Engine Company Fireground Operations Flashcards by Patrick Wagner

The Three major tactical priorities on the fire ground are as follows:
Life safety
Extinguishment
Property conservation

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Engine companies, as well as every other firefighter at an incident, work within an IMS.

This system must have an overall strategic plan.

The incident commander, whether the first arriving company officer or the chief of the department, is responsible for the strategic plan.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Engine companies are responsible for performing life safety operations, establishing the water supply, advancing operating hose lines for both offensive and defensive modes of operation.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Backdraft: When oxygen enters a structure that is filled with the products of combustion and contains heat and fuel, accumulating gases may ignite into a rapidly spreading fire or a violent explosion.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Conduction: The travel of heat through a solid body.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Convection: The travel heat through the motion of heated matter.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Convection cycle: Heat transfer by circulation with a medium such as a gas or a liquid.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Fire tetrahedron: A geometric shape used to depict the four components required for a fire to a cool occur: fuel, oxygen, heat, and chemical chain reactions.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Flashover: Ignition of combustibles in an area heated by convection, radiation, or a combination of the two.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Incident management system (IMS): An organized system of roles, responsibilities, and standard operating guidelines used to manage emergency operations.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Radiation: The travel of heat through space; no material substance is required.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Size up: Basis on which engine company operations are carried out.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Firefighters must understand the nature of fire and the factors that affect it spread–that is, convection, radiation, conduction, and direct flame contact.

This understanding assist them in successfully carrying out three tactical priorities– Life safety, extinguishment, and property conservation.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Engine companies, as well as every other firefighter at an incident, work within an IMS.

This system must have an overall strategic plan.

The incident commander, whether the first arriving company officer or the chief of the department, is responsible for the strategic plan.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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Engine companies are responsible for performing life safety operations, establishing a water supply, and advancing and operating hose lines for both offenses and defensive modes of operation.

Chapter 1

Introduction

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An initial task of an engine company is to provide a water supply to the fire ground.

Chapter 2

Equipment and Initial Hose Operations

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Departmental Standard Operating Guidelines should dictate the procedures used to deliver adequately an uninterrupted supply of water to the fire ground. Consideration should be given to the types of apparatus responding, the arrival time of additional companies, existing water sources and their capacity. hose and appliances, available .

Chapter 2

Equipment and Initial Hose Operations

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The engine itself should be equipped with a pump having a rated capacity of no less than 750 GPM and the water tank that carries at least 300 gallons of water.

These are absolute minimum’s for the general operation of engine companies.

Chapter 2

Equipment and Initial Hose Operations.

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NFPA 1901 requires a minimum host hose storage area of 30 ft.³ for 2 1/2 inch or larger firehose and two areas, each a minimum of 3.5 ft.³ to accommodate 1 1/2 inch or larger pre-connected hoseline.

Chapter 2

Equipment and Initial Hose Operations

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Pre-connected hose lines of 1 1/2 or 1 3/4 inch should not exceed 250 feet in length because of excessive friction losses in longer lays.

If these lines need to be extended a further distance, they should be connected to larger diameter hose lines.

Chapter 2

Equipment and Initial Hose Operations

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The most common lengths of 1 1/2 inch or one and three-quarter inch hose on pre-connected ladies are 150 feet and 200 feet.

Chapter 2

Equipment and Initial Hose Operations

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Solid streams are useful when Extreme range is desired and where penetrating capabilities are needed, for example, thermal degradation of spray streams prevents proper penetration.

Chapter 2

Equipment and Initial Hose Operations

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Spray nozzle set of fog pattern are effective at more quickly absorbing heat those set at a straight stream pattern.’s the rapid absorption of heat will quickly spread the steam pretty pissed through out the building, endangering occupants and firefighters.

Chapter 2

Equipment and Initial Hose Operations

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Where is the first due company usually assigned?
p. 33
A.) Windward side of the building
B.) Front of the building
C.) Leeward side of the building
D.) Rear of the building

B.) Front of the building

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2. What is the minimum gpm flow that NFPA 1901 recommends for a master stream appliance? p. 19 A.) 2,500 B.) 1,500 C.) 1,000 D.) 2,000

C.) 1,000

3. Which is considered to be a primary responsibility of the engine company? p. 9 A.) Life safety B.) Fuel removal C.) Ventilation D.) Overhaul

*A.) Life safety

4. What is the designated flow from a spray nozzle usually rated? p. 18 A.) 85-psi nozzle pressure B.) 100-psi nozzle pressure C.) 200-psi nozzle pressure D.) 45-psi nozzle pressure

*B.) 100-psi nozzle pressure

5. Where should the engine position itself when the alley to the rear of the fire building is narrow? p. 37 A.) Close to the building B.) On the far side C.) On the street D.) At the rear

*C.) On the street

6. Which NFPA standard was developed with the primary purpose to aid in the development of a preincident plan? p. 32 A.) 1901 B.) 1467 C.) 1620 D.) 1903

C.) 1620

7. Which coverage is vital in general in the mercantile area? p. 41 A.) Front B.) Side C.) Rear D.) Top

*C.) Rear

8. Which method of heat transfer is the main reason for ventilation requirements in fire department operations? p. 6 A.) Conduction B.) Direct flame contact C.) Radiation D.) Convection

D.) Convection

9. How many different areas as a minimum does NFPA require be available to store 1 1/2-inch or larger preconnected hose lines? p. 14 A.) 5 B.) 2 C.) 4 D.) 3

*B.) 2

10. What is the last part of the building that the first arriving company will be able to observe when positioned correctly and traveling from North to South? p. 34 A.) South side B.) Front C.) North side D.) Rear

A.) South side

11. How should the pumper be positioned to the front at a warehouse fire building? p. 34 A.) So an aerial device can be placed in front B.) So hose lays will be relatively short C.) So company officers can view the building D.) So entrances can be used to fight the fire

D.) So entrances can be used to fight the fire

12. Which NFPA standard covers the standard on water supplies for suburban and rural fire fighting? p. 17 A.) 1142 B.) 1901 C.) 1903 D.) 1467

A.) 1142

13. What is the minimum size of the supply hose? p. 17 A.) 5-inch B.) 3 1/2-inch C.) 4 1/2-inch D.) 4-inch

B.) 3 1/2-inch

14. What is the most widely used size attack line within the fire service? p. 15 A.) 2-inch B.) 1-inch C.) 1 3/4-inch D.) 1 1/2-inch

C.) 1 3/4-inch

15. What letter designation is generally given to the rear of the building? p. 33 A.) B B.) D C.) C D.) A

*C.) C

16. Which type of nozzle should be attached to the 2 1/2-inch preconnected hose line due to the reduced nozzle pressure and lower nozzle reaction? p. 17 A.) Fog pattern B.) Master-stream C.) Adjustable D.) Solid-stream

*D.) Solid-stream

17. What length sections of hose line should be used to supply the master stream appliance when it is not preconnected? p. 19 A.) 45 to 55 feet B.) 25 to 35 feet C.) 35 to 45 feet D.) 15 to 25 feet

D.) 15 to 25 feet

18. Which is NOT an advantage of using the forward lay with a charged supply line? p. 24 A.) A preconnected master stream appliance may be used almost immediately after arriving at the fire B.) The company is free to take up any position in the front, rear or side of the burning structure C.) The engine company is self-sufficient in terms of water supply D.) The entire crew is available on the fire scene from the beginning

D.) The entire crew is available on the fire scene from the | beginning

19. Which hose lay is popular when the second arriving company is close behind the first? p. 25 A.) Direct-to-fire-no line-laid approach B.) Forward lay using an uncharged supply line C.) Reverse lay using a charged supply line D.) Forward lay using a charged supply line

B.) Forward lay using an uncharged supply line

20. Where is the first arriving engine company usually positioned at the central corridor construction building? p. 44 A.) Front B.) Rear C.) Right side D.) Left side

A.) Front

21. How many inches will a 100-foot section of steel beam expand when heated to 1,000 degrees Fahrenheit? p. 7 A.) 15 inches B.) 9 inches C.) 11 inches D.) 13 inches

*B.) 9 inches

22. How many of what size hard sleeve should pumpers carry as a minimum? p. 20 A.) Three 10-foot sections B.) Two 10-foot sections C.) Three 20-foot sections D.) Two 20-foot sections

B.) Two 10-foot sections

23. Which is exclusively part of the fire tetrahedron? p. 4 A.) Fuel B.) Heat C.) Reaction D.) Oxygen

*C.) Reaction

24. What is characteristic of the standard fire department stream? p. 18 A.) 500 gpm at 65 psi B.) 500 gpm at 45 psi C.) 250 gpm at 45 psi D.) 250 gpm at 65 psi

C.) 250 gpm at 45 psi

25. What should particular attention be focused on by the engine company? p. 9 A.) Property conservation B.) Attack line laying C.) Primary search D.) Exposure protection

C.) Primary search

26. What type of nozzle should be used to allow a 1 1/2-inch line to be connected to the 2 1/2-inch line? p. 17 A.) Leader line B.) Reducer line C.) Jumper line D.) Connector line

