ENGINEERING TEST

Question 1

You lose all electrical power in flight but are able to restore one AC generator. After you restore the generator some of the DC equipment is not working. What is the problem?

The inverter is not working.
The AC generators are producing insufficient power.
Transformer rectifier is not working.
The AC generator frequency is not correct.

Answer 1

Transformer rectifier is not working.
Correct
In this case, you would want to verify the function of the transformer rectifiers. The generator produces AC power and cannot power DC components directly. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Electrical System.

Question 2

From front to back, which is the proper order for the following engine components in a modern turbofan aircraft engine?

Diffuser, compressor, combustion, exhaust, turbine.
Compressor, diffuser, combustion, turbine and exhaust.
Combustion, diffuser, compressor, turbine, exhaust.
Turbine, compressor, exhaust, diffuser, combustion.

Answer 2

Compressor, diffuser, combustion, turbine and exhaust.
Correct
The turbine engine process is as follows: Compression, diffusion into the combustion section, combustion, then exhaust across the turbine to continue the process. Energy not used to move the turbine is used as thrust. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Transitioning to Jet Powered Airplanes.

Question 3

What are slats?

At low AOA they move forward to allow for the aircraft to be slowed more effectively by adding drag.
They improve roll control by increasing the available surface area of the wing.
They deploy from the top of the wing to dump lift and add drag.
At high AOA they move forward creating opening that allows air to flow over upper surfaces delaying airflow separation.

Answer 3

At high AOA they move forward creating opening that allows air to flow over upper surfaces delaying airflow separation.
Correct
Slats are high lift devices that increase wing camber, allowing for flight at higher angles of attack. When they move forward, they also open a slot that allows for free stream air to energize the boundary layer. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Flight Controls.

Question 4

What are the actions if you encounter a compressor stall at a high altitude?

Increase thrust.
Reduce altitude.
Reduce thrust.
Increase altitude

Answer 4

Reduce thrust.
Correct
Engine, or compressor, stalls occur predominantly at low airspeed due to a disruption of airflow across the fan face. Reducing thrust will help clear the stalled condition. Reference: Aerodynamics For Naval Aviators, Turbojet Operating Limitations

Question 5

How many volts is a modern aircraft DC electrical system?

24.
28.
40.
18.

Answer 5

28.
Correct
Aircraft DC power systems are typically rated for 28 volts. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Electrical System.

Question 6

What is the loudest part of a jet engine?

Exhaust.
Compressor.
Inlet.
Turbine.

Answer 6

Exhaust.
Correct
The passage of exhaust gases creates most of the noise associated with jet engines. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Transition to Jet Powered Airplanes.

Question 7

With a high angle of attack, what is the most (relatively) effective flight control?

Ailerons.
Rudder.
Elevator.
Trim tabs.

Answer 7

Rudder.
Correct
By virtue of its size, the rudder is very effective even at high angles of attack and low airspeed. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Flight Controls.

Question 8

What would you do if you had fluctuating N1, N2 and EGT along with a thumping sound from the engine?

Lower AOA.
Increase AOA.
Reduce altitude.
Increase altitude.

Answer 8

Lower AOA.
Correct
Engine speed fluctuations and thumping noises are indicative of a compressor stall. Lower AOA and reducing thrust should reestablish airflow across the fan face. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Systems.

Question 9

What limits turbine engines from developing compressor stalls?

Handling valves.
Turbine inlet guide vanes.
Variable turbine stators.
Compressor bleed valves.

Answer 9

Compressor bleed valves.
Correct
Compressor bleed valves are installed to “spill” excess air away from the compressor. Excess air in the compressor, especially at low speeds, can cause a compressor stall. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Systems.

Question 10

What is the theory behind using hydraulic fluid to control flight controls?

Due to its incompressibility it transfers power immediately to flight controls located away from the pump.
Hydraulic fluid is less likely than gas to combust in high-temperature applications.
Due to its compressibility, hydraulic fluid transfers power immediately to the flight controls located away from the pump.
Hydraulic fluid lubricates the flight control junction points.

Answer 10

Due to its incompressibility it transfers power immediately to flight controls located away from the pump.
Correct
Since fluid is not compressible, the pressure of the fluid can be transferred directly to the actuator for the flight control surface. A gas is compressible, making the use of gas undependable for high pressure surface movement applications. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Systems

Question 11

With a Pt2 probe iced over, what indications will you get?

A falsely high EPR.
A falsely low EPR.
EPR will read zero
EPR will be unaffected. Only N1 will read lower than normal.

Answer 11

A falsely high EPR.

Question 12

Heavy aircraft often have leading edge flaps that are used in conjunction with the trailing edge flaps. Their use with:

Spoilers can greatly decrease wing camber and lift. When stowed, leading edge flaps extend over the leading edge of the wing.
Slats can greatly increase wing camber and lift. When extended, leading edge flaps retract into the leading edge of the wing.
Trailing edge flaps can greatly increase wing camber and lift. When stowed, leading edge flaps retract into the leading edge of the wing.
Speed brakes can greatly decrease wing camber and lift. When stowed leading edge flaps retract into the leading edge of the wing.

