EMT205 Review Flashcards
(144 cards)
1
Q
which of the following medications is commonly administered via nebulizer?
a. penicillin
b. albuterol
c. digoxin
d. lidocaine
A
b. albuterol
2
Q
a patient experiences profound sedation when an opioid, such as fentanyl, is given together with a benzodiazepine, such as midazolam. This is an example of:
a. summation
b. synergism
c. antagonism
d. potentiation
A
b. synergism
3
Q
the action of the body in response to a medication is called:
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacodynamics
c. biotransformation
d. pharmacology
A
a. pharmacokinetics
4
Q
the generic name of medication:
a. is the official name approved by the FDA
b. does not require approval from the FDA
c. contains a string of letters and numbers
d. is proprietary and cannot be reproduced
A
a. is the official name approved by the FDA
5
Q
which of the following medications is derived from a plant source?
a. atropine
b. insulin
c. heparin
d. lithium
A
a. atropine
6
Q
a medication undergoes first-pass metabolism in the:
a. stomach
b. spleen
c. liver
d. bone marrow
A
c. liver
7
Q
which of the following statements regarding the sublingual administration of nitroglycerin is correct?
a. sublingual nitroglycerin administration involved placing a tablet between the patient’s cheek and gum
b. large doses of intravenous nitroglycerin are required to achieve the same effect as a single sublingual nitroglycerine dose
c. sublingual nitroglycerine has a delayed onset of action, but nearly a 100% bioavailability
d. nitroglycerin given by the sublingual route has a rapid onset of action
A
d. nitroglycerin given by the sublingual route has a rapid onset of action
8
Q
which of the following medications would be considered an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor?
a. Captopril
b. Zantac
c. Diazepam
d. Synthroid
A
a. Captopril
9
Q
an undesirable clinical change caused by a medication that causes some degree of harm or discomfort to the patient is called a(n):
a. side effect
b. placebo effect
c. adverse effect
d. idiosyncrasy
A
c. adverse effect
10
Q
a drug possesses the same desired clinical effect in several smaller doses as it does in a larger single dose has demonstrated:
a. an idiosyncratic reaction
b. the placebo effect
c. cross-tolerance
d. a cumulative action
A
d. a cumulative action
11
Q
if yo had 18 tablespoons of couch syrup, you would have about:
a. 0.5 L
b. 0.25 L
c. 0.1 L
d. 0.33 L
A
b. 0.25 L
12
Q
which question would cause an unnecessary delay if used during the safety cross-check procedure?
a. volume?
b. ready?
c. expiration date?
d. contraindications?
A
c. expiration date?
13
Q
to administer a nasal drug to a patient who is slumped over a chair, you should first:
a. use a decongestant to clear the nose
b. wipe the nasal area with an antiseptic wipe
c. warm the medication
d. move the patient to lie on his or her back
A
d. move the patient to lie on his or her back
14
Q
the drop factor in running an intravenous line is:
a. the distance below the intravenous pump to place the patient
b. the amount blood pressure will change with each milliliter administered
c. the size of the drop delivered by an apparatus
d. the number of drops per second
A
c. the size of the drop delivered by an apparatus
15
Q
which injectable medication is not typically carried on an ambulance?
a. dry powder to weigh
b. multidose vial
c. single-dose ampule
d. prefilled syringe
A
a. dry powder to weigh
16
Q
a patient has a fever at:
a. 30 Celsius
b. 35 Celsius
c. 20 Celsius
d. 40 Celsius
A
d. 40 Celsius
17
Q
which of the following interventions requires an approach that is different form venous cannulation?
a. removing fluid buildup
b. providing drugs
c. supplying fluids
d. obtaining samples
A
a. removing fluid buildup
18
Q
which of the following is part of “clean technique”?
a. cleaning agents
b. working without barrier for a good view
c. working as quickly as possible
d. cleaning used disposable needles
A
a. cleaning agents
19
Q
which of the following medications could be found both on the NEMSIS list and on any ePCR?
