EMRCS PATHO 3 Flashcards

1
Q

A 34 year old lady undergoes an elective cholecystectomy for attacks of recurrent cholecystitis due to gallstones. Microscopic assessment of the gallbladder is most likely to show which of the following?

	Dysplasia of the fundus
	Widespread necrosis
	Aschoff-Rokitansky sinuses
	Metaplasia of the fundus
	None of the above
A

Aschoff-Rokitansky sinuses are the result of hyperplasia and herniation of epithelial cells through the fibromuscular layer of the gallbladder wall. They may be macroscopic or microscopic. Ashoff-Rokitansky sinuses may be identified in cases of chronic cholecystitis and gallstones. Although gallstones may predispose to the development of gallbladder cancer the actual incidence of dysplasia and metaplastic change is rare. In the elective setting described above necrosis would be rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A 25 year old man from the far east presents with a fever and right upper quadrant pain. As part of his investigations a CT scan shows an ill defined lesion in the right lobe of the liver. What is the most probable cause?

	Hydatid cyst
	Amoebic abscess
	Hepatocellular carcinoma
	Simple liver cyst
	Liver cell adenoma
A

Amoebic abscess
Liver abscess is the most common extra intestinal manifestation of amoebiasis
Between 75 and 90% lesions occur in the right lobe
Presenting complaints typically include fever and right upper quadrant pain
Ultrasonography will usually show a fluid filled structure with poorly defined boundaries
Aspiration yield sterile odourless fluid which has an anchovy paste consistency
Treatment is with metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following are not true of Li-Fraumeni syndrome?

It consists of mutations to the p53 tumour suppressor gene
Is likely to be present in a teenager presenting with a liposarcoma
It has an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern
Affected individuals are unlikely to develop acute myeloid leukaemia
Adrenal malignancies are more common than in normal population
A

They are at high risk of developing leukaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A 35 year old type 1 diabetic presents with difficulty mobilising and back pain radiating to the thigh. He has a temperature of 39 oC and has pain on extension of the hip. He is diagnosed with an iliopsoas abscess. Which of the following statements is false in relation to his diagnosis?

Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely primary cause
Recurrence occurs in 60% cases
More common in males
Crohn's is the most likely secondary cause
CT guided drainage is preferable first line management
A

Classical features include: a limp, back pain and fever. Recurrence rates are about 15-20%. In the UK, Staphylococcus is the commonest primary cause, others include Streptococcus and E.coli. Management is ideally by CT guided drainage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following statements relating to parathyroid neoplasms is incorrect?

15% of cases are due to parathyroid carcinoma
80% of cases are due to parathyroid adenomas
Parathyroid adenomas are often encapsulated
10% of parathyroid adenomas develop in ectopically located glands
85% of cases of primary hyperparathyroidism are due to solitary adenomas
A

Parathyroid carcinomas account for up to 5% of tumours. Adenomas are often encapsulated. Lesions that are fibrotic and densely adherent to the gland may be a carcinoma. 85% cases of primary hyperparathyroidism are due to a single adenoma and this is the reason some surgeons favour a focused parathyroidectomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 20 year old girl presents with a thyroid cancer, she is otherwise well with no significant family history. On examination she has a nodule in the left lobe of the thyroid with a small discrete mass separate from the gland itself. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

	Follicular carcinoma
	Anaplastic carcinoma
	Medullary carcinoma
	Papillary carcinoma
	B Cell Lymphoma
A

Papillary carcinoma is the most common subtype and may cause lymph node metastasis (mass separate from the gland itself) that is rare with follicular tumours. Anaplastic carcinoma would cause more local symptoms and would be rare in this age group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 20 year old male presents with a tense, swollen knee joint. There is no history of antecedent trauma. On examination the joint is tense and swollen but there is no sign of injury. Plain x-rays show no fracture or arthritis. What is the most likely explanation?

Rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament
Rupture of the medial collateral ligament
Tibial plateau fracture
Haemophilia A
von Willebrands disease
A

Haemarthrosis without trauma is typically a feature of haemophilia A and B

Without a history of trauma, ligamentous rupture or tibial plateau fractures would be unusual.
Haemarthroses may occur in 45% of patients with severe von Willebrands disease. However, this is rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An 18 year old rock climber falls onto his left arm and sustains a large haematoma of the left upper arm. Unfortunately the wound associated with the injury is neglected and it becomes infected. Which of these changes is least likely to occur?