*A.) Leader line

27. What is the hydrant assist valve also known as? p. 21 A.) Four-way valve B.) Siamese C.) Two-way valve D.) Ball valve

A.) Four-way valve

28. Which is an NFPA standard designed to provide fire departments with an objective method of measuring performance for initial fire suppression and rescue procedures? p. 4 A.) 1903 B.) 1410 C.) 1567 D.) 1104

B.) 1410

29. Where should the nozzle of the 1 1/2-inch hose line be located when separate hose beds are provided? p. 16 A.) Bottom B.) Top C.) Left D.) Right

B.) Top

30. What should be the maximum length of pre connected hose lines of 1 1/2- or 1 3/4-inch? p. 16 A.) 500 feet B.) 750 feet C.) 250 feet D.) 1,000 feet

C.) 250 feet

31. Approximately how many times more water is the 4-inch LDH able to move than the 2 1/2-inch hose line? p. 17 A.) 4.5 times B.) 5.5 times C.) 3.5 times D.) 2.5 times

C.) 3.5 times

32. Where do most businesses front in a shopping mall? p. 41 A.) Central court B.) Rear alley way C.) Parking lots D.) Exterior walls

A.) Central court

33. Which action can eliminate or stop conduction without the firefighter even being aware? p. 7 A.) Fuel removal B.) Water application C.) Overhaul D.) Ventilation

B.) Water application

34. What is considered the ultimate goal of preincident planning? p. 32 A.) To know the problems involved in every potential fire building in a company's response area for each specific building B.) To know the problems involved in every government fire building in a company's response area for each specific branch C.) To know the problems involved in every manufacturing fire building in a company's response area for each specific industry D.) To know the problems involved in every valuable fire building in a company's response area for each specific neighborhood

A.) To know the problems involved in every potential fire building in a company's response area for each specific building

35. Which direction does radiated heat travel? p. 6 A.) Downwards only B.) Evenly in all directions C.) Upwards only D.) Upwards and then sideways

B.) Evenly in all directions

36. Where should the main body of fire in the rear of the mercantile store be attacked from? p. 41 A.) Front or unburned B.) Top or burned C.) Sides or burned D.) Rear or unburned

A.) Front or unburned

37. What should be the minimum gallons per minute of the pump on the engine itself? p. 14 A.) 1,200 B.) 750 C.) 1,500 D.) 500

B.) 750

38. What length straight ladder with roof hooks is required by the NFPA? p. 22 A.) 14 or 16 feet B.) 12 or 14 feet C.) 16 or 18 feet D.) 18 or 20 feet

B.) 12 or 14 feet

39. Which coverage areas are most important with the fire in a garden apartment? p. 41 A.) Front and sides B.) Top and sides C.) Front and rear D.) Sides and rear

C.) Front and rear

40. How many combination spray nozzles with a 200 fpm minimum are required on the pumper apparatus by the NFPA? p. 17 A.) 4 B.) 2 C.) 1 D.) 3

C.) 1

41. How many double male and double female 2 1/2-inch adapters with National Standard Thread are required by the NFPA? p. 22 A.) 3 *B.) 1 C.) 2 D.) 4

B.) 1

42. What is the travel of heat through a solid body? p. 6 A.) Direct flame contact B.) Convection C.) Radiation D.) Conduction

D.) Conduction

43. Where should the first arriving engine place itself at a set-back building? p. 41 A.) Along the leeward side of the building B.) Close to the front of the building C.) Close to the rear of the building D.) Along the windward side of the building

B.) Close to the front of the building

44. What can be used to advance hose lines around and over the fire from the side of the building to help avoid cluttered stairways? p. 40 A.) Aerial devices B.) Ropes C.) Ladders D.) Rooftop operations

C.) Ladders

45. What is the height limit generally placed upon garden style apartments? p. 42-43 A.) 5 to 6 stories B.) 3 to 4 stories C.) 4 to 5 stories D.) 2 to 3 stories

B.) 3 to 4 stories

46. How many companies are required to provide one pumper with a water supply when using the forward lay using an uncharged supply line? p. 25 A.) 4 B.) 3 C.) 1 D.) 2

D.) 2

47. What is the NFPA minimum requirement for soft-suction hose line? p. 19 A.) 25 feet B.) 20 feet C.) 15 feet D.) 30 feet

C.) 15 feet

48. Which method of heat travel is accomplished through the motion of smoke, hot air and flying embers? p. 5 A.) Direct flame contact B.) Radiation C.) Convection D.) Conduction

C.) Convection

49. What is the first and most basic step in coverage? p. 33 A.) Developing the incident action plan B.) Charging the hoselines C.) Assigning tasks to companies D.) Positioning of the apparatus

D.) Positioning of the apparatus

50. Where should the first arriving pumper position in relation to the fire building? p. 33 A.) In the rear B.) Just before C.) Just past D.) Directly in front