a. enalapril
b. calcium gluconate
c. diazepam
d. prednisone
A
c. diazepam
20
Q
about how many sharps-related injuries occur each year among US health care workers?
a. 400,000
b. 300,000
c. 600,000
d. 200,000
A
a. 400,000
21
Q
drugs are derived from these five major sources:
a. water, air, minerals, microorganisms, and animals
b. minerals, air, synthetics, chemicals, and water
c. plants, animals, minerals, synthetics, and microorganisms
d. food products, air, minerals, water, and synthetics
A
c. plants, animals, minerals, synthetics, and microorganisms
22
Q
which of the following is the drug name for Demerol, as approved by the FDA?
a. Demerol
b. Meperidine hydrochloride
c. Meperidine hydrochloride, USP
d. Ethyl 1-methyl-4-phenylisoni-pectotate
A
b. Meperidine hydrochloride
23
Q
which name is “Nitrostat (R)”?
a. trade name
b. chemical name
c. official name
d. generic name
A
a. trade name
24
Q
which name is “nitroglycerine?
a. trade name
b. chemical name
c. official name
d. generic name
A
d. generic name
25
which name is "Nitroglycerine Sublingual Tablets, USP"?
a. trade name
b. chemical name
c. official name
d. generic name
d. official name
26
which name is "1,2,3-trinitroxypropane"?
a. trade name
b. chemical name
c. official name
d. generic name
b. chemical name
27
compared to trade name drugs, generic drugs:
a. have 75% to 90% of the strength of trade name drugs
b. have the same therapeutic efficacy as the trade name version
c. are produced by the government; trade name drugs are produced by private industry
d. are typically repackaged versions of the trade name drugs that have exceeded their shelf life
b. have the same therapeutic efficacy as the trade name version
28
which of the following would provide the most up-to-date information on a drug?
a. the Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR)
b. American Medical Association Drug Evaluation
c. the American Hospital Formulary Service
d. Internet Web sites such as MedLine Plus
d. Internet Web sites such as MedLine Plus
29
which 1906 act by the US Congress was enacted to protect the public from mislabeled or adulterated drugs?
a. The National Formulary Act
b. The Pure Food and Drug Act
c. The Controlled Substance Act
d. The United States Pharmacopeia Act
b. The Pure Food and Drug Act
30
which of the following is "the science of dispensing drugs"?
a. pharmaceutics
b. pharmacokinetics
c. pharmacodynamics
d. pharmocodistribution
a. pharmaceutics
31
which of the following is "the study of how the body handles a drug over a period of time, including the processes of absorption, distribution, biotransformation, and excretion"?
a. pharmaceutics
b. pharmacokinetics
c. pharmacodynamics
d. pharmocodistribution
b. pharmacokinetics
32
which of the following is "the study of how a drug acts on a living organism"?
a. pharmaceutics
b. pharmacokinetics
c. pharmacodynamics
d. pharmocodistribution
c. pharmacodynamics
33
what is an "orphan drug"?
a. a medication used to treat a rare condition
b. a medication used for patients with no insurance
c. a medication whose use is prohibited for orphaned children
d. a medication derived from an unknown source
a. a medication used to treat a rare condition
34
which is the following is an enteral route of administration?
a. rectal
b. intramuscular
c. sublingual
d. intravenous
a. rectal
35
most absorption of drugs administered by the enteral route occurs in the:
a. mucosal lining of the mouth
b. stomach
c. large intestine
d. small intestine
c. small intestine
36
parenteral drugs are administered:
a. within the GI tract
b. by mouth
c. by injection
d. through the skin
c. by injection
37
the two general types of drug reservoirs are:
a. fat binding and muscle binding
b. plasma protein binding and tissue binding
c. erythrocyte binding and leukocyte binding
d. preganglionic binding and postganglionic binding
b. plasma protein binding and tissue binding
38
lipid-soluble drugs tend to be stored in:
a. tendons
b. muscles
c. bones
d. fat
d. fat
39
the primary organ(s) of drug excretion is (are) the:
a. liver
b. lungs
c. spleen
d. kidneys
d. kidneys
40
reactive sites within cells or an cellular surfaces where a drug may bind are called:
a. locks
b. binders
c. keys
d. receptors
d. receptors
41
removal or destruction of disease-causing organisms or infected material is known as:
a. medical asepsis
b. medical cleansing
c. debridement
d. sterilization
a. medical asepsis
42
which of the following does NOT affect the drug absorption?