	Axillary lymphadenopathy
	Leucopenia
	Tenderness
	Mild pyrexia
	Local formation of yellow pus
A

Leucopenia would be unusual and should prompt a search for another cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A 17 year old man is identified as having a Meckels diverticulum. From which of the following embryological structures is it derived?

	Foregut
	Hindgut
	Urachus
	Cloaca
	Vitello-intestinal duct
A

The Meckels diverticulum is a persistence of the vitello-intestinal duct.
Rule of 2’s

2% of population
2 inches (5cm) long
2 feet (60 cm) from the ileocaecal valve
2 x's more common in men
2 tissue types involved
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is the most common childhood brain tumour?

	Glioblastoma multiforme
	Astrocytoma
	Medulloblastoma
	Ependymoma
	Meningioma
A

Glioblastoma multiforme is rare in childhood. In contrast, astrocytoma is the commonest brain tumour in children. Medulloblastoma is no longer the commonest CNS tumour in children (Cancer research UK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A patient is diagnosed with a Klatskin tumour which of the structures listed below is affected by this disease process?

	Kidney
	Stomach
	Colon
	Bile duct
	Spleen
A

A Klatskin tumor (or hilar cholangiocarcinoma) is a cholangiocarcinoma (cancer of the biliary tree) occurring at the confluence of the right and left hepatic bile ducts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following best describes the main pathological feature of generalized osteoporosis?

Reduction in volume of normally mineralized osteoid matrix
Increase in volume of normally mineralized osteoid matrix
Reduction in volume of abnormally mineralized osteoid matrix
Increase in volume of abnormally mineralized osteoid matrix
Significant increase in bony trabeculae that are excessively mineralised
A

Osteoporosis is characterized by reduction of normally mineralized osteoid matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A keen surgical trainee is about to embark on her first hemi arthroplasty for a fractured neck of femur. In the anaesthetic room the patient is given 1.2g intravenous co-amoxiclav. There is a possible history of penicillin allergy but the patient is demented and the history is not checked. The patient then develops severe respiratory compromise and haemodynamic collapse. Which pathological process accounts for this event?

Binding of the drug to circulating IgG class antibodies
Recognition of the drug by IgE receptors on mast cells
Drug initiated formation of hapten-protein complexes
Binding of the drug to circulating IgM class antibodies
None of the above
A

Anaphylactic shock:
Antigen recognised by IgE molecules on the surface of mast cells resulting in rapid degranulation with release of histamine and other inflammatory cytokines.

This is a case of anaphylactic shock. In anaphylaxis the mast cells degranulate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following hepatobiliary disorders are most classically associated with ulcerative colitis?

	Gallstones
	Primary sclerosing cholangitis
	Bile duct stones
	Liver hamartomas
	Hepatocellular carcinoma
A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis is an idiopathic inflammation of the bile ducts. It may result in episodes of cholestasis and cholangitis and ultimately result in the need for liver transplantation. It carries a 10% risk of malignant transformation. Crohns disease is associated with gallstones due to impaired entero-hepatic circulation. Apart from PSC, ulcerative colitis does not increase the risk of other liver lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is least associated with thrombosis?

	Endothelial cell damage
	Use of tourniquets in surgery
	Formation of platelet aggregates
	Thrombocytopenia
	Carcinoma of the stomach
A

Thrombocytopenia
All the other options either act directly to promote thrombosis e.g. endothelial cell damage or via changes in consistency or flow of blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A 16 year old boy develops a painful swelling of his distal femur. An osteoblastic sarcoma is diagnosed. To which of the following sites is this lesion most likely to metastasise?

	Inguinal lymph nodes
	Common iliac lymph nodes
	Liver
	Brain
	Lung
A

Sarcomas often metastasise via the haematogenous route and the lung is a common site for sarcoma metastasis. The liver and brain are often spared (at least initially). A smaller number may develop lymphatic metastasis (see above).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Infection with which of the following micro-organisms may result in a clinical picture resembling achalasia of the oesphagus?

