EMT 222 Flashcards

1
Q

The time of the patient’s last ______helps determine the appropriateness of surgery.

A

Oral intake

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2
Q

What is the purpose of a scene size up?

A

Determine what resources are needed

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3
Q

What is the paramedic’s first priority?

A

Personal safety

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4
Q

The secondary assessment consists of physical examination techniques, measurement of vital signs, an assessment of body systems, and what other element?

A

skillful use of examination equipment

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5
Q

What does the letter Q represent in the mnemonic memory device, OPQRST?

A

quality

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6
Q

What is the primary survey’s main objective?

A

identify and manage life threats

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7
Q

What is the first action to take place during scene size up?

A

scene safety

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8
Q

What exam technique is considered a form of invasion and should be initiated with respect?

A

palpation

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9
Q

You respond to a complaint of abdominal pain. Which mnemonic memory device can help you better understand the patient’s chief complaint?

A

OPQRST

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10
Q

What should a paramedic do if a patient displays hostile or aggressive behavior?

A

Retreat from scene

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11
Q

The paramedic determines that a patient in respiratory failure requires an advanced airway. During which phase should this determination take place?

A

primary survey

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12
Q

During what aspect of patient care should vital signs be obtained?

A

general survey

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13
Q

Which of the following questions is the most open-ended?

A

“what is the pain like”

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14
Q

How should paramedics deal with downed power lines?

A

Wait until trained professionals arrive

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15
Q

Paramedics approach a patient lying supine on the pavement after being ejected during a motor vehicle collision and note cyanosis. What is the next step on the primary survey?

A

Verify level of consciousness

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16
Q

What does poor skin turgor indicate?

A

dehydration

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17
Q

When asking a patient about medication use, what should the paramedic include?

A

Prescription and over-the-counter medications as well as herbs and homeopathic medications

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18
Q

Who is responsible for controlling traffic, managing bystanders and containing any violence at the scene?

A

Law enforcement

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19
Q

The paramedic should be on the scene of a critical trauma patient for no more than ____ minutes.

A

10

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20
Q

Paramedics have discovered that a patient has aphasia. What would the paramedic be assessing to discover such an abnormal finding?

A

Speech and language

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21
Q

The budget of a typical EMS system is primarily dependent on

A

reimbursement

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22
Q

Which of the following is subjective data?

A

a complaint of chest pressure

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23
Q

Which of the following statements contains both objective and subjective information?

A

“The patient appeared confused and stated that he had a headache.”

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24
Q

Which of the following is the least important reason for accurately documenting a patient care encounter?

