Endocrine Flashcards

(212 cards)

1
Q

what is the relationship between hypothalamus, pituitary and adrenal gland

A

hypothalamus releases releasing hormones to pituitary in brain
pituitary releases secreting hormones to adrenal
adrenal gland feeds back to hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what things can go wrong with glands (3)

A

overproduction
underproduction
benign/malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where do we find adrenal glands

A

1 on the superior aspect of each kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the shape and structure of an adrenal gland

A

triangular/pyramidal in shape
Composed of cortex and medulla.
Cortex (outer part) composed of three layers; zona glomeruloa (produces aldosternone), zona fasciculata (produce cortisol), zona reticularis (produce androgenic steroids).
Medulla (inner part of gland) produces stress hormones (adrenaline and noradrenaline).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the cortex of the adrenal gland split into and what do they produce

A

Cortex (outer part) composed of three layers; zona glomeruloa (produces aldosternone), zona fasciculata (produce cortisol), zona reticularis (produce androgenic steroids).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does the medulla of the adrenal gland produce

A

produces stress hormones (adrenaline and noradrenaline).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how can we detect adrenal problems

A

24 hour cortisol urine test
Serum ACTH levels
Diurnal pattern of serum cortisol levels
Dexamathasone suppression test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the 3 main pathway causes of adrenal problems

A

Secondary: disease of pituitary or hypothalamus
Primary: adrenal disease: Developmental, haemorrhagic necrosis, autoimmunity, destruction by TB or tumour
Iatrogenic: Suppression due to steroid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if the adrenal gland is yellow and cheese like in the middle, what is the likely cause

A

tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what does Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome affect and how does it resent

A

causes haemorrhage of the adrenal gland cortex
adrenal glands turn black with blood clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are some effects of adrenal insufficiency

A

Skin pigmentation
Hypotension
Muscle weakness
Hypoglycaemia
Hyponatraemia
Hyperkalaemia
Renal dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are some causes of adrenal overactivity

A

Cushing’s syndrome - adrenal tumours, iatrogenic
Cushing’s disease – pituitary microadenomas
Conn’s syndrome - excessive aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

compare cushing’s syndrome and cushings disease

A

Cushing’s syndrome - adrenal tumours, iatrogenic
Cushing’s disease – pituitary microadenomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what does Cushing’s syndrome cause

A

Obesity
Hypertension
Osteoporosis
Hyperglycaemia
Myopathy
Skin atrophy
Polycythaemia
Susceptibility to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is Paroxysmal hypertension and what is this a key sign of

A

rapid increase in blood pressure that slightly decreases over time
sign of Phaeochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is Phaeochromocytoma and what is its key symptom

A

Tumour adrenal medulla forming a catecholamine producing tumour
Paroxysmal hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how do we decide the behaviour of pheochromocytoma

A

PASS: pheochromocytoma of adrenal gland scoring system.
Could be malignant or benign. Metastasis is indicator of malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the pathway of thyroid gland secretions

A

hypothalamus secretes thyroid releasing hormone TRH
pituitary released thyroid stimulating hormone TSH
thyroid releases T3 and T4 - inhibit hypothalamus and pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how might we diagnose thyroid problems

A

Serum T3, T4, TSH, calcitonin

Ultrasound

Radioactive iodine uptake studies

FNA cytology - fine needle aspiration

Core biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

why is cytology good for thyroid diagnosis and why might it be disadvantageous

A

Safe- Reduces need to excise benign lesions
Thy 1-5 categories
Can establish diagnosis of some types carcinoma: papillary, medullary, anaplastic
Can’t distinguish between benign and malignant follicular lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which type of thyroid cancer can cytology not differentiate between malignant and benign

A

follicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what might cause hypothyroidism

A

Iodine deficiency
Developmental
Autoimmune
Radiotherapy, radioiodine therapy
Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what might cause hyperthyroidism

A

Autoimmune
Toxic adenomas
masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is goitre

