EMRCS PATHO 7 Flashcards

1
Q

A splenectomy increases the risk of infection from all the following organisms except?

	Pneumococcus
	Klebsiella
	Haemophilus influenzae
	Staphylococcus aureus
	Neisseria meningitidis
A

Staphylococcus aureus infection following splenectomy is no more common than in non splenectomised individuals. The other organisms are encapsulated, which is why they are more likely to cause overwhelming post splenectomy sepsis.

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2
Q

Which of the following is not an extraintestinal feature of Crohns disease?

	Iritis
	Clubbing
	Aphthous ulcers
	Erythema multiforme
	Pyoderma gangrenosum
A

Extraintestinal manifestation of inflammatory bowel disease: A PIE SAC

Aphthous ulcers
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Iritis 
Erythema nodosum 
Sclerosing cholangitis
Arthritis
Clubbing
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3
Q

Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for the development of oesophageal malignancy?

	Oesophageal metaplasia
	Smoking
	Excessive intake of alcoholic spirits
	Achalasia
	Blood group O
A

Blood group O is not a risk factor for oesophageal cancer. Achalasia is associated with the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus.

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4
Q

A 24 year old man from Sub Saharan Africa presents with a lymphadenopathy and weight loss. A diagnosis of tuberculosis is suspected and a lymph node biopsy is performed. Staining with which of the agents below is most likely to facilitate identification of the causative organism?

	Gram stain
	Ziehl-Neelsen stain
	Von Kossa stain
	Van Gieson stain
	Masson Trichrome stain
A

Ziehl-Neelsen stain is typically used to identify mycobacteria. They are not stained in the Gram staining process. Van Gieson and Masson trichrome are histological staining methods for identification of connective tissues. The Von Kossa technique is useful for identifying tissue mineralisation

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5
Q

Which of the following is not a pathological feature of breast cancer?

	Resemblance to ductal epithelial cells
	Angiogenesis
	Nuclear pleomorphism
	Metastatic calcification
	Vascular invasion
A

Dystrophic calcification may be present in breast malignancy and is the basis for the breast screening programme. Metastatic calcification is calcification which occurs in otherwise normal tissues, usually as a result of hypercalcaemia. Invasive ductal carcinoma is the most common type of breast cancer, unless the tumour is very poorly differentiated there is usually some resemblance to ductal epithelial cells.

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6
Q

An 18 month old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections. As part of the diagnostic work-up he is noted to have abnormal renal function. An ultrasound scan is performed and shows bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

	Posterior urethral valves
	Meatal stenosis
	Hydronephrosis
	Pelvico-ureteric junction obstruction
	Benign prostatic hyperplasia
A

A posterior urethral valve is an obstructive, developmental uropathy that usually affects male infants (incidence 1 in 8000). Diagnostic features include bladder wall hypertrophy, hydronephrosis and bladder diverticula.

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7
Q

An 85 year old man presents with a cough and haemoptysis. He has a modest smoking history of 15 pack years. He is found to have a tumour located in the right main bronchus, with no evidence of metastatic disease. He decides not undergo any treatment and he remains well for a further 12 months before developing symptomatic metastasis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Adenocarcinoma
	Small cell carcinoma
	Squamous cell carcinoma
	Metastatic renal cancer
	Lymphoma
A

Squamous cell carcinomas are reported to be more slow growing and are typically centrally located. Small cell carcinomas are usually centrally located. However, small cell carcinomas would seldom be associated with a survival of a year without treatment.

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8
Q

At which of the following anatomical sites does dormant tuberculosis most frequently reactivate?

	Apex of the lung
	Base of the lung
	Brain
	Terminal ileum
	Lumbar spine
A

TB reactivation most commonly occurs at the lung apex. This site is better oxygenated than elsewhere allowing the mycobacteria to multiply more rapidly and then spread both locally and distantly.

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9
Q

What is the commonest tumour type encountered in the colon?