A

to help with promotion

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25
Which of the following pertains more to a police report than to a patient care report?
Pertinent ballistics data
26
Tracked information from the patient care report may be required for:
police records
27
What needs to be documented when revising a patient care report?
The reason for the revision
28
Which is the last step in the CHART method?
patient transport
29
When choosing details to include in a patient care report, a paramedic should:
provide accurate, complete details
30
Which statement regarding revisions or corrections to a patient care report is correct?
Only the person who wrote the original report can revise or correct it.
31
EMS radio systems are designed to allow the use of one channel by multiple users at the same time through the inclusion of:
the continuous tone-controlled squelch system
32
EMS in the NATO alphabet is:
Echo Mike Sierra
33
If you were designing an EMS communication system for a very hilly county in your state, what radio band would be the best?
Very high frequency high band
34
A cell is
an area covered by one communication antenna
35
If all the dispatchers at a particular location are taking emergency calls, a well-designed EMS dispatch center's phones will:
forward the call to an alternate dispatch center
36
In a city of 1,000,000 residents, EMS calls would be handled by public safety answering points while fire calls would be handled by:
a second public safety answering point
37
Dispatch training should meet the standers set by:
the NHTSA
38
When speaking with a patient:
do everything possible to maintain confidentiality
39
What kind of time scale can be obtained for data in most EMS systems today?
near real time
40
A communications system allows an EMS agency to exchange:
needed information
41
African American patients who are homosexuals are more likely to have:
STD
42
Who is most immediately helped by feedback in therapeutic communication?
sender
43
What can encourage patients to end a refusal to talk?
approval cooperation
44
Which of the following behaviors falls outside of defense mechanisms?
confrontation
45
When working in a neighborhood high in LGBTQ individuals, you may deal with more cases of:
attempted suicide
46
To help in interacting with patients, a paramedic should wear:
a clean, professional uniform to gain respect
47
When a patient deflects the questions asked by a paramedic, the paramedic should:
use the deflection to gently redirect to the cause
48
If you are working with an uncooperative patient, you may have to accept:
that not all information may be able to be obtained
49
What has occurred when a paramedic describes a technique in Spanish to a non-English-speaking patient?
encoding
50
If a patient becomes alarmed when a paramedic moves close to the patient to apply a bandage there may be issues with:
culturally defined personal space
51
To obtain more information about possible sexual abuse, the paramedic should be:
nonjudgmental
52
Giving positive feedback to encourage the patient during history taking is called:
facilitation
53
Orthopnea indicates that the chief concern is related to the:
cardiovascular system
54
Surgery may need to be delayed if a patient reports an intake of food less than BLANK hours before emergency department admission.
2
55
Which of the following is a personal habit rather than an environmental condition?
diet
56
The paramedic should carefully assess the chest when a patient complains of:
hemoptysis
57
A 70 y/o woman with a history of angina needs emergency help. Which of the following will provide the most information to paramedics about her heart condition?
patient history
58
In triage, which patient would receive care first?
critical
59
If you have to "read between the lines" while working on a patient history, what technique are you using?
interpretation
60
When assessing a 40 y/o woman complaining of abdominal pain, you should inquire about:
her LMP
61
Which of the following statements accurately describes scene size-up?
It includes personal safety of emergency response personnel?
62
An example of an environmental hazard that may affect scene safety is:
icy conditions
63
Which of the following may be inferred from an unresponsive patient who lacks a palpable femoral pulse?
Cardiopulmonary arrest
64
If a condition poses a threat to bystanders, what should be done?
The bystanders should be moved to a safer area
65
What is the most important question to be answered when evaluating an emergency scene?
Is the scene safe for personnel to enter?
66
If a patient is armed and there is a possible safety issue, what should the paramedic do?
retreat until law enforcement secures the weapon
67
If a scene is not safe, what should the EMS crew do?
Remain in a safe staging area and request additional resources
68
In what age range is the capillary refill test most reliable?
Under 12 years
69
In a Spanish study of the relationship between nasal flaring and acidosis in patients with severe dyspnea, what percentage of participants showed nasal flaring?
47%
70
In the Spanish study of the relationship between nasal flaring and acidosis in patients with severe dyspnea, how much more likely was nasal flaring associated with acidosis compared to any other sign of respiratory distress?
10 times
71
The 12 cranial nerves can be categorized as sensory, somatomotor, proprioceptive, and BLANK?
parasympathetic
72
How is a child's general appearance best assessed?
from a distance
73
Which of the following physical examination findings can be evaluated through palpation?
Crepitus
74
For adults older than 59 years, blood pressure typically exceeds BLANK mm Hg before treatment is started
150/90
75
Which of the following conditions may cause priapism?
leukemia
76
A chest wall deformity characterized by an indention of the lower sternum above the xiphoid process is know as:
funnel chest
77
During auscultation of the heart, the "dub" sound is caused by:
closure of the pulmonic valve
78
What type of skin lesion is seen in rosacea?
Telengiectasia
79
Turgor refers to:
the elasticity of the skin
80
Dysarthria can be described as:
poorly articulated speech
81
During which stage of crew resource management must team leaders acknowledge the emotions that come with a challenge to their orders?
decision
82
Which of the following statements about effective assessment is accurate?
Some field situations may limit the thoroughness of the examination
83
Which of the following is a limitation of protocols, standing orders, and patient care algorithms?
They do not address multiple disease etiologies or multiple treatments modalities
84
Which of the following describes pattern recognition in EMS assessment?
A situation in which the history and physical examination match a recognized pattern of illness
85
Which of the following actions is included in the evaluation component of critical thinking?
revision of field impression
86
The ability to quickly focus thinking to get the desired results depending on the situation is known as:
critical thinking
87
Which of the following is an element that should be included in the challenge portion of the PACE procedure?
A statement of the occurrence that is believed to be a threat
88
Which of the following is an example of a distracting injury?
Dislocated shoulder
89
Which of the following may increase patient compliance?
acting and appearing professional and competent
90
The quality of data interpretation relies on:
the paramedic's intuition
91
electronic program used in prehospital setting to record all patient care activities and circumstances related to response