	Epstein Barr virus
	Wuchereria Bancrofti
	Candida Spp
	Trypanosoma Cruzi
	Helicobacter Pylori
A

Infection with Trypanosoma Cruzi may result in destruction of the ganglion cells of the myenteric plexus, resulting in a clinical picture similar to achalasia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A 72 year old man has been unwell for many years and following his death a post mortem is performed. Tissue is submitted for microscopic evaluation. Evaluation of sections of the myocardium demonstrates evidence of apple green birefringence with polarised light. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Amyloidosis
	SLE
	Tuberculosis
	Disseminated B cell lymphoma
	Systemic sclerosis
A

Amyloidosis = apple green birefringence with polarised light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A 50 year old male presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. Blood tests reveal mild iron deficiency anaemia and an upper GI endoscopy demonstrates multiple ulcers in the first part of the duodenum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Insulinoma
	Adenocarcinoma
	Glucagonoma
	Gastrinoma
	Squamous cell carcinoma
A

Diarrhoea, abdominal pain and multiple ulcers should raise the suspicion of Zollinger Ellison syndrome caused by gastrinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A 45-year-old man presents to surgical outpatients with a long history of recurrent abdominal pain and vomiting. He is noted to have a peripheral motor neuropathy on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Huntington's disease
	Myeloma
	Acute intermittent porphyria
	Lawrence-Moon-Biedl syndrome
	Friedreich's ataxia
A

Neurological signs combined with abdominal pain is acute intermittent porphyria or lead poisoning until proven otherwise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 56 year old man presents with episodic facial pain and discomfort whilst eating. He has suffered from halitosis recently and he frequently complains of a dry mouth. He has a smooth swelling underneath his right mandible. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

Stone impacted in Whartons duct
Stone impacted in Stensens duct
Benign adenoma of the submandibular gland
Adenocarcinoma of the submandibular gland
Squamous cell carcinoma of the submandibular gland
A

The symptoms are typical for sialolithiasis. The stones most commonly form in the submandibular gland and therefore may occlude Whartons duct. Stensens duct drains the parotid gland.

22
Q

A 34 year old woman presents with recurrent peptic ulceration. She is on proton pump inhibitors and previously received Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy three months ago. Which of the following is likely to be raised on venous blood testing?

	Secretin
	Cholecystokinin
	Gastrin
	Amylase
	Histamine
A

It is likely that this patient has an MEN I type gastrinoma (female, young age). As such, the serum gastrin levels are likely to be elevated.

23
Q

Which of the following cellular types or features is not seen in sarcoidosis?

	Reed Sternberg Cells
	T lymphocytes
	Macrophages
	Asteroid bodies
	B lymphocytes
A

Reed Sternberg cells are seen in Hodgkins disease. All of the other cell types are seen in sarcoid.

24
Q

Which of the following diseases is not considered a risk factor for gastric cancer?

Polya gastrectomy for antral ulcer
Atrophic gastritis
Intestinal metaplasia of columnar type at the gastric cardia
Patient with polyp showing medium grade dysplasia
Long term therapy with H2 blockers
A

Although some acid lowering procedures increase the risk of gastric cancer the use of H2 blockers does not, at the present time, seem to increase the risk.

25
Q

A 56 year old man is diagnosed as having a glioma. From which of the following cell types do these tumours usually originate?

	Schwann cells
	Oligodendrocytes
	Ependymal cells
	Squamous cells
	Neuroglial cells
A

Gliomas originate from glial (otherwise known as neuroglial) cells. These serve a structural function in the CNS. The tumours produced may resemble a number of CNS cell types. Tumours are therefore named according to the cells they resemble rather than the origin. Where this is not possible they are termed gliomas.

26
Q

A 78 year old man presents with unilateral deafness which has been present for the past 3 months. On examination, Webers test localises to the contralateral side and a CT scan of his head shows a thickened calvarium with areas of sclerosis and radiolucency. His blood tests show an elevated alkaline phosphatase, normal serum calcium and normal PTH levels. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

	Multiple myeloma with skull involvement
	Osteoporosis
	Pagets disease with skull involvement
	Lung cancer with skull metastasis
	Osteopetrosis with skull involvement
A

Of the conditions listed, Pagets disease is the most likely diagnosis (skull vault expansion and sensorineural hearing loss). Multiple myeloma would typically result in multiple areas of radiolucency and usually raised calcium in this setting. Osteopetrosis is a recognised cause of the features described. However, it is a rare inherited disorder and usually presents in children in young adults. Presentation at this stage with no prior symptoms would be extremely rare and therefore this is not the most likely diagnosis.