Answer 12

Trailing edge flaps can greatly increase wing camber and lift. When stowed, leading edge flaps retract into the leading edge of the wing.
Correct
Leading edge flaps, also known as Krueger flaps, can be combined with flaps to increase wing camber and lift. When not in use, they retract into the underside of the leading edge of the wing. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, High Lift Devices.

Question 13

What instrument is primary for pitch in straight and level flight?

Attitude indicator.
Airspeed indicator.
VSI.
Altimeter.

Answer 13

Altimeter.

PRIMARY FOR BANK IS HEADING INDICATOR
PRIMARY FOR POWER IS AIRSPEED INDICATOR

Question 14

What does an inverter do?

Converts AC to DC.
Converts DC to AC.
Converts fixed frequency AC to constant frequency AC.
Converts fixed frequency DC to constant frequency DC

Answer 14

Converts DC to AC.
Correct
Inverters are solid state electrical components that convert DC power to fixed frequency AC power. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Electrical System

Question 15

What is the purpose of the APU?

To provide only supplemental bleed air for pressurization at high altitudes.
To provide adequate engine power at high angles of attack.
To provide an emergency source of electricity only.
Provide a source of electrical power when engines are not running or when aircraft isn’t on external power.

Answer 15

Provide a source of electrical power when engines are not running or when aircraft isn’t on external power.
Correct
The APU supplies electrical power to the aircraft when the engines are not running or in the absence of ground power. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Construction.

Question 16

Fill in the blanks: Fowler flaps not only _____ the trailing edge of the wing when deployed but also slide _____, effectively _____ the area of the wing.

Raise; forward; decreasing.
Lower; laterally; increasing.
Lower; aft; increasing.
Lower; forward; decreasing.

Answer 16

Lower; aft; increasing.
Correct
Fowler flaps move aft and downward, increasing wing area and camber to increase lift. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, High Lift Devices.

Question 17

The turbine ignition system:

Needs to be timed to spark during an exact point in the operational cycle.
Does not need to be timed to spark during an exact point in the operational cycle.
Needs to turn on during an exact point in the operational cycle.
Does not need to turn on during an exact point in the operational cycle.

Answer 17

Does not need to be timed to spark during an exact point in the operational cycle.

Correct
The ignition of fuel in the combustion section of a turbine engine is self-sustaining once the process is initiated. Ignitors are only need at engine start. This is simpler than reciprocating engines, which need ignition at timed properly at during each engine rotational cycle. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 1), Aircraft Engines.

Question 18

You are starting a jet engine and a ground person tells you there is fire shooting out of the tailpipe. What would you do?

Cut the fuel and stop the starter.
Cut the fuel and keep motoring the engine.
Continue with the start. This is a normal part of the process.
Continue the start for 30 seconds and see if the fire goes out.

Answer 18

Cut the fuel and keep motoring the engine.
Correct
You would cut the fuel but continue to motor the engine, thereby continuing airflow through the engine to prevent the fire from spreading forward and also helping to remove unburned fuel from the combustion chamber. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 2), Engine Fire Protection Systems.

Question 19

How long should donning a quick don mask take?

10 seconds.
3 seconds.
1 second.
5 seconds.

Answer 19

5 seconds.
Correct
A quick donning oxygen mask must be able to be put on in 5 seconds. Reference: FAR 91.211.Quick-don mask. These masks must demonstrate the ability to be donned
with one hand in 5 seconds or less, while accommodating prescription glasses. Quick-don masks are typically suspended or stored to permit quick and unimpeded access by cockpit crew. These masks are typically rated to altitudes up to 40,000 feet.

Question 20

You get smoke in the cabin, and you fix the problem. How do you get rid of the smoke?

Decrease cabin pressure differential.
Increase cabin pressure differential.
Keep the cabin pressure differential the same.
Take no action. Smoke will eventually leave via the outflow valve.
Correct

Answer 20

Decrease cabin pressure differential.
By decreasing cabin altitude, you open the outflow valve. This will remove smoke and fumes. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Emergency Procedures.

Question 21

You are at FL350 in IMC when you experience an electrical failure of your pitot heating system. What do you expect upon descent thru icing?

Airspeed indicator to act like an altimeter.
Airspeed indicator will be frozen.
Airspeed indicator will be at zero.
Airspeed indicator will act opposite of the altimeter.

Answer 21

Airspeed indicator to act like an altimeter.
Correct
In this case, since the pitot tube and it’s associated drain hole ice up, the airspeed indicator acts as a kind of altimeter. As ambient pressure increases as you descend, the additional static pressure within the airspeed indicator pushes back against the lesser ambient pressure from the now blocked drain hole. This results in a decrease in airspeed as you descend. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Flight Instruments.