C.) Just past

``` 1. Which of the following work in conjunction to cause flashover? p. 8 A.) Direct flame contact and convection B.) Convection and radiation C.) Conduction and convection D.) Direct flame contact and radiation ```

Chapter 1 - Introduction B.) Convection and radiation

2. Which may cause a rollover at the top of a structure because of the hot products of combustion igniting materials at that level? p. 8 A.) Conduction B.) Convection C.) Direct flame contact D.) Radiation

Chapter 1 - Introduction B.) Convection

3. What is the greatest cause of exposure fires once the fire has grown to considerable size? p. 6 A.) Direct flame contact B.) Radiation C.) Conduction D.) Convection

B.) Radiation

4. How many inches will a 100-foot section of steel beam expand when heated to 1,000 degrees Fahrenheit? p. 7 A.) 15 inches B.) 9 inches C.) 11 inches D.) 13 inches

B.) 9 inches

5. Which action can eliminate or stop conduction without the firefighter even being aware? p. 7 A.) Fuel removal B.) Water application C.) Overhaul D.) Ventilation

B.) Water application

6. Which two things needed to sustain a fire are usually in plentiful supply in structural fire? p. 5 A.) Fuel and heat B.) Oxygen and fuel C.) Oxygen and heat D.) Heat and reaction

B.) Oxygen and fuel

7. What should particular attention be focused on by the engine company? p. 9 A.) Property conservation B.) Attack line laying C.) Primary search D.) Exposure protection

C.) Primary search

8. What is considered the basic unit of a fire department? p. 4 A.) Staged company B.) Rescue company C.) Ladder company D.) Engine company

D.) Engine company

9. What is the basis on which engine company operations are carried out? p. 9 A.) First alarm B.) Overhaul C.) Analysis D.) Size up

D.) Size up

10. When which two methods of heat transfer combine is the most severe area of exposure created? p. 6 A.) Convection and direct flame contact B.) Conduction and direct flame contact C.) Convection and conduction D.) Convection and radiation

D.) Convection and radiation

11. Which method of heat travel is accomplished through the motion of smoke, hot air and flying embers? p. 5 A.) Direct flame contact B.) Radiation C.) Convection D.) Conduction

C.) Convection

12. Which is exclusively part of the fire tetrahedron? p. 4 A.) Fuel B.) Heat C.) Reaction D.) Oxygen

C.) Reaction

13. Which method of heat transfer is the main reason for ventilation requirements in fire department operations? p. 6 A.) Conduction B.) Direct flame contact C.) Radiation D.) Convection

D.) Convection

14. Which type of priorities are life safety, extinguishment and property conservation? p. 4 A.) Operational B.) Tactical C.) Administrative D.) Logistical

B.) Tactical

15. Which is an NFPA standard designed to provide fire departments with an objective method of measuring performance for initial fire suppression and rescue procedures? p. 4 A.) 1903 B.) 1410 C.) 1567 D.) 1104

B.) 1410

16. Which is considered to be a primary responsibility of the engine company? p. 9 A.) Life safety B.) Fuel removal C.) Ventilation D.) Overhaul

A.) Life safety

17. Which direction does radiated heat travel? p. 6 A.) Downwards only B.) Evenly in all directions C.) Upwards only D.) Upwards and then sideways

B.) Evenly in all directions

18. What is the first priority on the fire ground? p. 4 A.) Property conservation B.) Fire extinguishment C.) Water supply D.) Life safety

D.) Life safety

19. What is the travel of heat through a solid body? p. 6 A.) Direct flame contact B.) Convection C.) Radiation D.) Conduction

D.) Conduction

1. What is the minimum number of feet of 2 1/2-inch or larger hose line required by NFPA? p. 16 A.) 400 B.) 1,200 C.) 800 D.) 1,600

C.) 800

2. How many separate supply lines can be laid from the divided hose bed? p. 15 A.) 3 B.) 4 C.) 5 D.) 2

D.) 2

3. Which size nozzle tip is generally used on the 2 1/2-inch hose to produce the standard fire department stream? p. 18 A.) 1 1/4-inch B.) 2 1/4-inch C.) 1 3/4-inch D.) 1 1/8-inch

D.) 1 1/8-inch

4. Which is NOT an advantage of using the reverse lay using a charged supply line? p. 27 A.) Get water to the fire faster than operations using preconnected hose lines B.) The engine company is self-sufficient in terms of its own water supply C.) Pumpers are not positioned close to the fire building in case of collapse D.) Later-arriving engine companies may initially hook up to a pumper operating from a hydrant

A.) Get water to the fire faster than operations using | preconnected hose lines

5. Where is the soft-suction hose normally connected? p. 20 A.) Rear intake B.) Front intake C.) Top intake D.) Bottom intake

B.) Front intake

6. What length sections of hose line should be used to supply the master stream appliance when it is not preconnected? p. 19 A.) 45 to 55 feet B.) 25 to 35 feet C.) 35 to 45 feet D.) 15 to 25 feet

D.) 15 to 25 feet

7. How many ball valves need to be placed on a hydrant to allow an additional supply line to be laid without shutting down the hydrant? p. 21 A.) 2 B.) 5 C.) 3 D.) 4

A.) 2

8. How many combination spray nozzles with a 200 fpm minimum are required on the pumper apparatus by the NFPA? p. 17 A.) 4 B.) 2 C.) 1 D.) 3

C.) 1

9. What should be the maximum length of pre connected hose lines of 1 1/2- or 1 3/4-inch? p. 16 A.) 500 feet B.) 750 feet C.) 250 feet D.) 1,000 feet

C.) 250 feet

10. Which size hose line is recommended for fires that cannot be controlled by the smaller attack lines? p. 16 A.) 3-inch B.) 2-inch C.) 2 1/2-inch D.) 1 3/4-inch

C.) 2 1/2-inch

11. Which is the more popular size of soft-suction hose line being used today? p. 19 A.) 3 and 4 inches B.) 4 and 5 inches C.) 2 and 3 inches D.) 5 and 6 inches

B.) 4 and 5 inches

12. Which NFPA standard defines requirements for new automotive fire apparatus? p. 14 A.) 1907 B.) 1901 C.) 1405 D.) 1403

B.) 1901

13. Which hose lay is popular when the second arriving company is close behind the first? p. 25 A.) Direct-to-fire-no line-laid approach B.) Forward lay using an uncharged supply line C.) Reverse lay using a charged supply line D.) Forward lay using a charged supply line

B.) Forward lay using an uncharged supply line

14. What is the most widely used size attack line within the fire service? p. 15 A.) 2-inch B.) 1-inch C.) 1 3/4-inch D.) 1 1/2-inch

C.) 1 3/4-inch

15. What is characteristic of the standard fire department stream? p. 18 A.) 500 gpm at 65 psi B.) 500 gpm at 45 psi C.) 250 gpm at 45 psi D.) 250 gpm at 65 psi

C.) 250 gpm at 45 psi

16. Which is NOT an advantage of using the forward lay with a charged supply line? p. 24 A.) A preconnected master stream appliance may be used almost immediately after arriving at the fire B.) The company is free to take up any position in the front, rear or side of the burning structure C.) The engine company is self-sufficient in terms of water supply D.) The entire crew is available on the fire scene from the beginning

D.) The entire crew is available on the fire scene from the | beginning

17. Which type of nozzle should be attached to the 2 1/2-inch pre-connected hose line due to the reduced nozzle pressure and lower nozzle reaction? p. 17 A.) Fog pattern B.) Master-stream C.) Adjustable D.) Solid-stream

D.) Solid-stream

18. How many double male and double female 2 1/2-inch adapters with National Standard Thread are required by the NFPA? p. 22 A.) 3 B.) 1 C.) 2 D.) 4

B.) 1

19. How many of what size hard sleeve should pumpers carry as a minimum? p. 20 A.) Three 10-foot sections B.) Two 10-foot sections C.) Three 20-foot sections D.) Two 20-foot sections

B.) Two 10-foot sections

20. At what wind speed will a straight tip begin to be needed for penetration? p. 18 A.) 15 mph B.) 20 mph C.) 30 mph D.) 25 mph

C.) 30 mph

21. Which is considered to be the most desirable hose lay for the one-piece engine company? p. 23 A.) Forward lay using an uncharged supply line B.) Reverse lay using a charged line C.) Forward lay using a charged supply line D.) Direct-to-fire-no line-laid approach

C.) Forward lay using a charged supply line

22. Approximately how many times more water is the 4-inch LDH able to move than the 2 1/2-inch hose line? p. 17 A.) 4.5 times B.) 5.5 times C.) 3.5 times D.) 2.5 times

C.) 3.5 times

23. Where should the nozzle of the 1 1/2-inch hose line be located when separate hose beds are provided? p. 16 A.) Bottom B.) Top C.) Left D.) Right

B.) Top

24. How many cubic feet of storage space as a minimum does NFPA require for 2 1/2-inch or larger fire hose on the engine? p. 14 A.) 40 B.) 30 C.) 50 D.) 60

B.) 30

25. How many companies are required to provide one pumper with a water supply when using the forward lay using an uncharged supply line? p. 25 A.) 4 B.) 3 C.) 1 D.) 2

D.) 2

26. Which type of lay is the only one with the advantage of the pumper being away from the fire building? p. 26 A.) Forward lay using a charged supply line B.) Forward lay using an uncharged supply line C.) Reverse lay using a charged supply line D.) Direct-to-fire-no line-laid approach

C.) Reverse lay using a charged supply line

27. What length straight ladder with roof hooks is required by the NFPA? p. 22 A.) 14 or 16 feet B.) 12 or 14 feet C.) 16 or 18 feet D.) 18 or 20 feet

B.) 12 or 14 feet

28. What is the minimum number of gallons of water that the water tank on the engine should be able to carry? p. 14 A.) 1,200 B.) 1,500 C.) 1,750 D.) 1,000

D.) 1,000

29. What should be the minimum gallons per minute of the pump on the engine itself? p. 14 A.) 1,200 B.) 750 C.) 1,500 D.) 500

B.) 750

30. What is the NFPA minimum requirement for soft-suction hose line? p. 19 A.) 25 feet B.) 20 feet C.) 15 feet D.) 30 feet

C.) 15 feet

31. What size extension ladder should the pumper be equipped with when no ladder trucks are in service? p. 22 A.) 50-foot B.) 20-foot C.) 65-foot D.) 35-foot

D.) 35-foot

32. How many different areas as a minimum does NFPA require be available to store 1 1/2-inch or larger preconnected hose lines? p. 14 A.) 5 B.) 2 C.) 4 D.) 3

B.) 2

33. What is the hydrant assist valve also known as? p. 21 A.) Four-way valve B.) Siamese C.) Two-way valve D.) Ball valve

A.) Four-way valve

34. What is the minimum size of the supply hose? p. 17 A.) 5-inch B.) 3 1/2-inch C.) 4 1/2-inch D.) 4-inch

B.) 3 1/2-inch

35. What type of nozzle should be used to allow a 1 1/2-inch line to be connected to the 2 1/2-inch line? p. 17 A.) Leader line B.) Reducer line C.) Jumper line D.) Connector line

A.) Leader line

36. Which NFPA standard covers the standard on water supplies for suburban and rural fire fighting? p. 17 A.) 1142 B.) 1901 C.) 1903 D.) 1467

A.) 1142

37. What is the minimum gpm flow that NFPA 1901 recommends for a master stream appliance? p. 19 A.) 2,500 B.) 1,500 C.) 1,000 D.) 2,000

C.) 1,000

38. What is the minimum number of feet of fire hose that NFPA requires be carried on the pumper fire apparatus? p. 15 A.) 600 B.) 500 C.) 400 D.) 700

C.) 400

39. What is the designated flow from a spray nozzle usually rated? p. 18 A.) 85-psi nozzle pressure B.) 100-psi nozzle pressure C.) 200-psi nozzle pressure D.) 45-psi nozzle pressure

B.) 100-psi nozzle pressure

40. What does the first pumper work from when using the direct-to-fire-no line-laid approach? p. 25 A.) Hydrant B.) Water tank C.) Relay outfit D.) Drafting hose

B.) Water tank

1. Which engine company should proceed up the alley from the cross street to access the rear of the attached building? p. 37 A.) Command B.) Staged C.) First arriving D.) Second arriving

D.) Second arriving

2. How many sides of the building are officers allowed to see when the first due company places its apparatus properly? p. 33 A.) 2 B.) 3 C.) 1 D.) 4

B.) 3

3. Optimally how many sides of the building should be laddered to allow for means of access and egress? p. 40 A.) 1 B.) 3 C.) 4 D.) 2

C.) 4

4. What is considered the ultimate goal of preincident planning? p. 32 A.) To know the problems involved in every potential fire building in a company's response area for each specific building B.) To know the problems involved in every government fire building in a company's response area for each specific branch C.) To know the problems involved in every manufacturing fire building in a company's response area for each specific industry D.) To know the problems involved in every valuable fire building in a company's response area for each specific neighborhood

A.) To know the problems involved in every potential fire building in a company's response area for each specific building

