ENCOR Test Flashcards
- Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment?
A. Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic.
B. Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP.
C. Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks.
D. Provides reachability between border nodes in the fabric underlay.
A. Connect endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic.
Explanation:
There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay:
+ Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location (EID-to-RLOC) mapping system for the fabric overlay.
+ Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric.
+ Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.
+ Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric.
+ Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access fabric role other than underlay services.
- Refer to the exhibit. Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users?
R1# sh run | begin line con line con 0 exec timeout 0 0 privilege level 15 logging synchronous stopbits 1 ! line aux 0 exec timeout 0 0 privilege level 15 logging synchronous stopbits 1 ! line vty 0 4 password 7 1209910248 login ! line vty 5 15 password 7 1204812094 login ! end
R1# sh run | include aaa | enable
no aaa new-model
R1#
A. 1
B. 7
C. 13
D. 15
A. 1
Explanation:
Lines (CON, AUX, VTY) default to level 1 privileges.
- What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB?
A. The FIB is populated based on RIB content.
B. The RIB maintains a minor image of the FIB.
C. The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions.
D. The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored.
A. The FIB is populated based on RIB content.
Explanation: CEF uses a Forwarding Information Base (FIB) to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions. The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing table is updated, and those changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on the information in the IP routing table. Because there is a one-to-one correlation between FIB entries and routing table entries, the FIB contains all known routes and eliminates the need for route cache maintenance that is associated with earlier switching paths such as fast switching and optimum switching.
Note: In order to view the Routing information base (RIB) table, use the “show ip route” command.
To view the Forwarding Information Base (FIB), use the “show ip cef” command. RIB is in Control plane while FIB is in Data plane.
- What is a requirement for an Ansible-managed node
A. It must have an SSH server running.
B. It must be a Linux server or a Cisco device.
C. It must support ad hoc commands.
D. It must have an Ansible Tower installed.
A. It must have an SSH server running.
- A client device fails to see the enterprise SSID, but other client devices are connected to it. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured broadcast SSID.
B. The hidden SSID was not manually configured on the client.
C. The broadcast SSID was not manually configured on the client.
D. The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured hidden SSID.
B. The hidden SSID was not manually configured on the client.
- Which two descriptions of FlexConnect mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two.)
A. APs that operate in FlexConnect mode cannot detect rogue APs
B. FlexConnect mode is used when the APs are set up in a mesh environment and used to bridge between each other.
C. FlexConnect mode is a feature that is designed to allow specified CAPWAP-enabled APs to exclude themselves from managing data traffic between clients and infrastructure.
D. When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller
E. FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments
D. When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller.
E. FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments.
- Which OSPF network types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices?
A. point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast
B. broadcast to nonbroadcast
C. point-to-multipoint to broadcast
D. broadcast to point-to-point
B. broadcast to nonbroadcast
Explanation:
The following different OSPF types are compatible with each other:
+ Broadcast and Non-Broadcast (adjust hello/dead timers)
+ Point-to-Point and Point-to-Multipoint (adjust hello/dead timers)
Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR so they are compatible. Point-to-point/multipoint do not elect DR/BDR so they are compatible.
- Which NGFW mode blocks flows crossing the firewall?
A. tap
B. inline
C. passive
D. inline tap
B. inline
Explanation:
Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with Tap, Passive, Passive (ERSPAN).
When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified.
- Which statement about route targets is true when using VRF-Lite?
A. Route targets control the import and export of routes into a customer routing table.
B. When BGP is configured, route targets are transmitted as BGP standard communities.
C. Route targets allow customers to be assigned overlapping addresses.
D. Route targets uniquely identify the customer routing table.
A. Route targets control the import and export of routes into a customer routing table.
Explanation:
‘Route targets allow customers to be assigned overlapping addresses’ and answer ‘Route targets uniquely identify the customer routing table’ are not correct as only route distinguisher (RD) identifies the customer routing table and “allows customers to be assigned overlapping addresses”.
