamine, refer to allergy specialist, adrenaline auto-injector, tryptase (if query diagnosis)
34
When can we discharge patients following anaphylaxis?
- 2 hours in most patients - up to 6 hours if they required 2 doses of adrenaline / have a history of biphasic reaction - 12 hours if they had refractory anaphylaxis / severely unwell
35
ECG changes in hyperkalaemia
Absent P waves, tall tented T waves, widened QRS complexes, PR prolongation
36
Which drug is administered in severe hyperkalaemia and why?
Calcium gluconate IV - stabilises the cardiac membrane
37
Which 2 drugs are administered after calcium gluconate in severe hyperkalaemia and why?
Insulin and dextrose - to ensure potassium ions enter cells
38
How can we differentiate between second degree and third degree burns?
Third degree is a full thickness burn with no pain and no blisters
39
Common organic causes of reduced GCS
Head injury, SAH, intracerebral haemorrhage, ischaemic stroke, brain abscess, meningitis, poisoning, trauma
40
Non-brain causes of reduced GCS
Hepatic encephalopathy, hyperuraemic encephalopathy, sepsis
41
Pre-operative assessment
- Medical and drug history - FBC, U&Es, clotting, group and save, LFTs - CXR and ECG - Pregnancy test - Sickle cell test - Urinalysis - VTE risk
42
Signs of opioid overdose on examination
Respiratory depression Pinpoint pupils Shallow breathing Decreased GCS / GCS <15
43
Which type of hypersensitivity is anaphylaxis?
Type 1
44
What position should you place someone in with anaphylactic shock
Flat with legs raised To maximise venous return to the heart