a. blood flow to the site of administration
b. the solubility of the drug
c. temperature of the medication at time of administration
d. the drug concentration
c. temperature of the medication at time of administration
43
which organ is NOT used for excretion?
a. liver
b. kidney
c. lungs
d. intestine
a. liver
44
children are highly sensitive to drugs, this is a result of:
a. natural decline of hepatic and renal systems
b. immature hepatic and renal systems
c. overactions hepatic and renal systems
d. they are not highly sensitive to drugs
b. immature hepatic and renal systems
45
when sodium bicarbonate is mixed with ___, the mixture crystallizes (or precipitates)?
a. sodium chloride
b. adenosine
c. amiodarone
d. calcium chloride
d. calcium chloride
46
what is inadvertently produced by mixing sodium bicarbonate and calcium chloride?
a. calcium carbonate (chalk)
b. dextrose
c. insulin
d. air molecule(s)
a. calcium carbonate (chalk)
47
the acronym "NAVEL" represents which drugs?
a. nitroglycerine, atropine, valium, epinephrine, and lasix
b. naloxone, adenosine, verapamil, epinephrine, and lidocaine
c. naloxone, atropine, vasopressin, epinephrine, and lidocaine
d. a. nitroglycerine, adenosine, valium, epinephrine, and lasix
c. naloxone, atropine, vasopressin, epinephrine, and lidocaine
48
a wide TI range indicates:
a. a drug that is fairly safe
b. a drug's effective levels and lethal levels are small
c. a drug that has high risks
d. a drug that is illegal
a. a drug that is fairly safe
49
which of the following medications CANNOT be administered via endotracheal tube?
a. naloxone
b. epinephrine
c. atropine
d. glucose
e. no drug can be delivered via ETT
d. glucose
50
which of the following medications can be administered via endotracheal tube?
a. heparin
b. thiamine
c. atropine
d. glucose
e. any drug can be delivered via ETT
c. atropine
51
fibers that release acetylcholine are known as:
a. adrenergic
b. muscarinic
c. cholinergic
d. anticholinergic
c. cholinergic
52
epinephrine is an adrenergic substance that is a(n):
a. enzyme produced by the kidneys
b. enzyme produced in the cerebral cortex
c. hormone produced by the adrenal medulla
d. hormone produced by the medulla oblongata
c. hormone produced by the adrenal medulla
53
drugs that mimic the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system are called:
a. parasympatholytic
b. parasympathomimetic
c. sympatholytic
d. sympathomimetic
b. parasympathomimetic
54
examples of synthetic catecholamines include:
a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. lovephed
d. dopamine
c. levophed
55
where are alpha-1 receptors located?
a. in the brain only
b. at the presynaptic nerve endings
c. in the brain and heart only
d. in a postsynaptic position, on the effector organ
d. in a postsynaptic position, on the effector organ
56
where are alpha-2 receptors located?
a. in the heart only
b. at the presynaptic nerve endings
c. in a postsynaptic position, on the effector organ
d. at the presynaptic and postsynaptic nerve endings
d. at the presynaptic and postsynaptic nerve endings
57
the drug ketorolac (Toradol) is a(n):
a. opioid
b. opiate
c. NSAID
d. narcotic analgesic
c. NSAID
58
drugs such as Pavulon and Norcuron may produce transient but total paralysis by binding to the:
a. alpha-1 receptor site in the peripheral smooth musculature
b. alpha-2 receptor site in the peripheral skeletal musculature
c. nicotinic receptor for acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
d. muscarinic receptor for cholinesterase at the neuromuscular junction
c. nicotinic receptor for acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
59
which hormone, released from the adrenal medulla, stimulates beta-2 receptors in the lungs to promote bronchodilation?