	Squamous cell carcinoma
	Adenocarcinoma
	Lymphoma
	Anaplastic carcinoma
	Sarcoma
A

Adenocarcinoma are the most common and typically arise as a result of the adenoma - carcinoma sequence.

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10
Q

What is the process that is most likely to account for a 73 year old lady presenting with a cold pulseless hand 3 days following a myocardial infarct?

	Foreign body embolus
	Rupture of existing atheromatous plaque
	Steal syndrome
	Vasospasm
	Clot embolus
A

The development of mural or atrial appendage thrombi may occur following a myocardial infarct and co-existing atrial fibrillation may contribute to the formation. They tend to present with classical features of an embolic event.

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11
Q

Which of the following changes are most likely to be identified in the aortic wall of a 38 year old lady with a Marfans syndrome and a dissecting aortic aneurysm?

	Transmural aortitis
	Cystic medial necrosis
	Foamy macrophages
	Dense dystrophic calcification
	None of the above
A

Cystic medial necrosis ( or cystic medial degeneration) occurs when basophils and mucoid material lie in between the intimal elastic fibres of the aorta. It is typically found in the aortic degeneration of Marfans syndrome, but may also be seen in aortic degeneration in older adults.

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12
Q

A 58 year old man undergoes an upper GI endoscopy for the investigation of odynophagia. At endoscopy a reddish area is seen to extend into the oesophagus from the gastro-oesophageal junction. Which of the following pathological events is most likely to explain this process?

	Metaplasia
	Anaplasia
	Dysplasia
	Hypoplasia
	Hyperplasia
A

This is most likely to represent Barretts oesphagus and is thus metaplasia. Dysplasia is less likely in this setting although biopsies are mandatory.

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13
Q

A male infant is born by emergency cesarean section at 39 weeks gestation for foetal distress. Soon after the birth the baby becomes progressively hypoxic and on examination is found to have a scaphoid abdomen. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

	Intestinal malrotation
	Hiatus hernia
	Foramen of Bochdalek hernia
	Foramen of Morgagni hernia
	Tracheo-oesphageal fistula
A

The finding of a scaphoid abdomen and respiratory distress suggests extensive intra thoracic herniation of the abdominal contents. This is seen most frequently with Bochdalek hernias. Morgagni hernias seldom present in such a dramatic fashion. The other options do not typically present with the symptoms and signs described.

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14
Q

A 72 year old lady falls and lands on her left hip. She attends the emergency department and is given some paracetamol by the junior doctor and discharged. Several months later she presents with ongoing pain and discomfort of the hip. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head is suspected. Which of the following features is least likely to be present?

	Union of the fracture
	Angiogenesis at the fracture site
	Increased numbers of fibroblasts at the fracture site
	Osteochondritis dissecans
	Apoptosis of osteoblasts
A

Apoptosis is not a feature of necrotic cell death. By this stage there would usually be attempted repair so angiogenesis and proliferation of fibroblasts would be expected. These cells may differentiate further to become osteoblasts which in turn will lay down new matrix.

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15
Q

What is the urinary diagnostic marker for carcinoid syndrome?

	B-HCG
	Histamine
	Chromogranin A
	5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid
	5-Hydroxytryptamine
A

Urinary measurement of 5- HIAA is an important part of clinical follow up.

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16
Q

Which one of the following is least associated with the development of colorectal cancer in patients with ulcerative colitis?

	Unremitting disease
	Disease duration > 10 years
	Onset before 15 years old
	Poor compliance to treatment
	Disease confined to the rectum
A

Disease confined to the rectum

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17
Q

A 78 year old lady presents with a tender swelling in her right groin. On examination there is a tender swelling that lies below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. It has a cough impulse. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

	Thrombophlebitis of the great saphenous vein
	Femoral hernia
	Thrombophlebitis of saphena varix
	Inguinal hernia
	Obturator hernia
A

Whilst a thrombophlebitis of a saphena varix may cause a tender swelling at this site, it would not usually be associated with a cough impulse.

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18
Q

Which of the conditions listed below is an example of heterotopia?