27
Q

A 45 year old man presents with symptoms of urinary colic. In the history he has suffered from recurrent episodes of frank haematuria over the past week or so. On examination he has a left loin mass and a varicocele. The most likely diagnosis is:

	Renal adenocarcinoma
	Renal cortical adenoma
	Squamous cell carcinoma of the renal pelvis
	Retroperitoneal fibrosis
	Nephroblastoma
A

Renal adenocarcinoma are the most common renal malignancy and account for 75% cases.
Patients may develop frank haematuria and have episodes of clot colic.
A Grawitz tumour is an eponymous name for Renal Adenocarcinoma.
May metastasise to bone.

28
Q

A 63 year old man finds that he has to stop walking after 100 yards due to bilateral calf pain. He finds that bending forwards and walking up hill helps. He is able to ride a bike without any pain. What is the most likely underlying cause?

	Lumbar canal stenosis
	Diabetic neuropathy
	Aorto-iliac occlusion
	Occlusion of the superficial femoral artery
	Pelvic rheumatoid arthritis
A

Lumbar canal stenosis
The positional nature of the pain and the fact that improves with walking uphill makes an underlying vascular aetiology far less likely.

29
Q

A 22 year female who is 24 weeks pregnant presents with brisk frank haematuria. She is sexually active. She has had a previous pregnancy resulting in caesarean section. What is the most likely cause?

	Renal vein thrombosis
	Placenta percreta
	Placenta praevia
	Membranous glomerulonephritis
	Endometriosis
A

Placenta percreta
Pregnancy and frank haematuria, especially if there is a history of placenta previa or prior caesarean section, should indicate this diagnosis. There is invasive placental implantation into the myometrium, which can rarely extend into the bladder causing severe bleeding.

30
Q

A 73 year old lady is admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. During her pre-operative assessment it is noted that she is receiving furosemide for the treatment of hypertension. Approximately what proportion of the sodium that is filtered at the glomerulus will be subsequently excreted?

	Up to 25%
	Up to 75%
	Between 3 and 5%
	<2%
	Between 1 and 2%
A

Up to 25%
The loop diuretics can lead to marked increases in the amount of sodium excreted. They act in the medullary and cortical aspects of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This results in a decreased medullary osmolal gradient and increases free water excretion (as well as loss of sodium). Because loop diuretics result in the loss of both sodium and water they are less frequently associated with hyponatraemia than thiazide diuretics (these latter agents act in the cortex and do not affect urine concentrating ability).

31
Q

A 59 year old man presents with recurrent episodes of urinary sepsis. In his history he mentions that he has suffered from recurrent attacks of left iliac fossa pain over the past few months. He has also notices bubbles in his urine. He undergoes a CT scan which shows a large inflammatory mass in the left iliac fossa. No other abnormality is detected. The most likely diagnosis is:

	Ulcerative colitis
	Crohns disease
	Mesenteric ischaemia
	Diverticular disease
	Rectal cancer
A

Diverticular disease is one of the commonest causes of colovesical fistula

Recurrent attacks of diverticulitis may cause the development of local abscesses which may erode into the bladder resulting in urinary sepsis and pneumaturia. This would be an unusual presentation from Crohns disease and rectal cancer would be more distally sited and generally evidence of extra colonic disease would be present if the case were malignant and this advanced.

32
Q

Which of the syndromes listed below may be present in a patient with multiple intestinal hamartomas and pigmentation spots around the mouth?

	Familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome
	Cowden disease
	MYH associated polyposis
	Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
	Lynch syndrome
A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

33
Q

Which of the following is least likely to occur in association with severe atrophic gastritis?

	Gastric ulcers
	Gastric cancer
	Anaemia
	Duodenal ulcers
	Gastric polyps
A

Achlorhydria would make the formation of duodenal ulcers unlikely. Note the question states “least likely”.