5. What can be used to advance hose lines around and over the fire from the side of the building to help avoid cluttered stairways? p. 40 A.) Aerial devices B.) Ropes C.) Ladders D.) Rooftop operations

C.) Ladders

6. Which coverage areas are most important with the fire in a garden apartment? p. 41 A.) Front and sides B.) Top and sides C.) Front and rear D.) Sides and rear

C.) Front and rear

7. Where is the first due company usually assigned? p. 33 A.) Windward side of the building B.) Front of the building C.) Leeward side of the building D.) Rear of the building

B.) Front of the building

8. What is the first and most basic step in coverage? p. 33 A.) Developing the incident action plan B.) Charging the hoselines C.) Assigning tasks to companies D.) Positioning of the apparatus

D.) Positioning of the apparatus

9. Which of the following should not be taken into consideration when placing companies at a high-rise fire building? p. 44 A.) Location of standpipe intakes B.) Width of the building C.) Height of the building D.) Length of the building

C.) Height of the building

10. What letter designation is generally given to the rear of the building? p. 33 A.) B B.) D C.) C D.) A

C.) C

11. What is most often used for venting or fire attack in a standard shopping center? p. 41 A.) Walls B.) Doors C.) Windows D.) Rooftop

C.) Windows

12. Which coverage is vital in general in the mercantile area? p. 41 A.) Front B.) Side C.) Rear D.) Top

C.) Rear

13. Which should be covered by the engine company before advancing hose lines from the sides? p. 40 A.) Exterior porches B.) Exterior stairways C.) Interior foyers D.) Interior stairwells

D.) Interior stairwells

14. Where should the engine company position itself in the front when the ladder company is approaching from the same direction at an attached building? p. 36 A.) In the rear of the building B.) Just short of the building C.) Just past the building D.) In the front of the building

C.) Just past the building

15. Where is the first arriving engine company usually positioned at the central corridor construction building? p. 44 A.) Front B.) Rear C.) Right side D.) Left side

A.) Front

16. How should the pumper be positioned to the front at a warehouse fire building? p. 34 A.) So an aerial device can be placed in front B.) So hose lays will be relatively short C.) So company officers can view the building D.) So entrances can be used to fight the fire

D.) So entrances can be used to fight the fire

17. What is the height limit generally placed upon garden style apartments? p. 42-43 A.) 5 to 6 stories B.) 3 to 4 stories C.) 4 to 5 stories D.) 2 to 3 stories

B.) 3 to 4 stories

18. What is the last part of the building that the first arriving company will be able to observe when positioned correctly and traveling from North to South? p. 34 A.) South side B.) Front C.) North side D.) Rear

A.) South side

19. Which NFPA standard was developed with the primary purpose to aid in the development of a preincident plan? p. 32 A.) 1901 B.) 1467 C.) 1620 D.) 1903

C.) 1620

20. Where should the first arriving engine place itself at a set-back building? p. 41 A.) Along the leeward side of the building B.) Close to the front of the building C.) Close to the rear of the building D.) Along the windward side of the building

B.) Close to the front of the building

21. Where should the engine position itself when the alley to the rear of the fire building is narrow? p. 37 A.) Close to the building B.) On the far side C.) On the street D.) At the rear

C.) On the street

22. Where should the main body of fire in the rear of the mercantile store be attacked from? p. 41 A.) Front or unburned B.) Top or burned C.) Sides or burned D.) Rear or unburned

A.) Front or unburned

23. Where do most businesses front in a shopping mall? p. 41 A.) Central court B.) Rear alley way C.) Parking lots D.) Exterior walls

A.) Central court

24. Where should the first arriving pumper position in relation to the fire building? p. 33 A.) In the rear B.) Just before C.) Just past D.) Directly in front

C.) Just past

1. Which is an easy and effective way to mark a room as being searched during the primary search effort? p. 63 A.) Put a piece of furniture in the doorway B.) Close and lock the door C.) Place a large "X" on the door with marker D.) Turn on the light in the room

A.) Put a piece of furniture in the doorway

2. When should ventilation begin when the fire is free burning? p. 56 A.) Just before the initial attack B.) Once the initial attack has begun C.) At the same time as the initial attack D.) It should not be performed with a free burning fire

C.) At the same time as the initial attack

3. What direction should subsequent turns be when the first turn into the room over the fire is a right-hand turn? p. 62 A.) Random B.) Right-hand C.) Alternating D.) Left-hand

B.) Right-hand

4. Which of the following is the hose line NOT generally used for during rescue operations in a large, occupied residential building? p. 57 A.) Hit the main body of the fire B.) Cut off the spread of the fire C.) Control the spread of the fire to nearby exposures D.) Cover areas into which the fire will likely spread

C.) Control the spread of the fire to nearby exposures

5. Which statement is correct? p. 60 A.) All firefighters should be able to conduct a primary search B.) Only engine companies should be able to conduct a primary search C.) Only rescue teams should be able to conduct a primary search D.) Only ladder companies should be able to conduct a primary search

A.) All firefighters should be able to conduct a primary search

6. Which fire situation always presents with the possibility of a rescue situation? p. 50 A.) Industrial property B.) Commercial property C.) Manufacturing property D.) Residential property

D.) Residential property

7. According to national statistics in which occupancy do the most injuries and deaths occur during a fire? p. 50 A.) Residences B.) Nursing homes C.) Hospitals D.) Schools

A.) Residences

8. What should be done after a room that the fire has entered have been searched during the primary search? p. 63 A.) Block the door open B.) Close the door C.) Open the window D.) Apply water

B.) Close the door

9. Which is NOT seen as a primary duty of the engine company in a rescue situation? p. 55 A.) Protect exposures from fire dangers B.) Keep the fire from jeopardizing anyone inside the building C.) Support the primary search D.) Contain the fire

A.) Protect exposures from fire dangers

10. Which type of structure should be completely evacuated in all situations? p. 59 A.) Hospitals B.) Schools C.) Rehab centers D.) Nursing homes

B.) Schools

11. What size line should fire crews be prepared to use when fighting fires at a fire resistive building? p. 60 A.) 1 1/8-inch B.) 1 1/2-inch C.) 1 3/4-inch D.) 2 1/2-inch

D.) 2 1/2-inch

12. Which of the following is NOT part of the SOG that describes the operating policy regarding risk assessment and safety management at all emergency incidents? p. 50 A.) Fire fighters will risk their lives a little in a calculated manner to rescue potentially savable victims B.) Fire fighters will risk their lives a little in a calculated manner to rescue savable property C.) Fire fighters will not risk their lives at all for lives or property that is already lost D.) Fire fighters will risk their lives a lot in a calculated manner to rescue savable lives

A.) Fire fighters will risk their lives a little in a | calculated manner to rescue potentially savable victims

13. What should be done if the area above the fire is not tenable for searching? p. 60 A.) Attempt to enter the area B.) Stretch a hose line C.) Move onto the main body of fire D.) Begin ventilation

D.) Begin ventilation

14. Which pumper is it important to keep supplied with water so that its crew can maintain their position and continue rescue and fire attack operations? p. 54 A.) Third-arriving B.) Second-arriving C.) Last-arriving D.) First-arriving

D.) First-arriving

15. When does preparation for a rescue begin? p. 50 A.) After the specialists arrive B.) When the alarm is received C.) Before the alarm is received D.) Once crews arrive at the scene

C.) Before the alarm is received

16. How many fire fighters as a minimum must be available to backup a team of two fire fighters working in the hazard area? p. 52 A.) 6 B.) 8 C.) 2 D.) 4

C.) 2

17. What size stream would be more effective in protecting occupants trapped inside a building where the fire has gained considerable headway? p. 57 A.) 2 1/2-inch B.) 1 3/4-inch C.) 1 1/8-inch D.) 1 1/2-inch

A.) 2 1/2-inch

18. What should be done first when there are victims preparing to jump from windows upon arrival? p. 52 A.) Affect the rescue B.) Stretch a protective line C.) Begin search procedures D.) Knock down the fire

A.) Affect the rescue

19. What is as essential to the primary search and rescue effort as it is to fire extinguishment? p. 53 A.) Tools B.) Water C.) Timing D.) Ropes

B.) Water

20. How many officers must be part of the rapid intervention team? p. 53 A.) 2 B.) 4 C.) 3 D.) 1

D.) 1

21. Which is NOT a consideration that should factor into the decision to completely evacuate a hospital? p. 59 A.) Building construction type B.) Severity of the fire C.) Location of the fire D.) Number of patients

D.) Number of patients

22. Which of the following is NOT considered the main thrust of rescue operations in any type of structure? p. 56 A.) Location of fire fighters outside of the structure B.) Location of occupants most endangered by the fire C.) Severity of the fire D.) Location of the fire

A.) Location of fire fighters outside of the structure

23. Which rooms on the second floor should be searched first when dealing with a fire on the first floor of a two-story, single-family dwelling? p. 56 A.) Rooms with the least amount of smoke B.) Rooms directly above the fire C.) Rooms with the greatest amount of smoke D.) Rooms most remote from the fire

B.) Rooms directly above the fire

24. Which will indicate where fire fighters should begin their search and rescue and fire attack efforts? p. 51 A.) Size-up B.) Initial report C.) Preplanning D.) Inspections

A.) Size-up

25. What is done after the primary search to ensure no one was overlooked? p. 56 A.) Ventilation procedures B.) Fire attack operations C.) Secondary search D.) Overhaul operations

C.) Secondary search

1. What is the minimum gpm of the permanently mounted fire pump on a pumper? p. 72 A.) 750 B.) 650 C.) 850 D.) 950

A.) 750

2. Which lay distance may NOT require relaying operations to counteract the effect of friction loss and elevation pressures? p. 80 A.) 1,100 feet B.) 1,500 feet C.) 1,300 feet D.) 900 feet

D.) 900 feet

3. What is the most often used length of soft suction hose when a pumper is working directly from a hydrant? p. 72 A.) 30 to 40 feet B.) 10 to 20 feet C.) 40 to 50 feet D.) 20 to 30 feet

B.) 10 to 20 feet

4. Which is the pressure of the hydrant water at rest? p. 68 A.) Relay pressure B.) Residual pressure C.) Static pressure D.) Simple pressure

C.) Static pressure

5. What is the maximum level above its rated peak speed that the pump should be operated? p. 74 A.) 75% B.) 70% C.) 85% D.) 80%

D.) 80%

6. Which intakes on the pumper are closest to the pump itself and most effective when drafting? p. 72 A.) Top B.) Front C.) Side D.) Rear

C.) Side

7. Which of the following is the attack hose NOT designed for? p. 76 A.) Moving water from a pressurized water source to a pump B.) Moving water to fire department pumps C.) Conveying water to distributor nozzles and manifolds D.) Conveying water to hose line nozzles

A.) Moving water from a pressurized water source to a pump

8. What are the only limitation to the distance water can be relayed? p. 80 A.) Level of terrain and ground grade B.) Amount of pumpers and supply hose C.) Amount of water and friction loss D.) Level training and personnel

B.) Amount of pumpers and supply hose

9. Which cannot happen without dire consequences once a pumper is supplying tank water to attack lines? p. 70 A.) Rotate out original crew members B.) Utilize more than one hose line C.) Allow the tank to run dry D.) Lay a LDH

C.) Allow the tank to run dry

10. At what pressure should the pumper at a hydrant initially begin pumping to a unit at the fire? p. 79 A.) 150 psi B.) 100 psi C.) 200 psi D.) 250 psi

B.) 100 psi

11. What is the minimum residual pressure that the pump operator should maintain? p. 75 A.) 20 to 25 psi B.) 35 to 40 psi C.) 25 to 30 psi D.) 30 to 35 psi