A

swollen thyroid gland = large swollen neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
name the 2 most common autoimmune thyroid disorders
Hashimoto thyroiditis Graves disease
26
what is hashimoto thyroiditis and who is likely to get this and what does it present as
Middle aged, women Auto-antibodies against Thyroglobulin and Thyroid peroxidase Lymphocyte mediated destruction of thyroid follicles
27
how would hashimoto thyroiditis present clinically and histologically
Initial hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism Painless enlarged thyroid histologically Lymphocyte mediated destruction of thyroid follicles
28
how do we treat hashimoto thyroiditis
life long thyroxine
29
what 2 risks are there from having hashimoto thyroiditis
Risk of developing other autoimmune disease Low Risk for thyroid malignancy
30
what is Graves disease
most common cause of hyperthyroidism Production of Thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin Anti-TSH receptor antibodies Diffuse process histologically affecting all of the lobe and both lobes can lead to cellulitis
31
how would a Graves disease blood test present
Elevated T3 and T4. Low TSH Increased uniform radio-iodine uptake
32
how do we treat graves disease (3)
Treated with anti-thyroid medications radio-iodine ablation surgery
33
what is the most common benign neoplasm of the thyroid gland
Follicular adenoma usually solitary encapsulated
34
what is the most common malignancy in thyroid tissue
papillary carcinoma 60-70% of cases in young adults lymphatic spread - good prognosis usually
35
what is the prognosis of papillary carcinoma of the thyroid and why
usually good metastasises via lymph nodes, not blood
36
how would papillary/follicular carcinomas look histologically
optically clear nuclei 'orphan annies eyes' overlapping nuclei overcrowding
37
if thyroid tissue has clear overcrowded nuclei, what is the likely diagnosis
papillary carcinoma
38
compare follicular and papillary carcinomas of thyroid
papillary : 60-70% of carcinomas, young adults, good prognosis, lymph spread follicular: 20-25%, young-middle age, blood stream, worse prognosis
39
how might we know if a thyroid cancer is malignant histologically
clear nucelli - papillary carcinoma vascular invasion into the blood vessel capsular invasion
40
what is the least common thyroid carcinoma
medullary 5-10% elderly but familar cases earlier in life lymphatic and blood stream spread variable prognosis
41
thyroid cancer has spindle cell morphology, what type of carcinoma is this?
medullary
42
calcitonin histocytochemistry can be used to diagnose what and how would it show and what else would give this stain
medullary carcinoma stain tissues brown C cell hyperplasia
43
what type of cell does medullary carcinoma affect
C cells
44
if a thyroid cancer has nests of cells, signs of necrosis and increased mitosis what ttype of carcinoma is this
poorly differentiated carcinoma
45
why is anaplastic carcinoma very low prognosis
it has very aggressive local spread
46
what is anaplastic thyroid carcinoma
occurs in elderly with very agressive local spread = very poor prognosis very varied cells and nuclei
47
what is the commonest cause of thyroid lymphoma
hashimotos thyroiditis
48
what does insulin do
convert glucose to glycogen = reduced glucose blood levels
49
what does glucagon do
convert glycogen to glucose increase glucose blood concentrations
50
in the fasting state, where do w get glucose from (2)
mainly the liver, sometimes the kidney
51
what percent of glucose goes to muscle and liver after eating
40% goes to the liver 60% goes to muscle
52
if glucose and glycogen is low in fasting state, what do we use for energy
lipids and FFA free fatty acids beta oxidation forms ketone bodies as a side product
53
what part of the pancreas produces glucagon and insulin (3)
endocrine section of pancreas islets of langerhans beta cells = insulin alpha cells = glucagon
54
explain the paracrine hypothesis with glucose homeostasis
this explains crosstalk between beta and alpha cells high insulin levels keep alpha cells inhibited when insulin drops (due to low glucose), alpha cells are no longer inhibited therefor produce glucagon
55
what does glucose pass through to enter a beta cell of the pancreases