a. albuterol
b. epinephrine
c. acetylcholine
d. methylprednisolone
b. epinephrine
60
the somatic nervous system controls:
a. actions under conscious voluntary control
b. automatic functions such as respiration
c. smooth-muscle dilation and constriction
d. the tone of sphincters in the GI tract
a. actions under conscious voluntary control
61
your partner draws up a medication and hands you the syringe to administer to the patient. you know you must:
a. give the medication immediately
b. never administer an unlabeled medication prepared by another person
c. talk to medical direction before you can give the partner-prepared medication
d. make sure your partner tells you what medication is in the syringe
b. never administer an unlabeled medication prepared by another person
62
medication administration by intramuscular, intravenous, or intraosseous route is called:
a. parenteral
b. enteral
c. integumetnary
d. periosteal
a. parenteral
63
a glass containers that hold one dose of medication and has a glass top that must be snapped off is a(n):
a. vial
b. ampule
c. prefilled syringe
d. tubex
b. ampule
64
a glass or plastic container with a rubber stopper that holds multiple medication doses for injection is a(n):
a. vial
b. ampule
c. prefilled syringe
d. tubex
a. vial
65
when withdrawing medication from a glass ampule:
a. clean the entire ampule with alcohol
b. wrap the neck of the glass ampule with an alcohol swab or gauze
c. tap the top of the ampule against a hard surface to break off the cap
d. squeeze the bottom of the ampule for it to crack
b. wrap the neck of the glass ampule with an alcohol swab or guaze
66
a filter needle should be used when withdrawing medication from a(n):
a. multidose vial
b. reconstituted powder vial
c. ampule
d. prefilled syringe
c. ampule
67
the quickest method for getting fluids and medications into the bloodstream is by:
a. IM
b. SQ
c. IV
d. PO
c. IV
68
trace the electrical impulse from the brain to the effector organ/muscle in the PARASYMPATHETIC nervous system
brain -> spinal cord -> preganglion neuron -> cholinergic fibers -> acetylcholine -> synapse -> nicotinic cholinergic receptors -> postganglion neuron -> cholinergic fibers -> acetylcholine -> neuroeffector junction -> muscarinic cholinergic receptors -> effector organ/muscle
69
trace the electrical impulse from the brain to the effector organ/muscle in the SYMPATHETIC nervous system
brain -> spinal cord -> preganglion neuron -> cholinergic fibers -> acetylcholine -> synapse -> nicotinic cholinergic receptors -> postganglion neuron -> adrenergic fibers -> norepinephrine -> neuroeffector junction -> adrenergic receptors -> effector organ/muscle
70
trace the electrical impulse from the brain to the effector organ/muscle in the SOMATIC nervous system
brain -> spinal cord -> neuron -> cholinergic fibers -> acetylcholine -> neuroeffector junction -> nicotinic cholinergic receptors -> effector organ/muscle
71
the pH of the small intestine is greater than the pH of the stomach. based on this fact you can assume that:
a. acidic drugs will not be absorbed in the stomach
b. alkaloid drugs will be absorbed quickly in the stomach
c. alkaloid drugs will be absorbed more quickly in the small intestine than in the stomach
d. alkaloid drugs will be absorbed more quickly in the stomach than in the small intestine
c. alkaloid drugs will be absorbed more quickly in the small intestine than in the stomach
72
what effect will diarrhea have on a medication absorbed primarily in the small intestine?
a. none of the medication will be absorbed
b. the medication will be absorbed much more quickly in this liquid environment
c. there will be no change in absorption because diarrhea affects only the large intestine
d. the medication will have decreased exposure and therefore decreased absorption
d. the medication will have decreased exposure and therefore decreased absorption
73
fibers that release acetylcholine are known as:
a. adrenergic
b. muscarinic
c. cholinergic
d. anticholinergic
c. cholinergic
74
epinephrine is an adrenergic substance is a(n):
a. enzyme produce by the kidneys
b. enzyme produced by the cerebral cortex
c. hormone produced by the adrenal medulla
d. hormone produced by the medulla oblongata
c. hormone produced by the adrenal medulla
75
which of the following is true of the endocrine system?