A.) 20 to 25 psi

12. How many gallons of water do mobile water supply apparatus generally carry? p. 70 A.) 1,000 to 3,500 B.) 2,500 to 5,000 C.) 1,500 to 4,000 D.) 2,000 to 4,500

A.) 1,000 to 3,500

13. What is the minimum size discharge outlet needed on the pumper to discharge the rated capacity of the pump? p. 74 A.) 4-inch B.) 3-inch C.) 2 1/2-inch D.) 3 1/2-inch

C.) 2 1/2-inch

14. Which is used to increase the velocity of a larger volume of water that is flowing by gravity through a given size dump valve? p. 71 A.) Jet assist B.) Drafting tool C.) Pneumatic pump D.) Offloading valve

A.) Jet assist

15. What is the main objective always when it comes to water supply? p. 68 A.) Obtaining maximum utilization with minimum personnel B.) Obtaining maximum utilization with maximum personnel C.) Obtaining minimum utilization with maximum personnel D.) Obtaining minimum utilization with minimum personnel

A.) Obtaining maximum utilization with minimum personnel

16. At what pressure must the pumping system be capable of delivering one hundred percent of its rated capacity? p. 72 A.) 300 psi B.) 200 psi C.) 150 psi D.) 250 psi

C.) 150 psi

17. In what order should supply lines be charged when relaying water? p. 81 A.) From the center to the ends B.) From the ends to the center C.) From the source to the fire D.) From the fire to the source

C.) From the source to the fire

18. At what pressure should all pumpers in the relay line be set to pump to the pumper at the fire at the start of the operation? p. 81 A.) 250 psi B.) 100 psi C.) 150 psi D.) 200 psi

C.) 150 psi

19. Which is used to primarily move water from one location to another? p. 70 A.) Pumper B.) Tanker C.) Puller D.) Tender

D.) Tender

20. Which is the major source of water for many fire departments? p. 68 A.) Apparatus water tank B.) Mobile water supply apparatus C.) Water main system D.) Static water source

C.) Water main system

21. What is the maximum gpm that the 2 1/2-inch supply line should be used to deliver? p. 76 A.) 650 B.) 350 C.) 450 D.) 550

B.) 350

22. Which is a limiting factor for the operation of the pumper? p. 72 A.) Residual pressure B.) Number of intakes C.) Static pressure D.) Number of discharges

A.) Residual pressure

23. What is the maximum setting that should be used for the pressure relief device when using an LDH to supply attack lines? p. 76 A.) 300 psi B.) 200 psi C.) 250 psi D.) 350 psi

B.) 200 psi

24. Approximately how many 2 1/2-inch hose lines is a 5-inch hose line equivalent to? p. 78 A.) 8 B.) 7 C.) 6 D.) 5

C.) 6

25. What may be needed to move water from a distant static source to the fire ground? p. 70 A.) Pumper relay B.) Enhancement pumper C.) Long hose lay D.) High residual pressure

A.) Pumper relay

26. Up to what operating pressure is the attack hose designed to be used up to as a minimum? p. 76 A.) 350 psi B.) 250 psi C.) 275 psi D.) 375 psi

C.) 275 psi

27. What is the absolute minimum residual pressure that should ever be allowed by the pump operator? p. 75 A.) 25 psi B.) 20 psi C.) 10 psi D.) 15 psi

C.) 10 psi

28. What size LDH is generally used when a pumper stretches a supply hose to the fire using a forward lay? p. 72 A.) 4 to 5 inch B.) 3 to 4 inch C.) 2 to 3 inch D.) 5 to 6 inch

A.) 4 to 5 inch

29. How many supply lines should be laid initially if an LDH is not being used for the initial supply line? p. 81 A.) 1 B.) 4 C.) 3 D.) 2

D.) 2

30. What is the minimum number of valved intakes that must be provided on the pumper that can be controlled from the pump operator's position? p. 74 A.) 1 B.) 2 C.) 3 D.) 4

A.) 1

31. What is the best solution if additional water is needed? p. 81 A.) Begin a second relay operation immediately B.) Increase the residual pressure with pumps C.) Remove one of the relay pumpers from operation D.) Lay another supply line between operating pumpers

D.) Lay another supply line between operating pumpers

32. How many more equal parts can be supplied when there is a 10% drop from the static pressure to the residual pressure once an attack line is charged? p. 69 A.) One B.) Four C.) Three D.) Two

D.) Two

1. What is the main fuel of the smoldering fire? p. 98 A.) Unburned fuel B.) Carbon dioxide gas C.) Particulate matter D.) Carbon monoxide gas

D.) Carbon monoxide gas

2. What should be used to efficiently fight a fire in a basement where ventilation is almost impossible to accomplish? p. 95 A.) 2 1/2-inch spray stream nozzle B.) 1 3/4-inch spray stream nozzle C.) 2 1/2-inch smooth bore nozzle D.) 1 3/4-inch smooth bore nozzle

C.) 2 1/2-inch smooth bore nozzle

3. What pressure is the constant pressure spray nozzle designed to maintain at the tip regardless of the flow? p. 92 A.) 100 psi B.) 250 psi C.) 150 psi D.) 200 psi

A.) 100 psi

4. Which is NOT an indication of a smoldering fire? p. 98 A.) The smoke rises quickly from the building B.) Smoke and fire are visible from the exterior C.) Usually the building will be tight D.) All windows are darkened with linear cracks

B.) Smoke and fire are visible from the exterior

5. What is the maximum angle setting that should be used with the fog nozzle when it is being used to push products of combustion to a better vented area? p. 91 A.) 60 degree B.) 45 degree C.) 90 degree D.) 30 degree

D.) 30 degree

6. What size attack line should be used in the area above a storage area fire in the modern garden apartment? p. 95 A.) 1 3/4-inch B.) 1 1/2-inch C.) 2 1/2-inch D.) 2 3/4-inch

A.) 1 3/4-inch

7. What size section of hose must be allotted for each floor when advancing up a stairway? p. 97 A.) 150-foot B.) 75-foot C.) 50-foot D.) 100-foot

C.) 50-foot

8. What should be done when the main body of the fire is knocked down? p. 93 A.) Point the stream at the floor B.) Shut down the stream C.) Vent the room with the stream D.) Close the door to the room

B.) Shut down the stream

9. Which guideline for safe and efficient stream operation is NOT correct? p. 92-93 A.) Use smooth-bore nozzles on 1 3/4- and 2 1/2-inch preconnected attack lines B.) Crack the nozzle to bleed air out of the hose line ahead of the water C.) Use an indirect attack to deliver water directly to the fire D.) Stay low when entering the fire area to allow heat and gases to vent before moving in

C.) Use an indirect attack to deliver water directly to the | fire

10. What size hose line should be used for the interior attack line with 50% involvement of a commercial space? p. 95 A.) 2 1/2-inch B.) 2-inch C.) 3 1/2-inch D.) 3-inch

A.) 2 1/2-inch

11. What does the first-arriving engine company generally use to advance the attack lines up to and above the fire? p. 97 A.) Stairways B.) Fire escapes C.) Elevators D.) Ladders

A.) Stairways

12. Which size hose is it recommended be eliminated from structural firefighting? p. 90 A.) 2-inch B.) 1 3/4-inch C.) 2 1/2-inch D.) 1 1/2-inch

D.) 1 1/2-inch

13. Which of the following has the greatest volume and reach and can flow 250 to 300 gpm? p. 91 A.) 2 1/2-inch solid stream B.) 2 1/2-inch fog stream C.) 1 3/4-inch fog stream D.) 1 3/4-inch solid stream

A.) 2 1/2-inch solid stream

14. What is the missing element for a smoldering fire? p. 98 A.) Reaction B.) Oxygen C.) Fuel D.) Heat

B.) Oxygen

15. Which statement is correct regarding the 1 1/8-inch and 1 1/4-inch smooth bore tips? p. 90 A.) These solid stream tips require twice the nozzle pressure of the 2 1/2-inch spray nozzle B.) These solid stream tips require three times the nozzle pressure of the 2 1/2-inch spray nozzle C.) These solid stream tips require only half the nozzle pressure of the 2 1/2-inch spray nozzle D.) These solid stream tips require only one third the nozzle pressure of the 2 1/2-inch spray nozzle

C.) These solid stream tips require only half the nozzle | pressure of the 2 1/2-inch spray nozzle

16. What is the most common type of fire encountered by responding fire fighters? p. 88 A.) Free-burning B.) Self-extinguishing C.) Incipient D.) Smoldering

A.) Free-burning

17. Which type of stream is NOT generally used to launch an indirect attack on the fire? p. 88 A.) Straight B.) Narrow fog C.) Wide fog D.) Solid

C.) Wide fog

18. Which type of attack is used in almost all offensive attack situations? p. 88 A.) Combination B.) Direct C.) Indirect D.) Exterior

B.) Direct

19. What is the sudden explosive ignition of fire gases when oxygen is introduced into a superheated space previously deprived of oxygen? p. 99 A.) Rollover B.) Flashdraft C.) Backdraft D.) Flashover

C.) Backdraft

20. Which spray nozzle is an adjustable-pattern spray nozzle in which the rated discharge is delivered at a designed nozzle pressure and nozzle setting? p. 92 A.) Basic B.) Constant pressure C.) Constant/select gallonage D.) Constant gallonage

A.) Basic

21. How many gpm will the 1 1/2-inch attack line with a spray nozzle output with the correct pressure? p. 90 A.) 80 to 200 B.) 60 to 125 C.) 150 to 375 D.) 100 to 350

B.) 60 to 125

22. Where should the fire be knocked down from before conducting any interior operations? p. 89 A.) Rooftop of the building B.) Inside the building C.) Outside the building D.) First occupied room

C.) Outside the building

23. Where should ventilation take place when encountering a smoldering fire? p. 99 A.) Windows of the building B.) High point on the building C.) Doorways of the building D.) Low point on the building

B.) High point on the building

24. What does the choice of initial attack lines and nozzles depend upon? p. 89 A.) Purpose of the attack B.) Level of crew training C.) Number of victims inside D.) Availability of water

A.) Purpose of the attack

25. What size attack line should be used on the areas above and below the fire area where fire has gained control of a good portion of the floor area? p. 96 A.) 1 3/4-inch B.) 2 1/2-inch C.) 2-inch D.) 1 1/2-inch

A.) 1 3/4-inch

26. How many fire fighters are needed to handle the 1 3/4-inch hose line? p. 90 A.) 4 B.) 2 C.) 3 D.) 1

D.) 1

27. Which type of fire attack is NOT a good choice for an occupied room? p. 88 A.) Exterior B.) Direct C.) Indirect D.) Combination

C.) Indirect

1. What size backup line should be used when two 1 3/4-inch attack lines are in place? p. 104 A.) 1 3/4-inch B.) 2-inch C.) 2 1/2-inch D.) 1 1/2-inch

C.) 2 1/2-inch

2. What is the minimum number of personnel that should be assigned as the rapid intervention crew? p. 109 A.) 6 B.) 8 C.) 4 D.) 2

C.) 4

3. Which statement is correct? p. 108 A.) The backup assignment should not be given to fire fighters from a neighboring district B.) The backup assignment should be given to the fire fighters with the least fire ground experience C.) The backup assignment should be given to the initial attack crew D.) The backup assignment should not be given to fire fighters who have been engaged in initial attack operations

D.) The backup assignment should not be given to fire fighters who have been engaged in initial attack operations

4. What should be done with the initial attack lines if the backup lines are needed? p. 107 A.) Remove them from the building B.) Shut them down C.) Connect them to the backup line D.) Increase the supply

B.) Shut them down

5. What can be used to perform extinguishment and overhaul operations when the backup lines have gained control of the fire? p. 107 A.) Replacement backup lines B.) Replacement attack lines C.) Initial attack lines D.) Backup lines

C.) Initial attack lines

6. Which statement about backup lines is correct? p. 104 A.) Backup lines should have lesser reach and deliver more water than initial attack lines B.) Backup lines should have greater reach and deliver more water than initial attack lines C.) Backup lines should have greater reach and deliver less water than initial attack lines D.) Backup lines should have lesser reach and deliver less water than initial attack lines

B.) Backup lines should have greater reach and deliver more

7. Who should be responsible for establishing the backups when a master stream appliance is needed? p. 109 A.) First arriving engine companies B.) Staging officers C.) Initial attack crews D.) Incoming engine companies

D.) Incoming engine companies

8. What are the engine company's first line of defense? p. 104 A.) Deluge systems B.) Sprinkler systems C.) Backup lines D.) Initial lines

C.) Backup lines

9. Up to how many gpm do most 2 1/2-inch spray nozzles deliver? p. 107 A.) 250 B.) 200 C.) 150 D.) 300

A.) 250

10. What size backup line should always be used when a 2 1/2-inch attack line is in place? p. 104 A.) 2 3/4-inch B.) 3 1/2-inch C.) 2 1/2-inch D.) 3-inch

C.) 2 1/2-inch