GLUT2 receptor
56
explain glucose action on a beta cell (how this leads to insulin release)
glucose enters cell via GLUT2 channel reaction occurs glucose (glucose kinase) --> ATP/ADP this closes potassium channel = depolarized cell membrane calcium channels open and calcium enters Calcium triggers insulin release
57
explain how insulin acts on a fat/muscle cell
insulin attaches to insulin receptor cascade of reactions activating intracellular GLUT4 vesicles mobile GLUT4 vesicles integrate to plasma membrane allows glucose to enter the cell
58
explain how insulin acts on a fat/muscle cell
insulin attaches to insulin receptor cascade of reactions activating intracellular GLUT4 vesicles mobile GLUT4 vesicles integrate to plasma membrane allows glucose to enter the cell
59
what is the name of the vesicle that insulin acts on
intracellular GLUT4 vesicle
60
give the 3 major affects of insulin
supresses hepatic glucose output e.g. gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis increase glucose uptake by insulin sensative cells e.g. fat and muscle supresses lipolysis and muscle breakdown
61
what is a counterregulatory hormone and give examples
hormones that oppose the action of insulin glucagon also adrenaline, cortisol, growth hormone
62
what is the action of counterregulatory hormones (3)
opposite of insulin 1. increases hepatic glucose output e.g. gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis 2. decreases glucose uptake in sensitive cells e.g. fat and muscle 3. stimulate peripheral release of glucose, FFAs and muscle breakdown
63
what is the risk of a diabetic having high adrenaline
adrenaline is a counterregulatory hormone, opposing insulin action
64
what are symptoms of HYPOglycemia
sweating feeling tired dizziness feeling hungry tingling lips feeling shaky or trembling a fast or pounding heartbeat (palpitations) becoming easily irritated, tearful, anxious or moody turning pale
65
what are symptoms of hyperglycaemia
feeling very thirsty peeing a lot feeling weak or tired blurred vision losing weight
66
what is diabetes mellitus
disorder of carbohydrate metabolism and homeostasis leading to hyperglycaemia
67
what can acute hyperglycaemia cause (2)
diabetic ketoacidosis DKA hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state = coma
68
what can chronic hyperglycaemia cause
tissue complications with vessels e.g. blood vessels in heart, brain, periphery, legs limbs = amputation brain = stroke heart = heart failure mouth = bleeding and periodontitis
69
what are the 3 types of problems that come with diabetes
acute hyperglycaemia = diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperosmolar coma (Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State ) chronic hyperglycaemia = tissue complications = stroke, leg arteries = amputation medication related hypoglycaemia
70
what oral symptoms of diabetes are there (4)
slow wound healing in the mouth halitosis = ketone bodies increased periodontitis and BOP oral candidiasis = reduced fungal response
71
a patient has oral candidiasis and slow healing wounds in the mouth. What could they have
undiagnosed diabetes
72
what types of diabetes are there (5)
type 1 type 2 (including gestational) MODY - Maturity onset diabetes of youth (MODY), also called monogenic diabetes pancreatic diabetes “Endocrine Diabetes” (Acromegaly/Cushings)
73
what is pancreatic diabetes
where there is uncontrolled glucose homeostasis due to an insult to the pancreas possibly trauma or surgery or cancer altering the function of the pancreases
74
what is MODY
Maturity onset diabetes of youth (MODY), also called monogenic diabetes diabetes caused by a genetic factor
75
why does uncontrolled diabetes lead to thirst
the kidney usually reabsorbs all glucose back into the blood can only absorb 11mol/L over this amount, glucose stays in the collecting duct glucose acts as an osmotic agent pulling more fluid into the collecting duct, increasing volume of urine body looses more fluid, therefor pt gets more thirsty
76
how much glucose can a healthy kidney reabsorb
11mol/L
77
how long do red blood cells stay in the body and where do they get destroyed after this time
remain in the blood stream for 120 days then get decommissioned in the spleen
78