Due to the loss of gastric acid a duodenal ulcer is unlikely. Note that gastric polyps may form

34
Q

Which of the following is not found on a blood film post splenectomy?

	Pappenheimer bodies
	Stipple cells
	Erythrocyte containing siderotic granules
	Howell-Jolly bodies
	Target cells
A

Stipple cells are found in lead poisoning/haemoglobinopathies.

Blood film in hyposplenism:

Howell-Jolly bodies
Pappenheimer bodies
Poikilocytes (Target cells)
Erythrocyte containing siderotic granules
Heinz bodies
35
Q

A 45 year old man with long standing ulcerative colitis and rectal dysplasia presents with a DALM lesion in the rectum. What is the most appropriate management option?

	Snare polypectomy
	Repeat endoscopy in 2 years
	Discharge
	Anterior resection
	Panproctocolectomy
A

DALM lesions complicating ulcerative colitis should be managed with panproctocolectomy. An anterior resection is inadequate since it will only remove the rectum and ulcerative colitis affects the entire colon. Since many will be associated with invasion a snare polypectomy is not sufficient either.

36
Q

A 6 year old child has suffered a displaced supracondylar humeral fracture. On examination, he has a cold and insensate hand with absent pulses. What is the most likely underlying cause?

	Clot embolus
	Compartment syndrome
	Steal syndrome
	Direct arterial injury
	Vasospasm
A

Direct arterial injury
Both vasospasm and arterial injury may complicate supracondylar fractures and are seen in 1% of all cases. Vasospasm is usually transient and more likely when the injury is minor and reduced early. Severely displaced injuries and those with more advanced signs are usually associated with direct arterial injury.

37
Q

Which of the metastatic bone tumours described below is at the greatest risk of pathological fracture ?

Proximal humeral lesion from a prostate cancer
Vertebral body lesions from a prostate cancer
Peritrochanteric lesion from a carcinoma of the breast
Proximal humeral lesion from a carcinoma of the breast
Peritrochanteric lesion from a prostate cancer
A

Peritrochanteric lesions have the greatest risks of fracture (due to loading). The lesions from breast cancer are usually lytic and therefore at higher risk rather than the sclerotic lesions from prostate cancer.

38
Q

A 73 year old lady falls and sustains a distal radius fracture that is immobilized in a cast. What pathological process is most likely to have affected the immobilized muscles?

	Agenesis
	Hypoplasia
	Apoptosis
	Atrophy
	Coagulative necrosis
A

Immobilization of muscle typically results in atrophy. The overall cellularity does not change.

39
Q

A 63 year old male presents with several episodes of haematuria. He suffers from COPD secondary to long term smoking. What is the most likely underlying cause?

	Renal cortical adenoma
	Renal adenocarcinoma
	Nephroblastoma
	Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder
	Adenocarcinoma of the bladder
A

TCC is the most common subtype and is strongly linked to smoking. The important point to note in this question is the term most likely as renal adenocarcinoma may produce similar symptoms but is less likely.

40
Q

A 22 year old man presents with a discharging area on his lower back. On examination there is an epithelial defect located 6cm proximal to the tip of his coccyx and located in the midline. There are two further defects located about 2cm superiorly in the same position. He is extremely hirsute. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Pre sacral tumour
	Sacrococcygeal teratoma
	Pilonidal sinus
	Fistula in ano
	Occult spina bifida
A

Pilonidal sinuses are extremely common in hirsute individuals and typically present as midline sinuses in the natal cleft.

41
Q

A 67 year old lady is suspected of having Pagets disease of the nipple. Mammography and USS are normal. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

	Arrange a core biopsy
	Arrange FNAC of the area
	Arrange a punch biopsy
	Undertake a mastectomy
	Arrange for focused radiotherapy
A

This is a relatively clear indication for a punch biopsy. If cellular atypia is present on punch biopsy then any in situ malignancy should be considered. FNAC would be unsuitable.

42
Q

A 43 year old man from Greece presents with colicky right upper quadrant pain, jaundice and an urticarial rash. He is initially treated with ciprofloxacin, but does not improve. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Infection with Wucheria bancrofti
	Infection with Echinococcus granulosus
	Type III hypersensitivity reaction
	Allergy to ciprofloxacin
	Common bile duct stones
A

Infection with Echinococcus granulosus will typically produce a type I hypersensitivity reaction which is characterised by an urticarial rash. With biliary rupture a classical triad of biliary colic, jaundice and urticaria occurs. Whilst jaundice and biliary colic may be a feature of CBD stones they do not produce an urticarial rash. Antibiotic sensitivity with ciprofloxacin may produce jaundice and a rash, however it was not present at the outset and does not cause biliary colic.