	Barretts oesophagus
	Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
	Meckels diverticulum containing gastric mucosa
	Colonic diverticulum
	Ectopic testis
A

In heterotopia, the tissue type that is found in the abnormal location is present there from birth and does not migrate to that site subsequently or arise as a result of metaplasia. The tissue that lines a Meckels diverticulum is determined early in development.

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19
Q

A 73 year old man presents with pain in the right leg. It is most uncomfortable on walking. On examination, he has a deformity of his right femur, which on x-ray is thickened and sclerotic. His serum alkaline phosphatase is elevated, but calcium is within normal limits. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

	Rickets
	Pagets disease
	Metastatic lung cancer
	Osteoclastoma
	Chondrosarcoma
A

Pagets is typically associated with thickened, sclerotic, long bones. Lung carcinoma typically causes lytic bony lesions and hypercalcaemia.

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20
Q

An 18 year old female presents with 3 nodules in the right lobe of the thyroid. Clinically she is euthyroid and there is associated cervical lymphadenopathy. She has no family history of thyroid disease. What is the most likely cause?

	Follicular thyroid cancer
	Follicular thyroid adenoma
	Papillary thyroid cancer
	Hashimotos thyroiditis
	Toxic nodular goitre
A

Papillary thyroid cancers are the most common type of thyroid cancer and are the more common in females (M:F=1:3). Papillary tumours are more likely to develop lymphatic spread than follicular tumours.

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21
Q

What is the main risk factor for the development of anal cancer?

	Smoking
	Ano-receptive intercourse
	Immunosuppression
	Infection with Epstein Barr virus
	Infection with Human Papilloma virus
A

Anal cancer is strongly associated with HPV infection

22
Q

A 3 month old boy is suspected of having hypospadias. At which of the following locations is the urethral opening most frequently located in boys suffering from the condition?

On the distal ventral surface of the penis
On the proximal ventral surface of the penis
On the distal dorsal surface of the penis
On the proximal dorsal surface of the penis
At the base of the scrotum
A

The defect is located ventrally and most often distally. Proximally located urethral openings are well recognised. Circumcision may compromise reconstruction.

23
Q

Which of the tumour markers listed below is most likely to be elevated in a patient with pancreatic cancer?

	CEA
	CA19-9
	AFP
	PSA
	CA15-3
A

Tumour marker Association
CA 125 Ovarian cancer
CA 19-9 Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3 Breast cancer

24
Q

A 52 year old male attends for a preoperative assessment for an inguinal hernia repair. You notice that the chest x-ray shows a loculated left pleural effusion. On further questioning the patient reports that he worked as a builder 30 years ago. What is the most likely cause for the effusion?

	Asbestosis
	Pneumonia
	Mesothelioma
	Silicosis
	Left ventricular failure
A

This patient has a risk of asbestos exposure through his occupation as a builder. As there a is latent period of 30 years and a complicated effusion, the most likely cause is mesothelioma.

25
Q

A 64-year-old woman is reviewed due to multiple non-healing leg ulcers. She reports feeling generally unwell for many months. Examination findings include a blood pressure of 138/72 mmHg, pulse 90 bpm, pale conjunctivae and poor dentition associated with bleeding gums. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

	Thyrotoxicosis
	Vitamin B12 deficiency
	Vitamin C deficiency
	Diabetes mellitus
	Sarcoidosis
A

Bleeding gums and poor healing are suggestive of vitamin C deficiency.

26
Q

Which of the following is not a typical feature of neuropraxia?

Transient delay in neuronal transmission
Axonal degeneration distal to the site of injury
Absence of neuroma formation
Preservation of autonomic function
Absence of axonal degeneration proximal to the site of injury
A

Axonal degeneration distal to the site of injury

Full recovery may occur 6-8 weeks after nerve injury in neuropraxia.
Wallerian degeneration does not usually occur in simple neuropraxia.
Autonomic function is usually preserved.