electronic patient care report
92
portion of that PCR that allows a provider to describe events during a call not captured in prepopulated boxes
narriative
93
information based on observable facts such as clinical signs
objective information
94
findings that warrant no medical care or intervention but that provide evidence of the thoroughness of the Pt exam and the history of event
pertinent negative findings
95
information based on opinions expressed by patient or other or info based on subjected feeling of the patient such as clinical symptoms
subjective information
96
pt primary complaint reason for EMS call
chief complaint
97
paramedics primary concern related to patient conditions
chief concern
98
contextual continuous and evolving process in which data are gathered interpreted and evaluated so as to select an evidence based choice of action
clinical decision making
99
use of the results of questions to think about associated problems and system changes related to pt condition
clinical reasoning
100
pt current state of health
current health status
101
weighing the probability of one disease verses that of another possibility accounting for the pt illness
differential diagnosis
102
questions that determine why the patient is seeking medical care or advice
opening questions
103
pt medical background which may offer insight into pt current problem
past medical history
104
chief complain identification of present illness is supported by full clear chronologic account of the symptoms
present illness
105
an immediate assessment of the enviornment and the patient chief complaint used to determine whether the patient is ill or injured and the NOI and MOI
general impression
106
nature of the force exerted on the body that produced physical injury
mechanism of injury
107
principal characteristics and causes of an illness
nature of illness
108
combo of scene size up and initial patient eval used to establish scene safety to recognize and manage life threatening conditions
primary assessment
109
critical component of the primary assessment that focuses of the initial evaluation of a patient to recognize and manage life threatening conditions
primary survey
110
patients who need immediate care and transport
priority patients
111
life saving measures preformed immediately such as airway control ventilatory assistance control of bleeding and cardiopulmonary resuscitation
resuscitative measure
112
area away from emergency scene that provides safety
safe staging area
113
assessment of the scene to promote scene safety of the paramedic crew patient and bystanders
scene size up
114
condition characterized by unequil pupil size
anisocoria
115
loss of ability to understand or express speech
aphasia
116
failure of muscle coordination
ataxia
117
minimum level of blood pressure measured between contractions of the heart
diastolic BP
118
difficult and poorly articulated speech resulting from poor control over the muscles of speech
dysarthria
119
abnormality in the speaking voice such as hoarseness
dysphonia
120
bleeding from the nose
epistaxis
121
abnormal heart sounds caused by altered blood flow into a chamber or through a valve
heart murmurs
122
test to evaluate stance and balance preformed by having the patient stand erect with eyes closed feet together and arms at the sides
romberg test
123
the blood pressure measured during the period of ventricular contractions
systolic BP
124
the volume of air inspired or expired in a single resting breath
tidal volume
125
SOAP
subjective, objective, assessment, plan
126
DACHARTE
dispatch arrival chief complaint history assessment rx treatment transport exceptions
127
visual assessment of the patient and surroundings
inspection
128
the hands and fingers to gather information by touch
palpation
129
used to evaluate the presence of air or fluid in body tissues
percussion
130
use of stethoscope used to assess body sounds made by the movement of various fluids or gasses in the patients organs or tissues
auscultation
131
over most of the lung fields and are the major normal breath sounds
Vesicular breath sounds
132
are heard over the major bronchi and in the posterior chest between the scapula louder and harsher than vesicular breath sounds
bronchovesicular breath sounds
133
Bronchial breath sounds
heard only over the trachea and are the highest pitch. Coarse harsh loud with short inspiratory phase and long expiratory
134
high pitched discontinuous sound heard during the end of inspiration like hair being rubbed between fingers.
crackle
135
is also known as sibilant wheeze. High pitched musical noises that usually are louder during expiration
wheeze
136
known as sonnorous wheezes continuous low pitched rumbling sounds usually heard on expiration
ronchi
137
usually on inspiratory crowing type sound that can he beard without aid of a sethoscope
stritor
138
low pitched dry rubbing or grating sounds
Pleural friction rub
139
use of communication techniques in a planned professional manner to 1. foster a positive relationship with the patient and 2. facilitate a shared understanding of information between the patient and paramedic.
therapeutic
140
establish boundaries with hostile patientents and patients who are sexually aggressive
boundaries
141
communicating with children, older adults, hard of hearing, visually impaired, under the influence of drugs and alcohol, LGBTQ, cultural
adjustments
142
Base station radios
fixed positions
143
mobile transceivers
vehicle or aircraft
144
portable transceivers
handheld or hand carried
145
increases the effective communications range of handheld portable radio mobile radio or base station radio by transmitting received radio signals
repeaters
146
cell phones
have more channels
147
sophisticated computer-controlled radio system
Trunked radio systems
148
digital phones, telemetry, fax, paging, alerting systems
digital modes
149
computer technology example
AED
150
name a few examples of how to communicate on the radio
Think before you speak Key the microphone for 2-3 seconds before speaking Speak close range into the mic Speak slowly and clearly Speak at a normal pitch and not with emotion Be brief and concise break up long messages Avoid codes, dialect, or slang Advise the reciever when the transmission has been completed Confirm the receiving party has received the message Always be professional, polite, and calm
151
give a few examples you ask about in history taking
Chief complaint HPI OPQRST Past medical history Medications Last oral intake Family history LMP Last BM Events leading up to the emergency
152
SOAP
subjective data, objective data, assessment data, plan of patient management
153
chronological
in order of the call
154
cheated
chief complaint or concern, history, exam, assessment, treatment, evaluation, disposition
155
chart
chief complaint or concern, history, assessment, RX treatment, transport
156
dacharte
dispatch, arrival, chief complaint, history, Assessment, rx treatment on scene, transport, exceptions
157
what is seen in scene size up
Ensure scene safety Determine MOI/NOI Standard precautions # of patients Consider specialized resources
158
the paramedic’s initial assessment of the setting and the patient’s chief complaint. It is formed based on the information from the scene size up, the primary assessment, and possibly the secondary assessment.
general impression
159
The ability to see a situation from a viewpoint of the person experiencing it
empathy
160
The expression of one’s feelings about another person’s problems
sympathy