``` 1. What height should the hole be made when controlling vertical fire spread within a shaft? p. 123 A.) Waist B.) Head C.) Knee D.) Shoulder ```

A.) Waist

2. What can be used to prevent a large secondary fire when convection currents are present? p. 115-117 A.) Positive pressure ventilation B.) Wetting of all buildings C.) Police patrols of the area D.) Master stream applications

C.) Police patrols of the area

3. What is the only way to protect exposures from radiant heat? p. 117 A.) Knock down the fire in the original building B.) Perform a patrol of the area C.) Disrupt the radiation between the buildings D.) Cool the exposure with water

D.) Cool the exposure with water

4. Which size hose line is most desirable for interior exposure protection and can be used in most situations? p. 119 A.) 2 1/2-inch B.) 2-inch C.) 1-inch D.) 1 3/4-inch

D.) 1 3/4-inch

5. What is the key to full exposure protection? p. 114 A.) Adequate number of ladder apparatus B.) Adequate number of hose lines C.) Adequate number of fire fighters D.) Adequate number of company officers

C.) Adequate number of fire fighters

6. On which side of the fire should structures be covered first when protecting the exposure? p. 118 A.) Rearside B.) Windward C.) Topside D.) Leeward

D.) Leeward

7. Which of the following is considered a great asset in terms of controlling an exposure fire? p. 114-115 A.) Distance between buildings B.) Interior spray system C.) Outside sprinklers D.) Unpierced fire wall

D.) Unpierced fire wall

8. Where are vertical channels generally placed in commercial buildings and shopping centers? p. 121 A.) Center of the building B.) Top of the building C.) Rear of the building D.) Front of the building

C.) Rear of the building

9. Which of the following weather factors is considered the worst in terms of exposure fires? p. 115 A.) Hail B.) Rain C.) Wind D.) Heat

C.) Wind

10. Which fire location would be considered most dangerous for fire fighters and occupants within an apartment building? p. 125 A.) Top floor B.) Second floor C.) Basement D.) First floor

C.) Basement

11. Which factor affecting the severity of an exterior exposure problem does the firefighter have control over? p. 115 A.) Spacing between the fire and exposures B.) Intensity and size of the fire C.) Recent weather D.) Availability and combustibility of fuels

B.) Intensity and size of the fire

12. Which of the following is NOT something that should be done if it is suspected that fire is traveling in concealed spaces? p. 120 A.) Close up the space B.) Visually inspect the space C.) Ventilate the space D.) Direct water into the space

A.) Close up the space

13. Which side of the fire is considered most dangerous due to convected and radiant heat? p. 118 A.) Leeward B.) Rearside C.) Windward D.) Topside