what is the HbA1c level and why is this significant
amount of glycated haemoglobin above 48mmol/mol or 6.5% = diabetic
79
why do we have to be careful using HbA1c levels for diabetes detection (2)
any problem that alters RBC presence or destruction e.g. splenomegaly or acute blood loss = false negative iron deficiency anaemia can make RBC last longer and give false positives
80
how does iron deficient anaemia affect HbA1c levels
this leads to RBC lasting longer in the blood stream gives higher levels of HbA1c = false positive diabetes
81
what diagnostic values are there for positive diabetes
random blood glucose levels > 11mmol/L fasting plasma glucose levels > 7mmol/L repeated 2 times HbA1c levels > 48mmol/mol 6.5%
82
what is the type I diabetes
autoimmune disease where a cross reaction leads to antibodies that attack beta cells of the islets of Langerhans possibly due to a virus no beta cells no insulin production
83
why does type I diabetes lead to hyperglycaemia (3)
no insulin therefor: -glucagon levels remain high -no glucose uptake in insulin sensitive cells -hepatic breakdown of glycogen and fats
84
what would be the cause of death in a type I diabetic uncontrolled state
diabetic ketoacidosis
85
explain why diabetic ketoacidosis is dangerous and how it comes about
occurs as body needs fuel but cannot use glucose as it is all in the vessels uses fat beta oxidation for fuel side product is ketones ketones as slightly acidic and builds up in the blood = poison causes vomiting, passing a lot of water, hyperventilating to remove acidic CO2 leads to dehydration and kidney failure
86
what is the bodies reaction to diabetic ketoacidosis (4)
vomiting due to blood poisoning polyuria and polydypsia hyperventilation to remove acidic CO2 loose weight as we are loosing glucose (urine) and fat (beta oxidation)
87
what two factors lead to impaired insulin tolerance in type II diabetes
impaired insulin secretion (genetic) acquired insulin resistance (environmental)
88
why does insulin resistance occur
increased weight = increased fat = larger cells and change in morphology of the cells and receptors = insulin resistance
89
why might a type II diabetic be on insulin injections
after about 10 years body declines in insulin sensitivity may be complete insulin resistant
90
do macrovascular or microvascular problems come first in pre-diabetes
macro come first
91
how many grams of sugar do we give to test the pancreas for diabetes
75 grams
92
what is treatment for hypoglycaemia
93
how do we treat type II diabetes
exercise and weight loss controlled diet control blood pressure and other symptoms possibly insulin shots if progressive type II diabetes = insulin resistance
94
what is gliclazide mainly used for
treatment of type 2 diabetes type of sulphnylureas that keeps potassium ion channel shut = release of insulin
95
what must we ensure a patient does before a dental procedure if they are on gliclazide and why
eats breakfast before glyclazide is a sulphonylureas and increases insluin if not eationg = hypoglycaemic attack
96
what are Sulphonylureas and give the main type of this drug
drug used for type 2 diabetes top increase insulin secretion gliclazide
97
how do sulphonylureases work
close K+ channels on beta cells in pancreas causes depolaization by Ca2+ and insulin release type 2 diabetes
98
what 2 risks come with medication for type II diabetes
weight gain hypoglycaemia
99
what are DZTs used for
type II diabetes
100
what 6 types of medication might a type II diabetic be on
first line Metformin second line DZTs GLP-1 analogues DPP-Iv inhibitors (stop break down of GLP-1) SGLT2 replacing sulphonyureases e.g. gliclazide
101
what are the affects of GLP-1 analogues
stimulate insulin secretion reduce apatite slow gastric emptying improve insulin sensitivity
102
where is GLP-1 secreted and what is its function and how do we use this theraputically
L cells in the duodenum causes slower gastric emptying, reduces apatite, increases insulin sensitivity and production to make us feel full and not eat any more GLP-1 analogue drugs used in type II diabetes
103
how do DPP-IV inhibitors work (4)
DPP-IV is an enzyme that breaks down GLP-1 GLP-1 is secreted by L cells of the duodenum GLP-1 causes insulin sensitivity, decreased gastric emptying, decreased hunger, insulin release, glucagon inhibition type II diabetes