a. the mode of transmission of messages is chiefly mechanical
b. the information is generally transmitted along nerves
c. hormones secreted are targeted for specific action by specific organs
d. generally, only a few cells are affected by endocrine transmission of chemicals
c. hormones secreted are targeted for specific action by specific organs
76
examples of synthetic catecholamines include:
a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Levophed
d. Dopamine
c. Levophed
77
you are caring for a trauma patient. which of the following medications would prevent coagulation?
a. dilantin
b. warfarin
c. furosemide
d. sodium nitroprusside
b. warfarin
78
which of the following medications is commonly used during hemodialysis to prevent the formation of blood clots?
a. paxil
b. heparin
c. mevacor
d. diabinese
b. heparin
79
Primatene Mist is one example of a nonselective adrenergic respiratory medication. an undesirable effect of nonselective adrenergic drugs is:
a. bronchodilation
b. muscle tremors
c. increased risk of hemorrhage
d. increased risk of CVA
b. muscle tremors
80
you have been dispatched to a local high school for a 15 y/o male c/o SOB. he informs you that he has taken "6 hits" of his Ventolin inhaler. which of the following side effects would be common to this scenario?
a. laryngospams
b. muscle tremors
c. transient deafness
d. swelling in the feet
b. muscle tremors
81
Theophylline is one example of the group of respiratory medication known as xanthines. unlike other respiratory medications, this group of medications:
a. promotes diuresis
b. relaxed the cardiac muscle
c. stimulated bronchial smooth muscle
d. decreases diaphragmatic contractility
a. promotes diuresis
82
Benadryl has some anticholinergic properties that may produce:
a. shortness of breath, tachycardia, and nausea
b. bradycardia, diarrhea, and drowsiness
c. salivation, lacrimation, and urination
d. tachycardia, constipation, and inhibition of secretions
d. tachycardia, constipation, and inhibition of secretions
83
which hormone released from the adrenal medulla stimulated beta-2 receptors in the lungs to promote bronchodilation?
a. albuterol
b. epinephrine
c. acetylcholine
d. methylprednisolone
b. epinephrine
84
Zantac, Tagamet, and Pepcid all work because of their antagonistic action at which receptor site?
a. G-1
b. H-2
c. Alpha-2
d. Gastro-2
b. G-2
85
abuse of laxatives may result in:
a. hemorrhoids
b. eating disorders
c. diabetes
d. electrolyte imbalance
d. electrolyte imbalance
86
which of the following is the primary hormone that regulated glucose metabolism?
a. insulin
b. glycogen
c. thyroxine
d. levothyroxine
a. insulin
87
you are caring for an unconscious 56 y/o male and find a bottle of Retrovir in the bathroom. what assumption might you make based on the presence of this medication?
a. the patient may have HIV
b. the patient may have tuberculosis
c. the patient may have recent history of CABG
d. the patient may have an electrolyte imbalance secondary to hemodialysis
a. the patient may have HIV
88
which body hormone, which is also in a synthetic drug preparation, stimulates the liver to break down glycogen so that glucose is released into the blood?
a. insulin
b. bilirubin
c. glucagon
d. levothyroxine
c. glucagon
89
the effect of parasympathetic stimulation on the heart is:
a. slowed rate
b. increased rate
c. increased force of contraction
d. constriction of coronary arteries
a. slowed rate
90
Beta-1 receptors are located primarily in the:
a. heart
b. brain
c. lungs
d. peripheral vascular system
a. heart
91
Beta-2 receptors are located predominantly in the:
a. heart
b. lungs
c. peripheral vascular system
d. renal and mesenteric vascular systems
b. lungs
92
because of their potential for abuse, benzodiazepines are listed as a:
a. schedule I controlled substance
b. schedule II controlled substance
c. schedule III controlled substance
d. schedule IV controlled substance
d. schedule IV controlled substance
93
these drugs have less abuse potential than "schedule II controlled substances" and includes Ketamine:
a. schedule I controlled substance
b. schedule II controlled substance
c. schedule III controlled substance
d. schedule IV controlled substance
c. schedule III controlled substance
94
These drugs have high abuse potential but an accepted medical use. Prescription is required. Examples include: opium, morphine, cocaine, fentanyl.
