EMS Ops Flashcards
(119 cards)
1
Q
A
2
Q
Constitutional law=
A
based on constitution of US; protects peps/ from gov/ abuse
3
Q
Legal system
Common law (“case/Judge-made”)=
Statutory law (legislative)=
Regulatory law (administrative)=
A
society’s acceptance of customs norms over time; changes & grows over years
doesn’t come from court decisions; created by lawmaking or legislative bodies
enacted by administrative or gov/ agency at either federal or state Lvl
4
Q
Categories of Laws:
A
Civil law
Criminal law
Tort law
trial courts
appellate courts
5
Q
Scope of practice=
A
actions and care you are legally allowed to perform based on your licensure and/or certification
6
Q
Who defines scope of practice=
A
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), National EMS scope of practice, National EMS education standards, state laws/regulations/policies
7
Q
Standard of care=
A
care that is expected to be provided by an emergency care provider→ defined by what a reasonable person w/ similar training would do in the same situation
8
Q
Certification=
A
recognition granted to individual who has met qualification to participate in certain activity
9
Q
Malfeasance
A
Intentional wrongdoing or misconduct, such as performing an act that is illegal or contrary to law.
10
Q
Misfeasance=
A
Improper performance of a lawful act, resulting in harm or injury due to negligence or incompetence.
11
Q
Nonfeasance=
A
Failure to act when there is a duty to act, resulting in harm or injury due to neglect or omission
12
Q
Licensure=
A
used to regulate occupations; generally by gov/ agency
13
Q
Reportable events Must report in all 50 states:
A
child/elder abuse, crimes, exposure to infectious diseases
14
Q
Good Samaritan law:
A
Law states “ a person who in good faith administers emergency care at the scene of a emergency or in a hospital is not liable for civil damages for an act performed during the emergency unless the act is willfully/wantonly negligent”
15
Q
4 elements determine negligence & file a claim:
A
Duty to act
Breach of duty
Damage
Causation/proximate cause
16
Q
Borrowed Servant doctrine=
A
if supervising other emergency care providers, you may be liable for any negligence committed
17
Q
Family & Medical leave act of 1993=
A
allows employees to take up to 12 work weeks in 12-month period for a specific family events
18
Q
Fair labor standards act of 1938=
A
Minimum wage, overtime pay, record keeping, child labor standards
19
Q
OSHA
A
ensure employers provide healthy & safe environment
20
Q
Ryan White Care act=
A
Fund programs to improve availability of health care for victims of AIDS and their families
21
Q
Res ipsa loquitur=
A
legal doctrine invoked by plaintiffs to support a claim of negligence; latin for “the thing speaks for itself”
EX: PT has an appendectomy & wakes to find that a surgical instrument has been left inside their abdomen.
22
Q
Negligence per se=
A
negligence committed as a result of violating a statue w/ resultant injury; automatic negligence.
EX driving in nonemergency mode fails to stop at a red light & hits a pedestrian,
23
Q
Statue of limitations=
A
Law that sets the max time period during which certain actions can be brought in court. After time limit is reached, no legal action can be brought regardless of whether or not a negligent act occurred.
24
Q
Restraint/Positional asphyxia=
A
lack of oxygen resulting in unconsciousness/death that occurs in a person who is in a position that inhibits breathing.
EX: restrained face down
25
PTs confidential info can be released under specific circumstances such as:
PT consents release of records, other med providers have a need to know, EMS is required by law to release PT’s med/ records, 3rd party billing requirements
26
Invasion of privacy=
violation by 1 person of another person’s personal life/info
27
competence (or incompetence)=
a legal judgment made by a court or a judge
28
Capacity (or lack of capacity)=
a medical judgment.
29
Emancipated minor=
married, pregnant, a parent, member of armed forces, or financially dependent
30
If PT doesnt sign AMA=
have a police officer or family member sign it, indicating that the patient verbally refused care.