A.) Leeward

14. Where should the fire fighter look to determine where the vertical shafts are located in a single-family dwelling? p. 121 A.) Rear wall B.) Rooftop C.) Interior rooms D.) Ground floor

B.) Rooftop

15. Which of the following provide a safer and more effective means of cooling and protecting an exposure? p. 118 A.) Master stream B.) 2 1/2-inch stream C.) 1 1/2-inch stream D.) 1 3/4-inch stream

A.) Master stream

16. What size hose line will be most useful when controlling fire within a vertical shaft? p. 122 A.) 1 3/4-inch B.) 1 1/8-inch C.) 1 1/2-inch D.) 1 1/4-inch

A.) 1 3/4-inch

17. Which of the following is NOT generally a sign of fire in an interior wall space? p. 122 A.) Blistering of paint B.) Hot to the touch C.) Discoloration of wall paper D.) Smoke along the ceiling

D.) Smoke along the ceiling

18. What is the minimum number of hose lines that should be directed up at the fire when controlling a fire in a vertical shaft? p. 123 A.) 2 B.) 3 C.) 1 D.) 4

C.) 1

19. What is exposure coverage second to on the fire ground? p. 114 A.) Fire attack B.) Rescue C.) Hose lay D.) Ventilation

B.) Rescue

20. Within what time period can roof collapse in a building with a bar joist roof? p. 124 A.) 25 minutes B.) 10 minutes C.) 15 minutes D.) 20 minutes

B.) 10 minutes

21. Which method of transfer can result in exposure fires when there are wood shingle rooftops? p. 115 A.) Condensation B.) Conduction C.) Convection D.) Radiation

C.) Convection

22. Which of the following floors is ventilation required when fighting a basement fire? p. 125 A.) Basement and attic space B.) Basement and all other floors C.) Basement and roof D.) Basement and first floor

D.) Basement and first floor

23. What are the most vulnerable areas of the exposure when the buildings are close together? p. 118 A.) Distant from the fire B.) Just below the fire C.) Just above the fire D.) Directly across from the fire

C.) Just above the fire

24. Where should offensive basement fire operations be conducted from? p. 124 A.) Exterior, unburned side of the building B.) Exterior, burned side of the building C.) Interior, burned side of the building D.) Interior, unburned side of the building

D.) Interior, unburned side of the building

25. Which is considered an additional benefit, but not a requirement when determining hose line placement for exposure protection? p. 118-119 A.) Protecting fire fighters from radiant heat B.) Keeping fire fighters outside of the collapse zone C.) Bearing on part of the fire closest to the exposure D.) Maximizing reach and effectiveness of the stream

C.) Bearing on part of the fire closest to the exposure

26. Where should vertical openings be opened in a basement fire to allow the heat, smoke and gases to leave the building? p. 127 A.) Basement level B.) Attic space C.) First floor D.) Roof level

D.) Roof level

27. Which location is it best to attack a basement fire in a residence with basement doors to the outside and windows along the rear side? p. 126 A.) Rear windows B.) Outside doors C.) Interior stairway D.) Through the flooring

B.) Outside doors

28. Near which room in an apartment building are vertical shafts generally found? p. 121 A.) Living room B.) Bathroom C.) Garage D.) Dining room

B.) Bathroom

1. Which tip can be used on the master stream appliance when there is not enough water volume to supply the common tip sizes? p. 134 A.) 1 1/2-inch B.) 1 3/8-inch C.) 1 3/4-inch D.) 1 1/4-inch

D.) 1 1/4-inch

2. Where is it best to position the elevated master stream appliance for fire fighter safety? p. 141 A.) At the corners of the building B.) In front of the building C.) Close to the building D.) In the rear of the building

A.) At the corners of the building

3. Which statement is correct? p. 134 A.) A master stream appliance is only as good as its location B.) A master stream appliance is only as good as its water supply C.) A master stream appliance is only as good as its hose line source D.) A master stream appliance is only as good as its operator

B.) A master stream appliance is only as good as its water | supply

4. In what direction should the master stream be moved to ensure it reaches the full depth of the fire area? p. 139 A.) Randomly B.) Vertically C.) Horizontally D.) Diagonally

B.) Vertically

5. When are master stream appliances primarily used? p. 132 A.) Overhaul operations B.) Defensive operations C.) Searching operations D.) Offensive operations

B.) Defensive operations

6. Where will the master stream appliance most often be located? p. 137 A.) Outside the building B.) On the rooftops C.) On the fire floor D.) Inside the front entrance

A.) Outside the building

7. What is the gpm range possible with an effective master stream appliance? p. 132 A.) 450 to 3,000 B.) 400 to 2,500 C.) 350 to 2,000 D.) 500 to 3,500

C.) 350 to 2,000

8. When using an elevated master stream appliance to protect an exposure, where should the stream be directed? p. 141 A.) On the ground B.) On the fire building C.) On the exposure D.) Between the buildings

C.) On the exposure

9. What should the properly positioned solid stream be deflected off of to ensure its effectiveness? p. 139 A.) Floor space B.) Ceiling C.) Contents D.) Walls

B.) Ceiling

10. Which may be superior when using a master stream appliance for exposure protection? p. 138 A.) Smooth-bore nozzle using a fog stream B.) Smooth-bore nozzle using a solid stream C.) Spray nozzle using a solid stream D.) Spray nozzle using a fog stream

D.) Spray nozzle using a fog stream

11. What is the minimum size external inlet that should be on the permanent waterway on the aerial ladder? p. 134 A.) 4 inches B.) 8 inches C.) 2 inches D.) 6 inches

A.) 4 inches

12. What size LDH is used by many fire departments with an adequate water supply source to further reduce friction loss? p. 136 A.) 3-inch B.) 6-inch C.) 4-inch D.) 5-inch

D.) 5-inch

13. Which nozzle must the permanently attached monitor be provided with? p. 134 A.) 2,000 gpm B.) 1,000 gpm C.) 1,500 gpm D.) 2,500 gpm

B.) 1,000 gpm

14. Which event would signal the need to shutdown the master stream appliance due to the fire being extinguished? p. 141 A.) White smoke is no longer visible B.) Visible fire is gone C.) Smoke has changed color D.) Steam is clearly visible

A.) White smoke is no longer visible

15. Which type of master stream appliance is often referred to as a deck gun or monitor? p. 132 A.) Deluge master stream appliances B.) Elevated master stream appliances C.) Portable appliances D.) Fixed appliances

C.) Portable appliances

16. What will happen to the straight stream of the master stream appliance if a great deal too much pressure is used? p. 137 A.) Turns into a poor fog stream B.) Turns into an effective fog stream C.) Has a much greater reach and penetration D.) Nothing happens if too much pressure is used

A.) Turns into a poor fog stream

17. Which would indicate to the officer that a master stream is not entering the building? p. 140 A.) Decrease in exterior heat B.) Heavy water runoff C.) Fire crackling sounds D.) Smoke coloration change

B.) Heavy water runoff

18. What is the suggested maximum length of hose line between the pumper and master stream appliance to help reduce friction loss? p. 137 A.) 100 feet B.) 200 feet C.) 150 feet D.) 250 feet

A.) 100 feet

19. What is the lowest angle the portable master stream appliance can be operated at before needing to manually release the locking mechanism? p. 132 A.) 65 degrees B.) 55 degrees C.) 35 degrees D.) 45 degrees

C.) 35 degrees

20. What should the pump pressure be when you are making a 100-foot lay with a 1 1/4-inch smooth-bore tip with a nozzle pressure of 80 psi and friction loss of 35 psi per 100 feet? p. 135 A.) 130 psi B.) 80 psi C.) 35 psi D.) 115 psi

D.) 115 psi

21. How many ways can a fixed master stream appliance be supplied with water? p. 133 A.) 2 B.) 1 C.) 3 D.) 4

A.) 2

22. At what pressure are spray nozzles designed to operate when used with a master stream appliance? p. 134 A.) 100 psi B.) 150 psi C.) 80 psi D.) 65 psi

A.) 100 psi

23. How many gpm at 100-psi nozzle pressure at full elevation and extension must the prepiped waterway for an aerial ladder be capable of delivering? p. 133-134 A.) 2,500 B.) 2,000 C.) 1,500 D.) 1,000

D.) 1,000

24. What size supply line would allow for the lowest pump pressure given all other factors remain fairly constant? p. 136 A.) 1-inch B.) 2-inch C.) 4-inch D.) 3-inch

C.) 4-inch

25. At what pressure are the most commonly used tips on the master stream appliance operated? p. 134 A.) 120 psi B.) 100 psi C.) 80 psi D.) 140 psi