‘When BGP is configured, route targets are transmitted as BGP standard communities’ is not correct as “When BGP is configured, route targets are transmitted as BGP extended communities”
- How does Cisco TrustSec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?
A. uses flexible NetFlow
B. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint
C. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition
D. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address
D. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address
Explanation:
The Cisco TrustSec solution simplifies the provisioning and management of network access control through the use of software-defined segmentation to classify network traffic and enforce policies for more flexible access controls. Traffic classification is based on endpoint identity, not an IP address, enabling policy change without net-work redesign.
- Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the OPSF debug output is true?
R1#debug ip ospf hello
R1#debug condition interface Fa0/1
condition 1 set
A. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1.
B. The output displays OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces.
C. The output displays OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1.
D. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received.
A. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1.
Explanation:
This combination of commands is known as “Conditional debug” and will filter the debug output based on your conditions. Each condition added, will behave like an ‘And’ operator in Boolean logic.
- Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-LISP sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?
A. PITR
B. map resolver
C. map server
D. PETR
A. PITR
Explanation:
Proxy ingress tunnel router (PITR): answer ‘PETR’ PITR is an infrastructure LISP network entity that receives packets from non-LISP sites and encapsulates the packets to LISP sites or natively forwards them to non-LISP sites.
- Which two protocols are used with YANG data models? (Choose two.)
A. TLS B. RESTCONF C. SSH D. NETCONF E. HTTPS
B. RESTCONF
D. NETCONF
Explanation:
YANG (Yet Another Next Generation) is a data modeling language for the definition of data sent over network management protocols such as the NETCONF and RESTCONF.
- Which HTTP status code is the correct response for a request with an incorrect password applied to a REST API session?
A. HTTP Status Code: 200
B. HTTP Status Code: 302
C. HTTP Status Code: 401
D. HTTP Status Code: 504
C. HTTP Status Code: 401
Explanation: A 401 error response indicates that the client tried to operate on a protected resource without providing the proper authorization. It may have provided the wrong credentials or none at all.
Note: answer ‘HTTP Status Code 200’ 4xx code indicates a “client error” while a 5xx code indicates a “server error”.
- The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters.
The first method for authentication is TACACS
If TACACS is unavailable, login is allowed without any provided credentials
Which configuration accomplishes this task?
A. R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login VTY group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 password 7 0202039485748 R1#sh run | include username R1#
B. R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login telnet group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 R1#sh run | include username R1#
C. R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 password 7 0202039485748
D. R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 transport input none R1#
C. R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 password 7 0202039485748
Explanation:
According to the requirements (first use TACACS+, then allow login with no authentication), we have to use “aaa authentication login … group tacacs+ none” for AAA command.
The next thing to check is if the “aaa authentication login default” or “aaa authentication login list-name” is used. The ‘default’ keyword means we want to apply for all login connections (such as tty, vty, console, and aux). If we use this keyword, we don’t need to configure anything else under tty, vty, and aux lines. If we don’t use this keyword then we have to specify which line(s) we want to apply the authentication feature.
From the above information, we can find out the answer ‘R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 password 7 0202039485748 If you want to learn more about AAA configuration, please read our AAA TACACS+ and RADIUS Tutorial – Part 2.
For your information, answer ‘R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login telnet group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 R1#sh run | include username R1#’ would be correct if we add the following command under vty line (“line vty 0 4”): “login authentication telnet” (“telnet” is the name of the AAA list above)
- Which statement about multicast RPs is true?
A. RPs are required only when using protocol independent multicast dense mode.
B. RPs are required for protocol-independent multicast sparse mode and dense mode.
C. By default, the RP is needed periodically to maintain sessions with sources and receivers.
D. By default, the RP is needed only to start new sessions with sources and receivers.
D. By default, the RP is needed only to start new sessions with sources and receivers.
Explanation: A rendezvous point (RP) is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM-SM). By default, the RP is needed only to start new sessions with sources and receivers. For your information, in PIM-SM, only network segments with active receivers that have explicitly requested multicast data will be forwarded the traffic. This method of delivering multicast data is in contrast to the PIM dense mode (PIM-DM) model. In PIM-DM, multicast traffic is initially flooded to all segments of the network. Routers that have no downstream neighbors or directly connected receivers prune back the unwanted traffic.