Question 22

The basic elements of the accessory section of a turbofan engine are:

The accessory case, which has machined mounting pads for the engine driven accessories, and the gear train, which is housed within the accessory case.
The accessory gearbox, which has machined mounting pads for the engine-driven accessories, and the gear train, which is housed on the accessory case.
The engine starter, auxiliary power unit, oil pump and filter, and the gear train, which is housed within the accessory case.
The engine starter, auxiliary power unit, oil pump and filter, and the gear train, which is housed on the accessory case.

Answer 22

The accessory case, which has machined mounting pads for the engine driven accessories, and the gear train, which is housed within the accessory case.
Correct
The accessory drive train provides the rotational force required to power engine driven components such as the fuel pump, oil pump, generator and hydraulic pump. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 1), Aircraft Engines.

Question 23

You are at FL350 and lose your pitot static and the airspeed readout drops to zero. What would you do?

Fly a known fuel flow and bank angle.
Enter a shallow descent at idle power.
Apply full power until the onset of the high-speed buffet.
Fly known AOA and power settings.

Answer 23

Fly known AOA and power settings.
Correct
Unreliable airspeeds cause the pilots to have to revert to flying known AOAs (pitch attitudes) and power settings. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Flight Instruments.

Question 24

What type of anti-ice systems do most commercial jets use?

Electrical anti-ice for wings, inlets, probes, ports, windshields, and sensors.
Pneumatic anti-Ice for engine inlets and wings, electrical anti-ice for probes, ports, windshields, and sensors.
Pneumatic boots for engine inlets and wings, electrical anti-ice for probes, ports, windshields, and sensors.
Pneumatic device for all surfaces, probes, ports, windshields and sensors.

Answer 24

Pneumatic anti-Ice for engine inlets and wings, electrical anti-ice for probes, ports, windshields, and sensors.
Correct
Pneumatic anti-ice is used by most jet aircraft to prevent ice formation on critical flight control surfaces. Probes, ports, sensors and windshields are heated electrically. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Systems.

Question 25

During engine start, rising EGT and a slower than normal RPM increase is a sign of what? Hung start. No light start. Hot start. Failed compressor start.

Answer 25

Hot start.

Question 26

What is trim? Provides feedback on the yoke to prevent over control. Moves in the opposite direction of the primary control to relieve control pressure. Provides a tab by which the flight control is easier to move. Allows bleed air to enter the engine anti-ice actuator.

Answer 26

Moves in the opposite direction of the primary control to relieve control pressure. Correct Trim tabs move in the opposite direction of the control surface, in essence flying the trailing edge into the correct position for a given airspeed. They are used primarily to relieve control forces. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Flight Controls.

Question 27

In an AC electrical system what device converts AC to DC? Inverter. Generator. Transformer rectifier. Constant speed drive.

Answer 27

Transformer rectifier. Correct A transformer rectifier is a two-part process component. The transformer “steps down” the voltage (usually 28 VDC) and the rectifier turns the alternating current to direct current. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Electrical System.

Question 28

On climb out there in no pressure differential. What is the problem? This is a normal operation. Pressure vessel leak. The engines aren't producing adequate thrust. The gauges are all faulty.

Answer 28

Pressure vessel leak. Correct If there is no pressure differential between the cabin and the ambient air, then a pressure leak likely exists. Reference: Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Cabin Environmental Control Systems.

Question 29

What is the purpose of the flaps? Permits flight at lower AOAs and higher airspeeds. Provides only drag without increasing lift. Permit steep angle of descent without an increase in airspeed. Allows for increased roll control at slow speed.

Answer 29

Permit steep angle of descent without an increase in airspeed. Correct Flaps increase the wing camber and chord and add drag, allowing for steeper approaches at slower airspeeds. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Flight Controls

Question 30

What instrument would not be affected by a pitot static failure? Altimeter. Airspeed. Attitude indicator. VSI.

Answer 30

Attitude indicator. Correct Pitot static instruments include the altimeter, VSI and airspeed indicator. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Flight Instruments.

Question 31

What shows up better on weather radar: snow, hail, sleet or rain? Wet hail. Hail is usually covered with a film of water and therefore acts as a huge water droplet giving the strongest of all echoes. Dry hail. Ice is a highly reflective surface for weather radar. Rain is the most reflective precipitation type for radar. Sleet and snow are the most reflective, since they are frozen.

Answer 31

Wet hail. Hail is usually covered with a film of water and therefore acts as a huge water droplet giving the strongest of all echoes. Correct Wet hail is the most reflective precipitation that weather radar can depict. Reference: Airborne Weather Radar Limitations, National Weather Service.

Question 32

# Define specific fuel consumption. Fuel flow in gallons for a given airspeed. Fuel flow in pounds for a given airspeed. Fuel flow at a given cruise altitude. Fuel flow in lbs. per hour at a given power setting.

Answer 32

Fuel flow in lbs. per hour at a given power setting. Correct Specific fuel consumption is the amount of fuel burned per hour per unit of thrust (lbs of fuel per hour/pounds of thrust). Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, Turbojet Operating Characteristics is the fuel efficiency of an engine design with respect to thrust output. TSFC may also be thought of as fuel consumption

Question 33

Where is the greatest air velocity found in a turbine engine? N1 compressor. N2 Compressor. