list the lpm ranges + O2% for the following adjuncts: - nc - simple face mask - nrbfm

- n/c_ 1-6 L/min @ 24-44% - simple face mask_6-10 L/min @ 28-60% - nrbfm_ 10- 15 L/min @ 90%

Emt Midterm Flashcards by sydney hanson

After placing an AED, attaching the pads and pressing analyze the AED will indicate two options. List them

Shock and no shock

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Artificial ventilation and cpr are performed for the purpose of keeping_____ circulating in order to prevent the death of the brain and other body cells

Oxygenated blood

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What is the correct procedure for treating FABO with an unconscious patient?

Cpr

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Chest compressions for adults are performed with

Heel of hand lower half of breast bone

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According to the AHA BLS HCP, where to you assess a child’s pulse

Carotid artery

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You have an alert and oriented pregnant adult patient with a FBAO. Where will you attempt thrusts to relieve the obstruction while the patient is still conscious?

Chest thrust

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SENARIO (8-10)
An EMT is performing single rescuer cpr on an 8-month old female who was found in cardiopulmonary arrest. after 4 mins of cpr, the infant is apneic with a strong pulse

….

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.at what rate will you ventilate this patient for rescue breathing

one breath every 3 seconds / 20 breaths /m

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.what was the ratio of compressions to ventilations used while performing single rescue cpr?

30:2

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.where did you assess the pulse for this patient?

brachial pulse

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after each chest compression, the compressor should allow for _____

chest recoil

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pulse oximetry is a diagnostic tool used to monitor____.

O2 saturation

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a capnometer measures the presence and amount of_____ in a patients exhaled air

CO2

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EMT wannabe is treating a 24 year old female in respiratory arrest. what is the standard flow rate used with the bvm attached to an O2 reservoir

15 L/min (Lpm)

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what determines if the LPM flow rate is adequate when using a reservoir bagged device (bvm or nrbfm)?

reservoir stays infalted

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list the lpm ranges + O2% for the following adjuncts:

nc
simple face mask
nrbfm

n/c_ 1-6 L/min @ 24-44%
simple face mask_6-10 L/min @ 28-60%
nrbfm_ 10-15 L/min @ 90%

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what design feature differentiates a nrbfm from a partial rebreather face mask?

the one-way valve

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in an un-witness cardiac arrest, the AED is utilized when?

ASAP

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why is the mask of the bvm transparent?

you can monitor for vomit

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what is the size of the universal connection that is an industry standard for airway adjunct?

15-22min

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to ensure adequate chest rise + prevent gastric distention with a bvm requires _____ and _____?

mask seal, properly opened airway (HTCL or JT)

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what airway adjust is contraindicated in the presence of facial trauma?

NPA

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which airway adjunct is indicated when ventilating with a bvm?

opa, npa

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in a witness cardiac arrest, the AED id utilized when?

ASAP

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you are treating an adult cardiac arrest patient. The AED analyzes, indicates shock; after clearing and shocking once with the AED, what is the EMT's next action?

CPR

an AED is programmed to identify ONLY v-fib or v-tach; if 'NO SHOCK' is indicated, it is incumbent for the emt to_____

CPR

the term 'secure the airway' refers to what?

open airway/ clear airway

the medical technology, the term_____refers to a condition that, if present, dictates that a certain procedure or action should be taken by the EMT

indication

_______ are heard normally over the entire chest wall and are produced by air moving through the small airway and tissues

vesicular breath sounds

in addition to BSI, what is essential to minimize risk of cross contamination

hand washing

significant _____ ______ causes elevation of the diaphragm and reduction in lung volume

gastric distention

to osculate lung sounds, make sure you utilize the ____ of the stethoscope

diaphragm

to facilitate the proper insertion of the combitube, the patients head is placed in the _____position