a. schedule I controlled substance
b. schedule II controlled substance
c. schedule III controlled substance
d. schedule IV controlled substance
b. schedule II controlled substance
95
these drugs have the highest abuse potential and no accepted medical use. Examples include: MDMA, LSD, heroin.
a. schedule I controlled substance
b. schedule II controlled substance
c. schedule III controlled substance
d. schedule IV controlled substance
a. schedule I controlled substance
96
lithium is used to treat:
a. manic disorders
b. depression
c. schizophrenia
d. multiple personality disorder
a. manic disorders
97
you administered 2.5 mg of albuterol. which of the following responses would you anticipate due to this drug's beta effects?
a. increased heart rate and bronchial dilation
b. decreased heart rate and bronchial dilation
c. increased heart rate and bronchial constriction
d. decreased heart rate and bronchial constriction
a. increased heart rate and bronchial dilation
98
what is the mechanism of action of emetics?
a. induces vomiting to rid the body of a drug
b. binds to the ingested drug or poison to prevent absorption
c. bind to RBCs to prevent transport of a drug throughout the body
d. promotes rapid and forceful diarrhea to speed the elimination of the ingested drug or poison
a. induces vomiting to rid the body of a drug
99
immunosuppressant drugs work by:
a. suppressing the activity of lumphocytes
b. activating the immune defenses
c. vaccinating against disease
d. causing the body to form antibodies
a. suppressing the activity of lymphocytes
100
when administering an intramuscular injection, inset the needle at a 90-degree angle while the skin is:
a. pinched
b. indented
c. held taunt
d. pulled up
c. held taut
101
a filter needle should be used when withdrawing medications from a(n):
a. multidose vial
b. reconstituted powder vial
c. ampule
d. prefilled syrings
c. ampule
102
the site most commonly used in the prehospital setting to start a peripheral IV is the:
a. lower extremity
b. subclavian vein
c. external jugular vein
d. upper extremity
d. upper extremity
103
proper application of a tourniquet for use in establishing an IV should results in tamponade of:
a. the venous vessel without occlusion of the arterial vessel
b. the arterial vessel without occlusion of the venous vessel
c. both the venous and arterial vessels
d. neither the venous nor the arterial vessel
a. the venous vessel without occlusion of the arterial vessel
104
the unit of measurement most commonly used in the medical community is the:
a. apothecary system
b. common household system
c. statistical system
d. metric system
d. metric system
105
the metric unit for volume is the:
a. liter
b. meter
c. gram
d. yard
a. liter
106
1 gram is equal to ____ micrograms
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1,000
d. 1,000,000
d. 1,000,000
107
a patient weighing 220 pound weighs:
a. 100 kg
b. 110 kg
c. 440 kg
d. 484 kg
a. 100 kg
108
to convert temperature from Fahrenheit to Celsius, subtract 32 and then:
a. multiply by 5/9
b. multiply by 9/5
c. subtract 5/9
d. add 9/6
a. multiply by 5/9
109
you have placed 1 g of lidocaine into a 500 cc bag of NS. what is the concentration?
a. 4 mg / 1 cc
b. 3 mg / 1 cc
c. 2 mg / 1 cc
d. 1 mg / 1 cc
c. 2 mg / 1 cc
110
you have been ordered to infuse NS at 100 cc/hour. you would set the 60 gtts IV set at:
a. 30 gtts/min
b. 80 gtts/min
c. 100 gtts/min
d. 120 gtts/min
c. 100 gtts/min
111
you have been ordered to administer 50 mg of Benadryl. the container has 100 mg / 1 ml. how much fluid would you administer for the correct dose?