104
what type of drug are vidagliptin and sagliptin
DPP-IV inhibitors suffix 'gliptin' prevent breakdown of GLP-1 for type II diabetes
105
what is gliptin the suffix for
medications of the class DPP-Iv inhibitors for type II diabetes prevent breakdown of GLP-1
106
what medication other than insulin can be used in type I and II diabetes
SGLT2 prevent reabsorption of glucose in the kidney
107
what is the main side effect of SGLT-2
genital thrush
108
how do SGLT2 work
prevent reabosprtion of glucose in the kidney
109
what is astrflozin, glutaflozin and canagliflozin
SGLT2 drugs prevent reabsorption of glucose in the kidney
110
what is the suffix ' flozin ' for
SGLT2 diabetes medication prevent reabsoprtion of glucose in the kidney
111
what is the first line drug for type II diabetes
metformin
112
how does metformin work
reduce production of glucose by the liver decrease absorption of glucose by the gastrointestinal tract and increase target cell insulin sensitivity
113
other than fingerpick monitoring, how else can we monitor blood glucose
continuous glucose monitoring device e.g. libre
114
what is a limitation of continuous blood glucose monitoring devices
they test the interstitial fluid glucose levels which might not represent blood glucose levels in real time
115
how do we treat hypoglycaemic attack
20g of rapidly acting carbohydrate e.g. glucose syrup slow release carbohydrate afterwards to manage
116
what hormones does thyroid gland produce with their roles
thyroxine T4 T3 tri-iodotryonine both control basal metabolic rate calcitonin - regulates calcium levels in the blood
117
what is unique about the thyroid gland
stores high amounts of inactive hormone in extracellular follicles also largest endocrine gland in body
118
what happens if a healthy individual goes into hypoglycaemia and how does this change in diabetes
glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline (counterregulatory hormones) released in diabetes, if the pt has many hypo attacks, their resistance to it dampens and they may not have the same respsonse meaning when in hypo, they may not show common adrenaline symptoms e.g. sweating so hypo may be more difficult to spot
119
compare primary and secondary hypothyroidism
primary = thyroid underproducing T4 and T3 secondary = pituitary or another factor leading to less TSH and therefor less T3 and T4
120
what aspects of the type of hypothyroidism affect goitre
T3 and T4 dont make a difference if TSH is increased, this is driving the thyroid to produce more = enlarged thyroid gland = goitre
121
what type of hypothyroidism doesn't lead to goitre
secondary hypothyroidism as no TSH to drive hyperplasia
122
what are some major symptoms of hypothyroidism
tiredness and increased sleep mennorhagia macroglossia cold intolerance central swelling (large stomach and breast) dry skin weight gain
123
what are some facial features of hypothyroidism
macroglossia periorbital oedema delayed eruption enamel hypoplasia thick lips facial puffiness
124
causes of primary hypothyroidism (4)
autoimmunity - hoshimotos thyroiditis iodine deficiency post radioactive iodine for hyperthyroidism thyridectomy
125
causes of secondary hypothyroidism (3)
pituitary tumours pituitary granulomas empty sella
126
give indications for thyroid screening
past radiation symptoms congenital hypothyroidism
127
what is the main cause for hyperthryoidism
autoimmune disease e.g. graves disease
128
what are common symptoms of hyperthyroidism
heat intolerance palpitations anxiety and irritability weight loss loose bowels tachycardia warm moist skin
129
what might lead us to try and diagnose graves disease
hyperthyroidism signs and symptoms history of other autoimmune disease diffuse goitre bulging eye signs oedema red shins
130
what are the eye signs of graves disease
eye lids retracted can see the sclera above the iris dryness of eyes bulging eye
131
how do we treat hyperthyroidism
anti-thyroid medication for 12 months stop treatment, 50% will never get hyperthyroidism again, 50% will if they do, surgery or raidoactive iodine (sometimes straight to this)
132
what are some dental signs of hyperthyroidism