31
professional boundaries=
ethical & societal limits to the interactions between EMS practitioners / other health care personnel & PTs they serve
32
Reasonable force=
minimum amount of force necessary to ensure that the PT doesn’t t cause injury to themselves, you, or others.
33
DNR order=
legal doc/ usually signed by PT & the PT’s physician, that indicates to medical personnel that if any life-sustaining measures should be taken due to PT’s heart/resp F. Medical personnel shouldn’t intervene to resuscitate
34
Advance directive=
legal doc/ prepared when a person is alive, competent, & able to make informed decisions about health care. Doc/ provides guidelines on treatment if the person is no longer capable of making decisions
35
Living will document=
legal doc/ allows a person to specify the kinds of med/ treatment they wish to receive should need arise.
EX: wishes to pass in home vs hospital
36
(POLST) physician orders for a life-sustaining treatment=
set of orders regarding care for terminally ill PT, signed by physician, to be honored by healthcare providers who deal w/ PT
(important for you to consult w/ on-line medical direction when identified a PT as a potential donor)
37
Malfeasance, Misfeasance, & Nonfeasance are 3 types of:
Breach of duty
38
When a written patient care report is found to be incomplete or inaccurate, the paramedic should:
add a dated & signed written amendment to the original report
39
battery=
Assault=
Unlawful touching
Purposeful physical harm
40
Most of laws that OSHA can use to enact reg/s & statues are what tyes of laws?
Administrative
41
Libel=
Slander=
written/posted words to hurt one's image
spoken words to hurt one's image
42
When an EMS provider has a breach of confidentiality regarding the improper release of information (by verbal or written word), a lawsuit may be brought up against them for:
Defamation
43
Informed consent=
permission for care given after the PT has been informed of the care to be provided & the associated risks & consequences
44
Expressed consent=
obtained from every conscious adult who has the capacity to make a rational decision before treatment is started & includes either verbal or nonverbal cues for consent
45
Implied consent (most common)=
when you assume that a PT who is unresponsive or who does not have the capacity to make a rational decision would consent to emergency care if they needed it
46
Involuntary consent=
when you’re w/ an adult who doesn’t have the capacity to make a rational decision (mental) or w/ an individual who is in custody of PD/ incarcerated; often involves 3rd party
47
Loco parentis=
teachers & school officials may act in place of parents
48
Emancipated minor=
married, parent, armed services, financially independent & away from home, declared emancipated by court decree
49
Refusal of care for PT=
PT has right to refuse care even if it’ll result w/ death BUT for PT to refuse they must be competent
50
Refusal of care requires=
PT must be informed of & fully understand the treatment & potential risks/consequences of refusing treatment and/or transport
PT must sign a liability release form, or if they refuse, attempt to have someone witness the refusal
Document very clearly what you told the PT about the treatment & risks of refusing care/transport
51
Advance directives=
document that allows a PT to define in advance what they wishes in case of becoming incapacitated due to medical issues or sever injury
EX= DNR→ doesnt mean dont treat
52
negligence=
act or omission (failure to act) by a medical professional the deviates from the accepted medical standard of care
53
2 types of liability=
Criminal & Cival
54
EMS Abandonment=
occurs when you stop treatment of a PT w/o properly transferring care (you must transfer care w/ a report to a health care provider that’s accepting PT)
55
Assault=
WILLFUL threat to inflict harm on PT & can occur w/o touching PT
56
Battery=
Unlawful touching of PT w/o consent
57
False imprisonment=
intentionally transporting a competent PT w/o consent & failure to allow competent PT to withdraw from treatment when they desire so
58
Health Insurance Portability Accountability Act (HIPAA) 1996=
gives PTs more control over their health care information & limits ways that info is stored & shared
Authorization not required for you to pass on PT information to other healthcare providers
59
Baby safe-Haven laws=
designed to prevent child abandonment
Allow a parent to relinquish custody of an unharmed infant to a proper authority w/ no questions asked→ an EMS station may have one
60
Autonomy=
Duty to respect a PT’s right to self governance/determination
61
Beneficence=
Duty to maximize benefits & enhance PT’s well-being
62
Nonmaleficence
Duty to avoid causing harm & minimize harm to PT
63
Justice
Duty to treat PTs fairly & equitably
64
benevolence=
desire to do good (usually the main reason people become EMS practitioners)
65
Impartiality test=
Asks whether you’ d be willing to undergo this procedure/ action if you were in the PT’s place. This is really a version of the Golden Rule
66
Universalizability test=
Asks whether you would want this action performed in all relevantly similar circumstances, which helps to avoid shortsightedness.