C.) 80 psi

``` 1. When four pumpers with pressures of 45, 65, 85 and 100 psi are feeding a wet standpipe system and the first source fails, which would be the next source in line to supply the system? p. 150 A.) 100 psi B.) 65 psi C.) 45 psi D.) 85 psi ```

D.) 85 psi

2. What should be the minimum length of the first hose line taken into the fire building? p. 156 A.) 250 feet B.) 150 feet C.) 200 feet D.) 100 feet

B.) 150 feet

3. Aside from human error, what is the one deterrent to effective sprinkler system operation? p. 166 A.) Lack of ample heads B.) Improper installation C.) Inadequate water supply D.) Mechanical malfunction

C.) Inadequate water supply

4. What is the minimum area (square feet) that one sprinkler head will cover? p. 163 A.) 100 B.) 150 C.) 200 D.) 250

A.) 100

5. What is the classification of standpipe systems based upon? p. 146 A.) Hose connection size B.) Available hoses C.) Intended use D.) Building location

C.) Intended use

6. Which type of sprinkler system uses air exhausters to move water to the heads before they are activated? p. 164-165 A.) Wet-pipe B.) Preaction C.) Dry-pipe D.) Deluge

B.) Preaction

7. What residual pressure must be delivered per NFPA standards at the top-most hose connection on each standpipe for the class I and III systems? p. 148-149 A.) 75 psi B.) 150 psi C.) 50 psi D.) 100 psi

D.) 100 psi

8. Within what distance from the standpipe siamese is it best to locate the pumper? p. 154 A.) 100 feet B.) 150 feet C.) 250 feet D.) 200 feet

A.) 100 feet

9. What can feed the dry standpipe system? p. 148 A.) Occupancy water supply B.) Fire department pumpers C.) Exterior hose lines D.) Municipal water supply

B.) Fire department pumpers

10. How many outlets are available at each landing with the exterior dry standpipe system? p. 148 A.) 4 B.) 1 C.) 2 D.) 3

B.) 1

11. What is the first thing the engine company should do upon arrival at a fire in a sprinkler-protected building? p. 166 A.) Prepare to remove sprinkler heads B.) Hook up to the siamese connection C.) Turn off the water supply to the system D.) Advance the first attack line from the pumper

B.) Hook up to the siamese connection

12. Which type of standpipe system has piping that is filled with pressurized air? p. 147 A.) Semiautomatic wet B.) Automatic wet C.) Automatic dry D.) Semiautomatic dry

C.) Automatic dry

13. What size hose connections are provided with the Class II standpipe system? p. 147 A.) 2 1/2-inch B.) 1 1/2-inch C.) 2-inch D.) 1-inch

B.) 1 1/2-inch

14. Which location tends to have post-indicator valves for the cutoff valve of the standpipe system? p. 151 A.) Industrial properties B.) Apartments C.) Stores D.) Office buildings

A.) Industrial properties

15. What is the minimum size of the standpipe which makes its water-carrying capacity great? p. 154 A.) 5-inch B.) 4-inch C.) 6-inch D.) 7-inch

B.) 4-inch

16. Which size hand line can be used to perform fire attack from an adjoining building? p. 162 A.) 4-inch B.) 2-inch C.) 3-inch D.) 1-inch

D.) 1-inch

17. How many fire department intakes are available for each riser when the risers are separate? p. 150 A.) 3 B.) 2 C.) 1 D.) 4

C.) 1

18. Which class of standpipe system is used for fill-scale and first-aid firefighting? p. 147 A.) Class III B.) Class IV C.) Class I D.) Class II

A.) Class III

19. What is generally the maximum number of gallons in the pressure tank? p. 150 A.) 5,000 gallons B.) 9,000 gallons C.) 3,000 gallons D.) 7,000 gallons

C.) 3,000 gallons

20. Where is an exterior dry standpipe system usually located? p. 147 A.) Alongside the fire escape B.) Over the fence line C.) Through the building lobby D.) Underneath roofing materials

A.) Alongside the fire escape

21. Which is the most often used as the primary source of water for the standpipe system? p. 150 A.) Pressure pumps B.) Public waterworks C.) Fire service tanks D.) Gravity tanks

B.) Public waterworks

22. What should the fire fighters check while carrying their equipment up the stairs to ensure sufficient water pressure will be available? p. 155 A.) Riser connections are tight B.) Hose outlet valves are closed C.) Water pressure monitors are on D.) Hose lines are straightened

B.) Hose outlet valves are closed

23. Which floor would it be acceptable for the fire fighter to use an elevator for access when the fire is on the fifth floor? p. 159 A.) Fourth B.) Sixth C.) Fifth D.) Third

D.) Third

24. What is the minimum number of crew members assigned to a task at a building with a standpipe system? p. 157 A.) 5 B.) 3 C.) 4 D.) 2

D.) 2

25. What is the minimum number of outlets on each floor with an interior dry standpipe system? p. 147 A.) 3 B.) 1 C.) 2 D.) 4

B.) 1

1. What size attack lines can be used effectively during overhaul operations? p. 175 A.) 2 3/4-inch B.) 1 3/4-inch C.) 1-inch D.) 2-inch

B.) 1 3/4-inch

2. When should fire fighters check the fire area for clues to the ignition of the fire? p. 174 A.) During preinspection B.) During overhaul C.) During size-up D.) During suppression

B.) During overhaul

3. Which is the main purpose of overhaul operations? p. 172 A.) Ensure investigators will be able to locate evidence B.) Clean up any debris and remove water from the structure C.) Leave the structure in as safe a condition as possible D.) Make certain no trace of fire remains that could rekindle

D.) Make certain no trace of fire remains that could rekindle

4. How much of the protective ensemble should be worn during overhaul operations? p. 172 A.) Complete without SCBA B.) Regular street clothes C.) Complete with SCBA D.) Turnout pants and coat

C.) Complete with SCBA

5. What is the systematic examination of the aftermath of a fire scene to determine if there is a danger of resparking? p. 172 A.) Recon B.) Overhaul C.) Investigation D.) Knockdown

B.) Overhaul

6. Which parts of a shaft are fire fighters normally assigned to check for fire extension during overhaul operations? p. 177 A.) Top, bottom and middle B.) Top and bottom C.) Bottom and middle D.) Top and middle

B.) Top and bottom

7. What will the extent of the preinspection as well as the overhaul operations depend upon? p. 173 A.) Available personnel B.) Extent of the fire C.) Urgency of the event D.) Location of the fire

B.) Extent of the fire

8. What can be used to block off unsafe areas that are hazardous and off limits to the firefighter after knockdown has occurred? p. 172 A.) Rubble piles B.) Spotter C.) Surveillance team D.) Barrier tape

D.) Barrier tape

9. What must be done during overhaul operations to walls and ceilings that have been in contact with heat and fire? p. 176 A.) Open them up and wet them down B.) Leave them for the investigator C.) Wet them down only D.) Open them up only

A.) Open them up and wet them down

10. Where will any fire in ceiling spaces be guided? p. 176 A.) Wall spaces B.) Interior rooms C.) Rooftop D.) Structure exterior

A.) Wall spaces

11. Who must every person entering the fire building report to before entry? p. 175 A.) Sector officer B.) Company officer C.) Incident commander D.) Safety officer

A.) Sector officer

12. What may need to be removed until a clean area is found when fire has penetrated a ceiling space on the floor below and it is suspected that it has extended into the floor above? p. 177 A.) Members B.) Flooring C.) Walls D.) Ceiling

B.) Flooring

13. Which group is normally assigned the task of overhaul? p. 175 A.) Engine company B.) Draft company C.) Ladder company D.) Pumper company

C.) Ladder company

14. Which should be the last choice for overhaul operations? p. 174 A.) Personnel assigned to staging manned unused backup lines B.) Personnel engaged in firefighting operations C.) Personnel such as additional volunteers D.) Personnel arriving independently

B.) Personnel engaged in firefighting operations

15. Where do overhaul operations begin? p. 176 A.) Close to the area of greatest damage B.) Close to the area where firefighting operations ended C.) Close to the area where the fire is believed to have started D.) Close to the entrance to the fire building

B.) Close to the area where firefighting operations ended

16. What size enclosed space between the floor and the bottom shelf is normally found with kitchen cabinets found in a residence? p. 177-178 A.) 7- to 9-inch B.) 3- to 5-inch C.) 5- to 7-inch D.) 1- to 3-inch

B.) 3- to 5-inch

17. Which tool is generally preferred when pulling flooring during overhaul operations? p. 177 A.) Axes B.) Edging tool C.) Hydraulic tools D.) Power saws

D.) Power saws

18. Who is responsible for making sure unsafe areas are marked off during overhaul operations? p. 173 A.) Rehab officer B.) Command officer C.) Safety officer D.) Overhaul officer

C.) Safety officer

Attack hose is designed for use at operating pressures up to at least -

275psi

The standard hose of the fire service nationally is the -

2 1/2 Inch

What is the friction loss in a 2 1/2 inch hoseline per 100 feet, pumping at 350 gpm?

25 psi

A 5 inch supply line is capable of flowing -

1400 GPM

A typical 1 3/4 inch attack line equipped with a spray nozzle or smooth-bore nozzle will deliver -

120 to 200 GPM

A 2 1/2 inch attack line equipped with a fog nozzle is capable of delivering at least -

250 GPM

A 2 1/2 inch attack line equipped with a solid stream nozzle is capable of delivering up to -

300 GPM

Engine Company Fireground Operations Flashcards

(353 cards)