accelerated eruption mx/mn osteoperosis increased suseptability to caries and periodontal disease
133
what are some dental considerations for hyperthyroidism
Increased susceptibility to caries Periodontal disease Increased sensitivity to epinephrine which may result in arrhythmias or palpitations Surgery, oral infection and stress may precipitate thyroid crises
134
if we see a thyroid nodule what do we do
ask about onset history of nodule record size refer for ultrasound
135
what special test would we do for a thyroid nodule
ultrasound thyroid level tests if NOT hyperthyroid, give FNA
136
why would we not FNA a patient who is hyperthyroid
push them into hyperthyroid crisis
137
why would we FNA a thyroid nodule
if they are not hyperthyroid and they have an abnormal ultrasound Fine needle aspiration gives us a histological diagnosis to see if the nodule is benign or malignant
138
what does the anterior pituitary gland produce with their peripheral actions (4)
LH and FSH --> oestrogen and androgen GH --> IGF-1 TSH --> T3 and T4 ACTH --> cortisol
139
what does the posterior pituitary gland gland
produced in hypothalamus, stored in pituitary Vasopressin ADH - water absorption oxytocin- uterine contractions and milk
140
what (types) symptoms of pituitary dysfunction (3)
hormone excess - too much cortisol = cushings or acromegaly mass excess = headache, double vision, loss of peripheral vision hormone deficency = lack of growth, lack of cortisol, hypothyroid
141
what special investigation do we do if we suspect pituitary problems
MRI
142
what hormonal symptoms might indicate pituitary problems
low sperm count/infertility/loss of erections/loss of period hypothyroidism short growth and lack of energy adrenal failure diabetes incipidus
143
what is ADH used for
water reabsorption in the kidneys
144
what is diabetes insipidus and its cause
lack of ADH lack of reabsorption in the kidneys polyuria and polydipsia
145
what is sheehans syndrome
post pregnancy if mother lost a lot of blood leads to infarct in pituitary hypopituitary
146
what causes hypopituitary
damage radiotherapy infarction trauma tumour infection e.g. TB and syphilis Sheehan syndrome (post pregnancy)
147
after head injury, the patient starts urinating a lot and isnt recovering what might be the cause
pituitary trauma lack of ADH and cortisol
148
how do we test for acromegaly
IGF levels and then MRI of pituitary
149
after surgery how can we treat acromegaly
radiotherapy and medications such as somatostatin (acts against growth hormone)
150
pt on somatostatin, what does this treat
NOT HIGH BP inhibits IGF-1 treats acromegaly
151
pt has widening teeth spaces and sleep apnoea, what could be the cause
acromegaly
152
what happens to cortisol throughout the day and why is this important to know
highest peak at 1 hour after waking gradually go down to sleep low overnight take into account when testing cortisol levels
153
what is cushing's syndrome
where adrenal gland produces too much cortisol
154
what are some causes of cushings syndrome (4)
pituitary tumour 70-80% adrenal tumour 10-20% eptopic tumour e.g. lunch 10% MOST COMMON iatrogenic = steroids from medications
155
what are symptoms of cushings syndrome
weight gain moon face - bull neck bruising 'buffalo hump' acne stretch marks diabetes
156
how do we test for Cushing's syndrome
give pt a steroid the night before healthy pt = steroid levels go down cushings = pt keeps producing steroid
157
if we get a positive steroid supression test, what is the next step
MRI of pituitary or CT of adrenal glands
158
pt has central obesity and purple strecth marks. what is the cause of this
cushings syndrome
159
what is the name for primary adrenal insufficency
addisons disease
160
what type of disease is addisons disease
primary adrenal insufficiency
161
why do patients with addisons disease get pigmentation
Addison's disease is adrenal insufficiency pituitary gland produces Melanocyte stimulating hormone MSH if cortisol is reduced, the pituitary gland is not inhibited so produces more ACTH and more melanocyte stimulating hormone MSH leads to dark pigmentation of the skin
162
pt has dark pigmentations in their mouth, what is this
addisons disease primary adrenal insufficiency lack of cortisol = lack of pituitary inhibition = more release ofLMSH melanocyte stimulating hormone
