Endgame 2 Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

Which chemotherapeutic causes pulmonary related side effects

A

✅ Bleomycin
🫁 Pulmonary toxicity is its hallmark adverse effect.
💥 Key facts:

Bleomycin is known to cause:
Pneumonitis (early sign)
Pulmonary fibrosis (serious, potentially irreversible)
Occurs in up to 10% of patients, especially at cumulative doses >400 units
Risk factors: Older age, renal impairment, high oxygen exposure (e.g. during surgery), chest irradiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

First line in severe UC in hospital

A

IV corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

First line laxative for 11 year old child with constipation

A

macrogol 3350

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fluoxetine washout period

A

5 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How long to see improvement in MOOD with citalopram

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many weeks to wait before drinking after stopping a MAOI

A

Once the MAOI is fully cleared (usually within 14 days after stopping, the standard washout before starting other serotonergic drugs), patients can generally resume normal alcohol consumption.
However, caution is still advised during treatment and immediately after stopping, especially avoiding tyramine-rich alcoholic drinks (e.g., red wine, beer, sherry) to prevent hypertensive crisis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

NSAIDS with highest risk of GI effects

A

Piroxicam
Ketoprofen
Ketorolac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

NSAIDS with a moderate risk of GI effects

A

Indometacin
Dicolofenac
Naproxen (>1g a day)
Ibuprofen (>1.2g a day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nsaids with lowest risk of GI effects

A

Ibuprofen less than 1.2g a day
Naproxen less than 1000mg a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fidaxomicin dose

A

200mg BD for 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which drugs can be detected on road side screening devices by the police

A
  • Amfetamine
  • Clonazepam
  • Diazepam
  • Flunitrazepam
  • Lorazepam
  • Methadone
  • Morphine (codeine, tramadol)
  • Oxazepam
  • Temazepam

All Calm Drugs Feel Like Magic Medicine, Opening Thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Missed MTX DOSE

A

Within 2 days- take missed dose and then take next dose as normal

3+ DAYS-Contact dr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dose regimen for cellulitis for flucox

A

1-2g QDS for 5-7 days
Alternatives would be clarithromycin 500mg BD 5-7 days or erythromycin 500mg QDS for 5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cellulitis near the eyes treatment

A

Co-amox

Use clarithromycin with metronidazole if allergic to penicillins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which chemotherapeutics are mildly emetogenic

A
  • Flurouracil
  • Etoposide
  • MTX
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which chemotherapeutics are moderately emetrogenic

A
  • Taxanes
  • Doxorubicin
  • Intermediate- low doses of cyclophosphamide
  • Mitoxantrone
  • High doses of MTX
17
Q

Which chemothereuptics are highly emetogenic

A
  • Cisplatin
  • dacarbazine
  • High doses of cyclophosphamide
18
Q

Isotretinoin counselling points

A
  • Dry eyes are Relieved by application of a lubricating eye ointment
  • 1 month before starting, throughout and one month after for contraception
  • More frequent checks of serum values and blood glucose are required in diabetics
  • Anaemia is a common side effect
19
Q

How long to withdraw pregabalin for

A

Should be tapered for at least one week

20
Q

Metformin and surgery

A

Discontinue at the time of surgery and restart 48 hours after surgery if normal function has been established

21
Q

Which chemotherapy agent is not associated with bone marrow suppression

A
  • Bleomycin
  • Vincristine
22
Q

What is first line in psorarisi

A

Offer topical treatment including emollients, topical corticosteroids, coal tar preps and topical vitamin D

23
Q

Key sign of pyelonephritis and what to give in pregnancy

A

Back pain, flu like symptoms, nausea and vommiting, myalgia, high temp

Give cefalexin

24
Q

What to do if renal impaired and on 10mg of ramipril

A

Reduce dose max 5mg if between 30-60 and max 1.25mg if below 30

25
Which pain relief is best in chronic kidney disease requiring haemodialysis
OXYCODONE Morphine is metabolised to morphine glucuronide which accumulates in renal impairment, resulting in CNS depression. Similarly, the clearance of codeine, and its metabolites are significantly reduced in renal impairment. The pharmacokinetics of oxycodone is also affected in renal failure, however it may be p referred to morphine in some circumstances. The BNF recommends to avoid codeine in renal failure and to use morphine and oxycodone with caution. The BNF also recommends to avoid ibuprofen (systemic NSAID) in severe renal impairment. Fentanyl patches and sl ow release tablets are not appropriate for a cute pain due to their slow onset of action and long duration of action.
26
What does microcytic anaemia mean and what is a common cause
Low MCV Iron deficiency anaemia
27
You are conducting a consultation with your p atient, a 40 - year - old - man, and he mentions he has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. After gaining his consent you test his blood glucose levels, the result is 3.7 mmol/L. Which ONE of the following is the most appropriate next step? Select one: A. Advise him to ea t some of his diabetic chocolate which he has bought with him B. Ask him to immediately drink some of his fruit juice that he has got with him C. Ask the patient if they took their medicines for diabetes this morning as the glucose level is quite high D. Nothing is needed, as that reading is normal, continue with the review E. Refer him to his doctor as his diabetic medication is not keeping his blood glucose levels low enough
A blood glucose level of 3.7 mmol/L is below the normal range and indicates hypoglycaemia (typically defined as <4.0 mmol/L). Hypoglycaemia management: The appropriate immediate response is to provide a fast-acting carbohydrate (e.g., fruit juice, glucose tablets, sugary drink). Fruit juice is a suitable and effective treatment for mild hypoglycaemia in a conscious patient.
28
What is first line for allergic rhinitis
Nasal saline solution
29
What analgesic is contraindicated in severe HF and cautioned in HF
Naproxen
30
What reduces the absorption of levothyroxine
calcium and vitamin D
31
Pregnant and avoiding people with chickenpox
avoid for at least 2-3 weeks
32
What happens if you measure someone's lithium level before 12 hours
Taken too soon and therefore the concentration could be higher than the actual concentration
33
When are patches preferred than tablets in HRT
in obesity due to risk of VTE
34
When would you opt for cyclical HRT
🔄 Cyclical (Sequential) HRT When to use: If had a period in last 12 months Perimenopausal women or those who have had a natural menopause within the last 12 months. Women under 50 who still have some endogenous ovarian activity. What it involves: Oestrogen is given daily. Progestogen is added cyclically (e.g., for 12–14 days per month), leading to a monthly withdrawal bleed. Rationale: Mimics the natural menstrual cycle. Reduces the risk of endometrial hyperplasia from unopposed oestrogen.
35
When is Continous HRT used
🔁 Continuous Combined HRT When to use: Postmenopausal women, typically those who are: Over 54 years old, or More than 12 months amenorrhoeic (without a period). Sometimes used earlier (e.g. from age 51+) if woman is clearly postmenopausal. What it involves: Oestrogen and progestogen taken together daily with no break — no withdrawal bleeding. Rationale: Avoids bleeding altogether (desirable in long-term postmenopausal care). Still protects the endometrium from unopposed oestrogen.
36
What to give someone to clear the bowels prior to a colonoscopy
Magnesium citrate and sodium picosulfate. Sodium picosulfate is a stimulant laxative and magnesium citrate enhances its affect and also has laxative properties of its own
37
What electrolyte does cisplatin disturb and how to treat
Cisplatin can cause hypomagnesia and patients are routinely prescribed magnesium aspartate sachets to maintain serum magnesium levels. Cisplatin is less likely to cause a decline in potassium and calcium.