a. 0.25 mL
b. 0.5 mL
c. 1.0 mL
d. 1.5 mL
b. 0.5 mL
112
you have been ordered to administer 40 mg of Lasix. you have 100 mg / 10 mL. how much fluid would you administer for the correct dose?
a. 2 mL
b. 4 mL
c. 6 mL
d. 10 mL
b. 4 mL
113
you are caring for a trauma patient who requires pain management due to a fractured humerus after falling from a ladder. the standing order says to administer 50 mcg of fentanyl. your multidose vial contains 100 mcg / 2 mL. how much fluid would you administer for the correct dose?
a. 0.5 mL
b. 1 mL
c. 1.5 mL
d. 2 mL
b. 1 mL
114
you are treating a patient with a fractured leg. you have been ordered to administer 6 mg of morphine sulfate for pain control. the vial contains 10 mg / 1 mL. how much fluid would you administer for the correct dose?
a. 0.06 mL
b. 0.3 mL
c. 0.5 mL
d. 0.6 mL
d. 0.6 mL
115
insulin syringes are marked in:
a. 1 unit increments
b. 1 mL increments
c. 1,000 unit increments
d. 1,000 mL increments
a. 1 unit increments
116
large lumen needles have:
a. small numbers (i.e. "12 gauge")
b. large numbers (i.e. "24 gauge")
c. letters (i.e. "A gauge")
d. double letters (i.e. "AA gauge")
a. small numbers (i.e. "12 gauge")
117
which of the following is a site used for central venous cannulation?
a. antecubital (AC) fossa
b. subclavian vein
c. external jugular (EJ) vein
d. saphenous vein
b. subclavian vein
118
if the normal intravenous dose of a medication is 5 mg, how much would you administer if you chose to give the medication via the endotracheal tube?
a. 1 mg
b. 5 mg
c. 10 mg
d. 25 mg
c. 10 mg
119
as the levels of an unbound drug decrease:
a. more drug is released from plasma protein binding
b. more drug is bound to tissues to preserve the circulating level
c. less drug is released into the bloodstream to allow for elimination
d. less drug is released from plasma protein binding
a. more drug is released from plasma protein binding
120
when administering a water-soluble drug to a newborn, you can anticipate that:
a. lesser amounts of the drug may be necessary
b. the majority of the drug will be excreted before it can have a therapeutic effect
c. congestive heart failure will results if the total volume of infusion is greater than 10 mL/kg
d. greater amounts of the drug may be necessary because of the proportionally higher volume of total body water
d. greater amounts of the drug may be necessary because of the proportionally higher volume of total body water
121
the nervous system is divided into two anatomical systems. these are:
a. the brain and spinal cord
b. the cranial nerves and peripheral nerves
c. the central and peripheral nervous systems
d. the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
c. the central and peripheral nervous systems
122
the neurotransmitter at the junction of the sympathetic postganglionic fiber and the effect cell is:
a. adrenalin
b. muscarine
c. acetylcholine
d. norepinephrine
d. norepinephrine
123
the two divisions of the nervous system that function continuously, stimulate many of the same organs, and oppose each other in an attempt to maintain balance are the:
a. effector and reactor nervous systems
b. central and peripheral nervous systems
c. somatic and autonomic nervous systems
d. parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems
d. parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems
124
in parasympathetic nervous action, the binding of acetylcholine at nicotinic receptors produces:
a. a blocking of the effector organ
b. a relaxation of the effector organ
c. an inhibition of the effector organ
d. an excitatory response in the effector organ
d. an excitatory response in the effector organ
125
although norepinephrine will bind to both postganglionic adrenergic receptor sites, it has an affinity for:
a. beta receptors
b. alpha receptors
c. nicotinic receptors
d. muscarinic receptors
b. alpha receptors
126
the effect of parasympathetic stimulation on the heart is:
a. slowed rate
b. increased rate
c. increased force of contraction
d. constriction of coronary arteries
a. slowed rate
127
common patient responses to atropine include:
a. increased heart rate and dilated pupils
b. decreased heart rate and unequal pupils
c. increased heart rate and constricted pupils
d. decreased heart rate and constricted pupils
a. increased heart rate and dilated pupils
128
actions of benzodiazepines include:
a. euphoria, anesthesia, relaxation, and anxiety reduction
b. anxiety reduction, mild hallucinogen, and mild hypnotic
c. hypnosis, euphoria, anxiety reduction, and mild hallucinogen
d. muscle relaxation, anxiety reduction, sedative, and anticonvulsant
d. muscle relaxation, anxiety reduction, sedative, and anticonvulsant
129
barbiturates, once commonly prescribed for sedation, are divided into four categories based on their:
a. addictiveness
b. therapeutic index
c. duration of action
d. route of administration
c. duration of action
130
the popular antidepressant Elavil is classified as a:
a. MAO inhibitor
b. sympathetic blocker
c. tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)
d. parasympathetic blocker
c. tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)
131
which of the following drugs are classified as MAO inhibitors?