43
Q

A 22 year old lady presents with an episode of renal colic and following investigation is suspected of suffering from MEN IIa. Which of the following abnormalities of the parathyroid glands are most often found in this condition?

	Hypertrophy
	Hyperplasia
	Adenoma
	Carcinoma
	Metaplasia
A

In MEN IIa the commonest lesion is medullary thyroid cancer, with regards to the parathyroid glands the most common lesion is hyperplasia. In MEN I a parathyroid adenoma is the most common lesion

44
Q

A 43 year old women undergoes a sigmoid colectomy for carcinoma. The histology report shows pT3, pN1, systemic staging is M0. She is otherwise well. What is the most appropriate course of action?

Active surveillance with CT scans at 6 and 12 months and monthly CEA measurement
Referral for chemotherapy
Radiotherapy to the resection site
Active surveillance with colonoscopy at 12 months and CT scan at 6 months and 3 monthly CEA measurement
Discharge
A

Chemotherapy for colonic cancer is offered when patients have nodal disease.

45
Q

A male infant is born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation by emergency cesarean section. He initially appears to be stable. However, over the ensuing 24 hours he develops worsening neurological function. Which of the following processes is most likely to have occurred?

	Extra dural haemorrhage
	Sub dural haemorrhage
	Sub arachnoid haemorrhage
	Intraventricular haemorrhage
	Arteriovenous malformation
A

Premature neonates= Intra ventricular haemorrhage

Non accidental injury= Sub dural bleed

46
Q

A 22 year old man is admitted to hospital with a lower respiratory chest infection. He had a splenectomy after being involved in a car accident. What is the most likely infective organism?

	Haemophilus influenzae
	Staphylococcus aureus
	Rhinovirus
	Mycobacterium tuberculosis
	Moraxella catarrhalis
A

Organisms causing post splenectomy sepsis:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Meningococci

47
Q

A 22 year old man presents with symptoms of lethargy and bilateral facial nerve palsy. On examination he has bilateral parotid gland enlargement. What is the most likely cause?

	Pleomorphic adenoma
	Cerebrovascular accident
	Sarcoidosis
	Warthins tumour
	Adenoid cystic carcinoma
A

Facial nerve palsy is the commonest neurological manifestation of sarcoid. It usually resolves. The absence of a discrete lesion on palpation is against the other causes.

48
Q

A 40 year old man presents with symptoms of dysphagia that have been present for many months. His investigations demonstrate lack of relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter during swallowing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Benign stricture
	Leiomyoma
	Adenocarcinoma
	Barretts oesophagus
	Achalasia
A

Patients with dysphagia will usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy as a first line investigation. Where this investigation is normal, the next stage is to perform studies assessing oesophageal motility. These comprise fluroscopic barium swallows and oesophageal manometry and pH studies. Lack of sphincter relaxation suggests achalasia (pressures are usually high).

49
Q

A 40 year old female is diagnosed as having Dercums disease. Which of the lesions listed below are most likely to be identified on physical examination?

	Lipomas
	Neuromas
	Hamartomas
	Arteriovenous malformations
	Histiocytomas
A

Dercums disease is characterized by multiple lipomas. It is also referred to as adiposis dolorosa.

50
Q

A 24 year old man presents with symptoms of malaise, weight loss and lymphadenopathy. A lymph node biopsy is performed and the subsequent histology report states that there is evidence of granuloma formation and central necrosis. What is the most likely underlying cause?

	Non Hodgkins lymphoma
	Churg Strauss syndrome
	Epstein Barr Virus infection
	Rheumatoid nodule
	Infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A

These histological features are typically seen in TB. Necrosis occurring in granulomas is usually indicative of an underlying infective cause. Churg Strauss syndrome is a form of vasculitis, which is the usual histological finding. Granulomas are reported in the condition, but it is rare for them to demonstrate necrosis.