163
what is secondary adrenal insufficiency
where pituitary gland doesnt produce any ACTH so reduced cortisol
164
what are primary causes of primary adrenal insufficency
autoimmune tubercerlosis fungal infection congenital adrenal hypoplasia
165
what are the causes of secondary adrenal insufficency
medication of steroids!!! if pt on steroids for long time have reduced reliancy on adrenal gland so if they go into a stressful situation or infection, they need more steroids to prevent adrenal crisis tumour in pituitary or hypothalamus
166
a patient is on predisolone for 10 years and has an abscess. how do we treat, non surgically?
antibiotics e.g. metronidazole AND STEROIDS as infection means stress and secondary adrenal insiufficency if no added steroids, patient will go into adrenal crisis
167
what is the death rate of adrenal crisis
6-8%
168
what percent of the population is on steroids and have adrenal insufficency
3% on steroids 50% of them have adrenal insufficency
169
what are signs of adrenal insufficency
weakness loss of weight vomiting hypotension salt craving hypoglycaemic episodes IF PRIMARY = skin pigmentation
170
how do we investigate adrenal insufficiency
inject with ACTH test for cortisol spike
171
if a pt is on steroids, what steroid precautions must we take for a minor procedure
if high enough e.g. >7mg prednisolone double dose one hour before surgery double dose for 24 hours after surgery
172
if a pt is on steroids, what steroid precautions must we take for a major procedure (GA)
100mg IM of hydrocortisone before procedure double oral dose for 24 hours after
173
what 4 main endocrine problems must we understand and treat before dental surgery and why
adrenal suppression : double oral dose or give 100mg hydrocortisone IM hyperthyroidism: must slow down thyroid before or = thyroid crisis Cushing's syndrome: high steroid = avoid infections and pathological fracture so control Phaechromocytoma: adrenal gland too much adrenaline, if not treated this can cause excess adrenaline and cardiac arrest
174
what are endocrine causes of hypertension (4)
primary aldosteronism = renal gland = too much aldosterone pheochromocytoma = too much adrenaline acromegaly = too much GH cushings syndrome = secreting excess steroids hyperthyroidism (not strong relationship)
175
what is calcium important for (4)
coagulation factors nervous function skeletal mineralization membrane polarization e.g. muscle contraction, release of insulin
176
what is the function of PTH (1) and how does it act (3)
to increase calcium in the blood increase bone resorption increase calcium re-absoprtion and reduces phosphate re-absorption in kidney increase calcium absorption in intestine (by activating vitamin D)
177
what are some causes of hypocalcaemia (4)
post surgery/radiotherapy inherited autosomal dominant hypocalcaemia syndromes e.g. Di George chronic renal failure (kidney needed for vitamin D activation) acute pancreatisis magnesium deficiency - mg needed to stimulate pth release pseudohypothyroidism
178
why does renal failure cause hypocalcaemia
kidney is site of vitamin D activation Vitamin D upregulates calcium absoprtion
179
what are the affects of low Mg levels in the blood
hypocalcaemia need magnesium to stimulate PTH release low PTA = low calcium
180
what is pseudoparathyroidism
where we produce PTH however the tissues that accept PTH are less sensative to PTH = low calcium
181
if someone has multiple blood transfusions, what might they acquire
hypocalcaemia
182
what are the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia
muscle spasms in larynx, hands and legs seizures dental hypoplasia long QT interval on ECG
183
someone who is chronically hypocalcaemia has an ECG. what will it look like
long QT interval arrythmic
184
what are 2 examination tests to test hypocalcaemia
chvostek's sign = tap facial nerve = spasm of facial muscle Trouseau's sign = inflate BP to 20mmHg above normal for 5 minutes, hand goes into spasm
185
explain chvostek's sign
a test for hypocalcaemia tap on the facial nerve near the ear facial spasm of muscles
186
explain Trouseau's sign
test for hypocalcaemia inflate BP by 20mmHg above normal systolic pressure for 5 minutes hand goes into spasm