67
Interpersonal justifiability test=
Asks whether you can defend or justify your actions to others. It helps to ensure that an action is appropriate by asking the practitioner to consider whether other people would think the action reasonable.
68
Health Maintenance Organizations (HMO) may require PTs to use specific contracted facilities
EMS practitioners must prioritize the patient's best interest, even if it conflicts with the HMO's economic interests.
69
The most common situations involving allocation of scarce resources that paramedics will usually face are those involving:
mass causality incidents
70
Which question should guide the paramedic in ethical decision making?
"what is in the patient's best interest"?
71
What type of communication system uses a computer to route transmissions to the first available frequency?
Trunked
72
What technique is effective in helping the dispatcher get information from a distressed caller?
A standard set of medically approved questions
73
The dispatcher's directions to the caller for appropriate emergency measures are known as
Prearrival instructions
74
Systems that transmit and receive on the same frequency are known as what type
Simplex
75
Which radio wave can penetrate through concrete and steel most effectively?
UHF
76
The main duties of the dispatcher, after sending the responders and providing prearrival instructions, include
Supporting & coordinating
77
The federal agency that controls and regulates nongovernmental communications is the
FCC
78
Health organizations are responding to the rise of VOIP phones and the ability to send photos, videos, and text messages from mobile devices via the Internet with
an initiative called Next Generation 911 (NG-911)
79
National Emergency Medical Services Information System (NEMSIS) =
Data dictionary
80
Public safety answering point (PSAP)=
any agency that takes emergency calls from citizens in a given region & dispatches emergency resources necessary to respond to call
81
Safecom
communications program of the US Department of Homeland Security that provides research & guidance tp emergency response agencies regarding the development of interoperable com/ systems
82
“Doctor Strong” in com w/ hospital
to alert the ED staff of uncooperative/ potentially violent PT
83
Enhanced 911 (E911)
emergency 911 call system in which com/ center computers display the caller’s number & location
84
Automatic number identification (ADI)
in computers at E911 com centers, the ability to display caller’s number
85
Automatic location identification (ALI)
in computers at E911 com centers, the ability to display caller’s location
86
Automatic Crash Notification (ACN)
data collection & transmission system that can automatically contact a national call center on local public safety answering point & transmit limited specific crash data, EX where the crash is
87
Federal Communication Commision (FCC)
agency that controls all nongovernmental com/s in US
88
Voice over Internet Protocol(VoIP)=
tech/ that provides voice com/s through internet access from a computer/ mobile device
89
Advanced automatic crash notification(AACN)=
data collection & transmission system that can automatically contact a national call center/local public safety answering point & transmit detailed crash data
90
Accelerometers
sensor in vehicle that measures a change in total velocity, forces applied to vehicle, direction of forces were applied, whether vehicle rolled, air bag deployment, & final resting position
91
Repeaters
electronic device that receives a signal & rebroadcasts it at a higher power
92
Simplex transmissions
Transmit & receive on the same frequency thus cannot do both simultaneously. After you transmit a message, you must release the transmit button & wait for response
93
Duplex transmissions
allow simultaneous two-way com/s by using 2 frequencies for each channel. Each radio must be able to transmit and receive on each channel.
94
Multiplex systems
are duplex systems with the additional capability of transmitting voice & data simultaneously. This enables you to carry on a conversation w/ the EMS physician while you are transmitting an ECG strip.