neutral

to inflate the cuffs on the combitube, use the supplied syringes to insert_____of air into the pharyngeal cuff and ____ of air into the distal cuff(esophageal)

``` 100 cc (mL) 15 cc(mL) ```

prior to insertion of the combitube, the cuff must be checked and the distal end of the tube_____

lubricated

tracheal placement of the combitube requires ventilation through which tube?

tube 2

other than age and height, list 4 of the remaining contraindications to the use of either the combi or kind tube:

gag, airway obstructions, stoma, esophagus disease

when removing the combitube which cuff is deflated first

tube 1

where are the breath sounds auscultated to verify placement of the combitube?

mid clavicular/mid axilary

list the 2 types of suction catheters

hard/soft

suctioning should be limited to____ seconds in the adullt patient, and ____ seconds in the pediatric patient

15,10

because of their relatively small size 'D' and 'E' cylinders are commonly referred to as ________cylingers

protible

O2 cylinders are considered full at ___to___psi and empty at____psi

2000-2200, 200

since O2 is stared under pressure it is necessary to reduce the pressure to a managable workable level using a _______

regulator

once the O2 pressure from the cylinder has been reduced, a ____ then controls and measure L/min

flow meter

what prevents 'E' and 'D' O2 cylinders from being filled with anything but O2?

pin index system

short term use of O2 without humidification is acceptable if the duration is____

less than 1 hour

how would you provide supplemental O2 to a patient with a c/c of chest discomfort without SOB

nasal cannula @ 2 L/min

a patient is placed on 4 NRBFM @ its lowest flow setting, using a 'D' cylinder @ 1700 psi. How long will the cylinder last?

10L/min *(1700-200) x 16/ 10 = 24 min

high-flow O2 is defined as:

15L via NR

list the 6 elements of scene assessment:

scene safety, BSI, general impression, MOI/NOI, hazards,als and additional resources

list the 4 elements of the primary (initial) assessment in order of completeness:

general impression, avpu, abcd, transport decision, and chief complaint

match the elements to the appropriate components of the secondary assessment (choices and be used more then once)

* significant MOI- rapid assessment * No significant MOI-chief comp/ focused assessment * responsive medical-focused assessment based on history * unresponsive medical-rapid assessment

a______is preformed after completing all critical interventions it is situational and time dependent

secondary assessment

which patient assessment component is a means of determining changes in the pts condition, including vital signs

reassessment

SAMPLE

``` signs/symptoms allergies medications past pertinent medical history last oral intake events leading up ```

AVPU

alert verbal pain unresponsive

DCAP-BTLS

``` deformity contusions abrasions penetration/potrusion - burns tenderness lacerations swelling ```

list the 6 baseline vital signs that should be documented for all patients

-bp-pulse rate-respiration rate-glucose-spO2-pupil dialation-pain scale-skin color-temp

OPQRSR

``` onset provocation quality region/radiation severity timing ```

3 parameters when assessing pulse:

rate, rhythm,strength

3 parameters when assessing respirations:

rate, rhythm,strenght

an unstable pt should be reassessed every__minutes; while a stable pt should be reassessed every---minutes

5,15

scene times for major trauma pt should be less than___ mins when pratical

10 mins

according to 64j what 3 things must the first EMT issue upon determine that a trauma pt meets the requirements of adult trauma scorecard methodology

active airway assistance, bp<90(no radial), penetration wound to head or torso, 15% BSA of 2nd or 3rd degree burns, gas<12

what single airway criteria will result in an adult trauma pt being classified as a trauma alert?

active airway

an adult trauma pt with a systolic bp less than ___ mm/Hg, they are classified as trauma alert

90 (check radial)

a patient is placed on a N/C @40%, using an 'E' cylinder @ 2200psi. how long will the cylinder last

*(2200-200)x 28/5=112min

what type of burn injury will result I an adult pt being classified as trauma alert?

2nd/3rd > 15%bsa

what criteria for penetrating injury will result in an adult pt being classified as a trauma alert?

torso or head

list one of the 3 single bmk criteria, which will result in an adult trauma pt being classified as trauma alert

4 or less

if the adult trauma lacks a _____ with a sustained hr greater than ____bpm- they are classified as trauma alert

``` radial pulse(<90mm/Hg) 120 ```

criteria for amputation injury that results in adult pt being classified as trauma alert

proximal to wrist/ankle

senario

mva, ejection(motorcycle)trauma alert? no

senario

62, fell 15ft, alert x oriented, only symptom is pain LUQ, trauma? yes

what is this pts gcs score? - open eye only to deep pain - incomprehensible words - flexes arms upon stimulation

2+2+3=7

gcs score ? - opened eyes upon you arrival - oreinted and obeyed simple commands

4+5+6=15

when documenting a (v)_____is something that, given a particular illness/injury would be expected but isn't.

pertinent negative

list 3 components of a good pcr

completeness of information, accuracy and neatness

if a mistake is made on a pcr, correct by____ and ____

crossing out with a single line, initialing

if something is forgotten and needs to be written in an incorrect area label it a ___ ____

late entry

indicate proper placement of 4-lead electrodes

green- RL white-RU black-LU red-LL

under routine circumstances the ___portion of the scoop stretcher should be secured first after placement under the pt

head

what is the appropriate stretcher for the following: | 65 yrld male with acute CHF and SOB on the second floor of a town house

stair chair

35 yrld male complaining of abdominal discomfort, weight of 800lbs on ground floor apartment

fat blanket/ bariatric blanket

87 Harold female with unstable bilateral hip pain after falling out of her bed in her single wide trailer

scoop stretcher

Emt Midterm Flashcards

(86 cards)