- To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. On
D. Auto
C. On
- Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?
A. security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch
B. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch
C. security group tag number assigned to each port on a network
D. security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network
B. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch
- An engineer configures a WLAN with fast transition enabled. Some legacy clients fail to connect to this WLAN. Which feature allows the legacy clients to connect while still allowing other clients to use fast transition based on their OUIs?
A. over the DS
B. 802.11k
C. adaptive R
D. 802.11v
C. adaptive R
20. Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file? A.{ "hostname": "edge_router_1" "interfaces": { "GigabitEthernet1/1" "GigabitEthernet1/2" "GigabitEthernet1/3" } } B.{ "hostname": "edge_router_1", "interfaces": { "GigabitEthernet1/1", "GigabitEthernet1/2", "GigabitEthernet1/3", }, } C.{ "hostname": "edge_router_1" "interfaces": [ "GigabitEthernet1/1" "GigabitEthernet1/2" "GigabitEthernet1/3" ] } D.{ "hostname": "edge_router_1", "interfaces": [ "GigabitEthernet1/1", "GigabitEthernet1/2", "GigabitEthernet1/3", ] }
D.{ "hostname": "edge_router_1", "interfaces": [ "GigabitEthernet1/1", "GigabitEthernet1/2", "GigabitEthernet1/3", ] }
- A network administrator is implementing a routing configuration change and enables routing debugs to track routing behavior during the change. The logging output on the terminal is interrupting the command typing process.
Which two actions can the network administrator take to minimize the possibility of typing commands incorrectly? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the logging synchronous global configuration command.
B. Configure the logging synchronous command under the vty.
C. Increase the number of lines on the screen using the terminal length command.
D. Configure the logging delimiter feature.
E. Press the TAB key to reprint the command in a new line.
B. Configure the logging synchronous command under the vty.
E. Press the TAB key to reprint the command in a new line.
- Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)
A. transmit power B. noise floor C. EIRP D. RSSI D. antenna gain
B. noise floor
D. RSSI
- Which statements are used for error handling in Python?
A. try/catch
B. catch/release
C. block/rescue
D. try/except
D. try/except
Explanation: The words “try” and “except” are Python keywords and are used to catch exceptions. For example:
try:
print 1/0
except ZeroDivisionError:
print ‘Error! We cannot divide by zero!!!’
- What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in a data center environment? (Choose two.)
A. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
B. smaller Layer 2 domain
C. increased security
D. speedy deployment
E. reduced IP and MAC address requirements
A. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
D. speedy deployment
Explanation: Server virtualization and the use of virtual machines is profoundly changing data center dynamics.
Most organizations are struggling with the cost and complexity of hosting multiple physical servers in their data centers. The expansion of the data center, a result of both scale-out server architectures and traditional “one application, one server” sprawl, has created problems in housing, powering, and cooling large numbers of underutilized servers. In addition, IT organizations continue to deal with the traditional cost and operational challenges of matching server resources to organizational needs that seem fickle and ever-changing.
Virtual machines can significantly mitigate many of these challenges by enabling multiple application and operating system environments to be hosted on a single physical server while maintaining complete isolation between the guest operating systems and their respective applications. Hence, server virtualization facilitates server consolidation by enabling organizations to exchange a number of underutilized servers for a single highly utilized server running multiple virtual machines.
By consolidating multiple physical servers, organizations can gain several benefits:
+ Underutilized servers can be retired or redeployed.
+ Rack space can be reclaimed.
+ Power and cooling loads can be reduced.
+ New virtual servers can be rapidly deployed.
+ CapEx (higher utilization means fewer servers need to be purchased) and OpEx (few servers means a simpler environment and lower maintenance costs) can be reduced.