95
Trunking=
com/s system that pools all frequencies & routes transmissions to the next available frequency
96
Multiband radio
type of radio/system that combines a wide range of radio bands allowing services to operate on different bands
97
Cognitive radio
Like trunked radios, it can pick an open, strong frequency w/o the user knowing which one was selected but knowing that they are talking to Hospital A. it has the ability to combine all of these features & program them w/ additional operational guidelines
98
Common operating Picture (COP)
single display of operational info, such as data from a crash & an emergency responds to it, that is simultaneously shared by all units involved in responding to the emergency so that those working it get all the same info
99
geographic information system (GIS)
information system that stores & analyzes info about or within a specific geographic area for the purpose of aiding decision making within a org/ or group for which specific GIS has been developed
100
FCC established the Public Safety and Homeland Security Bureau to handle public safety issues. The FCC’s primary functions include:
Licensing and allocating radio frequencies
Establishing tech standards for radio equipment
Licensing & regulating the technicians who repair & operate radio equipment
Monitoring frequencies to ensure appropriate usage
Spot-checking base stations & dispatch centers for appropriate licenses & records
101
the concept of "due regard"?
= Higher standard of safety that guides the ops of emergency vehicles
102
The Commission on Accreditation of Ambulance Services (CAAS) makes what?
Voluntary guidelines for ambulance equipment and supplies
103
Voluntary guidelines for ambulance equipment & supplies is set by
The Commission on Accreditation of Ambulance Services (CAAS)
104
When arriving on scene of a vehicle accident and there is another car on scene, where should you usually position your vehicle?
Pull past the crash 100 feet
105
Ambulances are never legally exempted from:
Passing through a railroad crossing w/ gates down & passing active school bus
106
A computerized deployment system that moves emergency vehicles around based on call volume and demands for service is termed:
System Status Management
107
Oversight for EMS services is usually handled at which level?
State Government Level
108
What GSA/DOT standard is the guideline for the proper safe construction of an ambulance?
KKK 1822 F
109
a system that uses a number of agencies, responder levels, and delivery vehicles?
A tiered system
110
Where do most emergency vehicle collisions occur?
At intersections
111
Type 1 Ambulance:
Type 2 Ambulance:
Type 3 Ambulance:
Type 4 Ambulance:
= Type 1: Truck chassis with box for bed
= Type 2: Van-bulance
= Type 3: Van cab with box for bed
= Type 4: Medium duty F550 cab with larger box
112
(Tiered response system): 1st tier of response:
2nd tier:
= helps ensure arrival within 4-mins window
= brings ALS unit to patient within 8-mins
113
Commission on Accreditation of Ambulance Services (CAAS) provides voluntary
“gold standard” for EMS community to follow
114
OSHA job:
protecting worker safety, ensure the use of equipment lists calling for disinfecting agents, sharps containers, red bags, N95 masks, personal respirators, & PPE.
115
Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs):
checking ambulance/ equipment routinely EX beginning each shift ambulance check off, checks BGL monitors weekly, ect
116
An ideal deployment plan must consider 2 sets of data:
Dynamic/Fluid deployment:
= past community responses & projected demographic changes.
= flexible plan for deployment of ambulances & crews based on factors (demographics, time of day & day of week, peak load, past response times, ect)
117
System Status Management (SSM): Computerized system designed (by & when) to achieve what:
Computerized system designed (dev/ed by Jack Stout in 1980s) to deploy personnel & ambulances to meet service demands w/ fewer resources while ensuring appropriate response times & vehicle locations
118
Primary Areas of Responsibility (PARs):
PAR size depends on:
PAR Ambulances can be relocate EX:
= w/o multiple strategically located stations, services often deploy ambulances to wait for calls at specific high-volume locations.
= # of ambulances available & expected call volume
= throughout day as the population moves EX posted in HTX ghetto
119
Quick Response Vehicles (QRV):
mobile transport/ devices (Bike, Van, motorcycle, ect) for quicker responses staffed by EMS, & other 1st responders (law enforcement & firefighters)