a. lithium, desyrel, and zoloft
b. marplan, nardil, and parnate
c. prozac, wellbutrin, and zoloft
d. bupriopion, fluexetine, and trazodone
b. marplan, nardil, and parnate
132
neuromuscular blocking agents:
a. cause complete paralysis
b. inhibit pain receptors
c. inhibit pain transmitters
d. suppress seizure activity
a. cause complete paralysis
133
the electrolyte deficiency commonly associated with Lasix administration is:
a. zinc
b. calcium
c. potassium
d. magnesium
c. potassium
134
to form secondary units form the basic unit of the metric system. one can divide or multiply by:
a. 5, 10, or 20 parts
b. 5, 15, or 30 parts
c. 10, 100, or 1000 parts
d. 5, 10, or 100 parts
c. 10, 100, or 1000 parts
135
the unit of measure most commonly used to measure body organs is the:
a. kilometer
b. centimeter
c. micrometer
d. meter
b. centimeter
136
the primary unit of mass in the apothecary system is the:
a. minim
b. milligram
c. grain
d. ounce
c. grain
137
a microdrip administration set delivers:
a. 10 drops/mL
b. 15 drops/mL
c. 20 drops/mL
d. 60 drops/mL
d. 60 drops/mL
138
you are instructed to administer 40 mg of Lasix. you have a prefilled syringe containing 80 mg in 10 mL. you should administer:
a. 4 mL
b. 5 mL
c. 8 mL
d. 10 mL
b. 5 mL
139
you are ordered to administer 4 mg per minute of lidocaine to a patient with a ventricular dysrhythmia. the lidocaine is mixed in 4 mg/mL and you are using a 60 drops/mL set. the flow rate will be:
a. 15 drops/minute
b. 30 drops/minute
c. 45 drops/minute
d. 60 drops/minute
d. 60 drops/minute
140
class I antidysrhythmics are:
a. beta blocking agents
b. sodium channel blockers
c. potassium channel blockers
d. calcium channel blockers
b. sodium channel blockers
141
class III antidysrhythmics (e.g. amiodarone) do not suppress automaticity and do not affect velocity. these drugs produce:
a. increased contractility
b. decreased contractility
c. increased automaticity
d. decreased automaticity
a. increased contractility
142
diuretics are commonly used with other antihypertensive medications to control blood pressure effectively, resulting in a(n):
a. loss of excess sugar and water from the body via urination
b. loss of excess salt and water from the body via renal excretion
c. increase in salt and a decrease in water in the body by renal excretion
d. increase in sugar and a decrease in water in the body by hemodialysis
b. loss of excess salt and water from the body via renal excretion
143
which of the following is classified as an anticoagulant?
a. digoxin (Lanoxin)
b. lorazepam (Ativan)
c. dobutamine (Dobutrex)
d. heparin (Liquaemin)
d. heparin (Liquaemin)
144
which classification of medication is designed to dissolve clots after their formation?
a. antiplatelets
b. fibrinolytics
c. plasma blockers
d. plasma enhancer
b. fibrinolytics