27
Q

A 44 year old lady presents with a pathological fracture of the left femur. She has previously undergone a renal transplant for end stage renal failure. Her blood test results are as follows:

Serum Ca2+ 2.80
PTH 88pg/ml
Phosphate 0.30

A surgeon decides to perform a parathyroidectomy on the basis of these results. When the glands are assessed histologically, which of the appearances is most likely to be identified?

	Metaplasia the gland
	Hypertrophy of the gland
	Hyperplasia of the gland
	Parathyroid carcinoma
	Necrosis of the parathyroid gland
A

This is likely to be a case of tertiary hyperparathyroidism (high Calcium, high PTH, low phosphate). Therefore the glands will be hyperplastic. Hypertrophy is not correct as this implies an increase in size without an increase in cellularity. This mistake has cost many candidates marks in the MRCS exams over the years!

28
Q

A 78 year old man is referred to the clinic by his general practitioner. For many years he noticed a smooth swelling approximately 2cm anterior to the tragus of his right ear. Apart from being a heavy smoker he has no co-morbidities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Pleomorphic adenoma
	Liposarcoma
	Warthins tumour
	Adenocarcinoma
	None of the above
A

Warthins tumours are most common in elderly smokers. They have a relatively benign and indolent course

29
Q

A 56 year old man presents with lethargy, haematuria and haemoptysis. On examination he is hypertensive and has a right loin mass. A CT scan shows a lesion affecting the upper pole of the right kidney, it has a small cystic centre. Which of the options below is the most likely diagnosis?

	Squamous cell carcinoma of the kidney
	Nephroblastoma
	Renal adenocarcinoma
	Transitional cell carcinoma of the kidney
	Polycystic kidney disease
A

Renal adenocarcinoma are the most common renal tumours. These will typically affect the renal parenchyma. Transitional cell carcinoma will usually affect urothelial surfaces. Nephroblastoma would be very rare in this age group. Renal adenocarcinoma may produce cannon ball metastasis in the lung which cause haemoptysis, this is not a feature of PKD.

30
Q

A 25 year old junior doctor has a chest x-ray performed as part of a routine insurance medical examination. The x-ray shows evidence of rib notching. Auscultation of his chest reveals a systolic murmur which is loudest at the posterior aspect of the fourth intercostal space. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Patent ductus arteriosus
	Aortic coarctation
	Aortic dissection
	Cervical rib
	Subclavian steal syndrome
A

Coarctation of the aorta may occur due to the remnant of the ductus arteriosus acting as a fibrous constrictive band of the aorta. Weak arm pulses may be seen, radiofemoral delay is the classical physical finding. Collateral flow through the intercostal vessels may produce notching of the ribs, if the disease is long standing.

31
Q

A 34-year-old man is taken immediately to theatre with aortic dissection. You note he is tall with pectus excavatum and arachnodactyly. His condition is primarily due to a defect in which one of the following proteins?

	Polycystin-1
	Fibrillin
	Type IV collagen
	Type I collagen
	Elastin
A

Although fibrillin is the primary protein affected (due to a defect in the fibrillin-1 gene) it should be noted that fibrillin is used as a substrate of elastin.

32
Q

Which of the following are not typical of Lynch syndrome?

It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner
Affected patients are more likely to develop right colon mucinous tumours than the general population
Affected individuals have an 80% lifetime risk of colon cancer
Endometrial cancer is seen in 80% of women
Gastric cancers are more common
A

Lynch syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion. It is characterised by microsatellite instability in the DNA mismatch repair genes. Colonic tumours in patients with Lynch syndrome are more likely to be right sided tumours and to be poorly differentiated.

33
Q

A 23 year old man suffers a thermal injury to his left hand. It becomes red and painful. Which of the following mediators are not involved in this process?

	Histamine
	Free radicals
	Prostaglandins
	Leukotrienes
	Serotonin
A

Acute inflammation is not mediated by free radicals

34
Q

A 32 year old man is admitted with a distended tense abdomen. He previously underwent a difficult appendicectomy 1 year previously and was discharged. At laparotomy the abdomen is filled with a gelatinous substance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Appendiceal sarcoma
	Pseudomyxoma peritoneii
	Appendiceal adenocarcinoma
	Appendiceal carcinoid
	Caecal adenocarcinoma
A

Pseudomyxoma is classically associated with mucin production and the appendix is the commonest source

35
Q

An enthusiastic medical student approaches you with a list of questions about blood transfusion reactions. Which of her following points is incorrect?