187
what are some things to look out for for hypocalcaemia
history of neck surgery/scar other autoimmune conditions family history of hypocalcaemia anti-epileptics growth failure/hearing loss
188
what are the two main causes of hypocalcaemia
low magnesium (needed for PTH stimulation) low vitamin D (activated in kidney to increase calcium absorption)
189
how do we treat hypocalcaemia (4)
if low vitamin D - give unactivated vitamin D if low Mg = give Mg calcium supplements if surgery on thyroid/parathyroid then give activated vitamin D as PT is needed for activation
190
at what point does a hypocalcaemic patient become 'severe' and need IV calcium
<1.9mmol/mol
191
what are the main 2 causes of hypercalcaemia
primary hyperparathyroidism myeloma/ bone mets/tumour in parathyroid gland (drugs e.g. calcium drugs)
192
what are some causes of hypercalcaemia
primary hyperparathyroidism myeloma/ bone mets/tumour in parathyroid gland (drugs e.g. calcium drugs) phaechromocytoma immobilisation lots of milk/alkali thiazides adrenal insufficiency
193
what are symptoms of hypercalcaemia
thirst polyuria nausea constipation confusion
194
what are symptoms of hypercalcaemia
thirst polyuria nausea constipation confusion
195
what are some consequences of hypercalcaemia
gastric ulcer weak bone density/fractures ECG abnormalatis short QT interval renal stones pancreatitis
196
what 4 medications must we look for in hypercalcaemia
thiazides (high BP) lithium for mental health calcium supplements vitamin D
197
what is tertiary hyperparathyroidism and what causes it
where we get enlarged PT gland = hypercalcaemia chronic kidney failure = low vit D (or just vit D deficency) = hypocalcaemia leads to hyperplastic PT gland = tumour = excess PTH and hypercalcaemia
198
why might kidne failure cause hypo and hypercalcaemia
chronic kidney failure = low vit D = hypocalcaemia low calcium = hyperplastic PT gland = tumour = excess PTH and hypercalcaemia
199
how do we check for parathyroid tumour in hypercalcaemia
check PTH levels in normal, if calcium is high = low PTH in tumour, if calcium is high = PTH also high
200
what causes primary hyperthyroidism
benign tumour / hyperplasia
201
if the pt has hyperthyroidism AND high PTH, what test do we do
24 hour urine calcium test to determine if primary hyperparathyroidism OR FHH
202
what are the two differential diagnosis for hypercalcaemia and high PTH and how do we differentiate
primary hyperparathyroidism OR FHH 24 hour calcium urine test < 0.01mmol/L = FHH 24 hour calcium urine test > 0.01mmol/L = primary hyperparathyroidism
203
pt has hypercalcaemia. what tests do we do
PTH test if high or normal = 24 hour urine test >0.01mmol/L is primary hyperparathyroidism and <0.01mmol/L is FHH if low = malignancy,
204
what is FHH
familial hypocalcuric hypocalcemia. This is a kidney problem. The body retains calcium at the kidneys, raising the blood levels. This causes the PTH to drop.
205
what are the 4 consequences of primary hyperparathyroidism (oans)
BONEs (bone pain, osteoperosis, cysts in skull) kidney STONES physic GROANS - confusion abdominal MOANS - constipation, acute pancreatisis
206
pt has a cyst in the skull, feeling confused and constipation. What might be the cause
primary hyperparathyroidism = hyperclacaemia
207
if a patient has hyperparathyroidism and is under 50, what do we do
surgery
208
how do we treat hyperparathyroidism if mild
FIRST CHECK PTH levels surgery if indicated (e.g. <50 years old or severe symptoms) if not indicated, monitor 2 times a year
209
how do we manage a hospitalised pt with hypercalcaemia
test blood for PTH! normal IV saline solution for 5 hours medications e.g. bisphosphonates (do XLA before this), cinacalcet, corticosteroids Denosumab to prevent bone resoprtion loop diuretics ONLY IF risk of overload
210
what medications can be used for hypercalcaemia (5)
bisphosphonates (do XLA before this) cinacalcet (calcium receptor agonist) corticosteroids (vitamin D toxins) Denosumab to prevent bone resoprtion RANK-L Ligand loop diuretics ONLY IF risk of overload
211
a patient is on cinacalcet , what are they being treated for
hypercalcaemia
212
when do we give loop diuretics to a hypercalcaemic patient
if at risk of fluid overload from saline