Graft versus host disease involves neutrophil proliferation
Thrombocytopaenia may occur in women with a prior pregnancy
IgA antibodies may cause blood pressure compromise during transfusion
Hypocalcaemia can occur
Iron overload can be avoided by chelation therapy
A

GVHD results from lymphocytic proliferation. The patient’s own lymphocytes are similar to the donor’s lymphocytes, therefore don’t perceive them as being foreign. The donor lymphocytes, however, sees the recipient lymphocytes as being foreign. Therefore they proliferate causing severe complications.

Thrombocytopaenia occurs a few days after transfusion and may resolve spontaneously.

Patients with IGA antibodies need IgA deficient blood transfusions.

36
Q

An 82 year old lady presents with a carcinoma of the caecum. Approximately what proportion of patients presenting with this diagnosis will have synchronous lesions?

	<1%
	60%
	50%
	20%
	5%
A

Synchronous lesions may occur in up to 5% of patients with colorectal cancer. A full and complete lumenal study with either colonoscopy, CT cologram or barium enema is mandatory in all patients being considered for surgery.

37
Q

A 75 year old lady presents with weight loss, pain and a swelling over her left knee. She has been treated for Pagets disease of the bone for some time. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Ewings sarcoma
	Osteosarcoma
	Myeloma
	Septic arthritis
	Osteoclastoma
A

Osteosarcoma may complicate Pagets disease of bone in up to 10% cases. Radiological appearances include bone destruction coupled with new bone formation, periosteal elevation may also occur. Surgical resection is the main treatment.

38
Q

A 28 year old man presents with hypertension and haematuria. Haematological investigations show polycythaemia but otherwise no abnormality. CT scanning shows a left renal mass. What is the most likely cause?

	Wilms tumour
	Renal adenocarcinoma
	Renal transitional cell carcinoma
	Staghorn calculus
	Renal cyst
A

Renal adenocarcinoma is the most common variant and is associated with polycythaemia.

39
Q

A 22 year old man undergoes a splenectomy for an iatrogenic splenic injury. On the second post operative day a full blood count is performed. Which of the following components of the full blood count is the first to be affected ?

	Erythrocyte count
	Reticulocyte count
	Eosinophil count
	Monocyte count
	Lymphocyte count
A

The granulocyte (the eosinophil component is seldom raised) and platelet count are the first to be affected following splenectomy. Then reticulocytes increase. Although a lymphocytosis and monocytosis are reported, these take several weeks to develop.

40
Q

A 28 year old lady presents with benign cyclical mastalgia. Which of the following is not a recognised treatment for the condition?

	Evening primrose oil
	Bromocriptine
	Methotrexate
	Danazol
	Tamoxifen
A

Methotrexate is used for the treatment of breast cancer. Whilst the use of tamoxifen is of benefit other agents such as flaxseed oil or evening primrose oil should be tried first. Danazol is effective, but many women dislike the side effects.

41
Q

A 3 year old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother who has noticed a mass in his neck. On examination; he has a smooth mass located on the lateral aspect of his anterior triangle, near to the angle of the mandible. On ultrasound; it has a fluid filled, anechoic, appearance. What is the most likely cause?

	Cystic hygroma
	Dermoid cyst
	Thyroglossal cyst
	Branchial cyst
	Lymphoma
A

Branchial cysts are usually located laterally and derived from the second branchial cleft. Unless infection has occurred they will usually have an anechoic appearance on ultrasound.

42
Q

A 39 year old lady has undergone surgery for breast cancer. As part of the histopathology report the pathologist provides the surgeon with a Nottingham Prognostic Index score of 6.4. He also states that the tumour size is 2cm. Which of the following inferences can be made in relation to this statement?

The tumour is likely to be grade 1
Vascular invasion is present
Lymph node metastasis are definitely present
The tumour is oestrogen receptor positive
None of the above
A

A score of this value is unlikely to be reached with a grade 1 tumour and a size of 2cm. Therefore lymph node metastasis are definitely present. In addition since the maximal score for lymph node metastasis is 3 the tumour is likely be of a higher grade (see below). The Nottingham Prognostic Index provides no information about oestrogen receptor status or the presence or absence of vascular invasion.

43
Q

In patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIb which of the following clinical appearances is the patient most likely to display?

	Acromegalic facies
	Turners type features
	Profound kyphoscoliosis
	Multiple bony exostoses
	Marfanoid features
A

Patients with MEN IIb may display Marfanoid features. It is unclear at the present time whether they have discrete changes in the microfibrils of elastic fibres that are present in Marfans.

44
Q

A 22 year old is found to have bilateral acoustic neuromas. Which of the disorders listed below is most likely to be present?

	Neurofibromatosis Type I
	Neurofibromatosis Type II
	MEN I
	MEN II
	Gardner's syndrome
A

In NF2 bilateral acoustic neuromas are characteristic with a family history of Neurofibroma.

45
Q

A 56 year old man presents with jaundice. He has a long history of alcohol misuse. On examination he is jaundiced and ultrasound shows multiple echo dense lesions in both lobes of the liver. His alpha feto protein is elevated 6 times the normal range. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Gallstones
	Hepatocellular carcinoma
	Metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma
	Mirizzi syndrome
	Benign bile duct stricture
A

HCC may complicate cirrhosis. AFP is often raised in HCC.

46
Q

A 32 year old man undergoes an appendicectomy. A large carcinoid tumour is identified and a completion right hemicolectomy is performed. He is well for several months and then develops symptoms of palpitations and facial flushing. Which of the following diagnostic markers should be requested?

	Alpha feto protein
	Urinary 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid measurements
	Urinary catecholamines
	Urinary VMA measurements
	None of the above
A

5 HIAA is the most commonly used diagnostic marker for carcinoid syndrome, it is measured in a 24 hour urine collection.

47
Q

A 20 year old male is referred to the clinic. He has undergone genetic testing because his father died from colorectal cancer at the age of 21. His testing revealed a mutation of the APC gene. A colonoscopy is proposed. What is the most likely finding?

	Multiple colonic hamartomas
	Carpet villous adenoma of the rectum
	Caecal carcinoma
	Multiple colonic adenomas
	Multiple colonic hyperplastic polyps
A

APC mutations are found in familial adenomatous polyposis coli. These have multiple colonic adenomas.

48
Q

A 50 year old female presents with bilateral parotid gland swelling and symptoms of a dry mouth. On examination, she has bilateral facial nerve palsies. This improved following steroid treatment. What is the likely underlying diagnosis?

	Pleomorphic adenoma
	Sarcoid
	Warthins tumour
	Sialolithiasis
	Adenoid cystic carcinoma
A

Sarcoid occurs bilaterally in 70% of cases and facial nerve involvement is recognised. Treatment is conservative in most cases although individuals with facial nerve palsy will usually receive steroids with good effect.

49
Q

Which of the following breast tumours is most commonly associated with a risk of metastasis to the contralateral breast?

	Invasive ductal carcinoma
	Invasive lobular carcinoma
	Phyllodes tumour
	Pagets disease of the breast
	Atypical ductal hyperplasia
A

Risk of metastasis to the contralateral breast is a classical feature of invasive lobular carcinoma.

50
Q

Which is the characteristic finding on a blood film post splenectomy?

	Stipple cell
	Tear drop cell
	Reticulocytes
	Howell-Jolly bodies
	Schistocyte
A

Blood film in hyposplenism:

Howell-Jolly bodies
Pappenheimer bodies
Poikilocytes (Target cells)
Erythrocyte containing siderotic granules
Heinz bodies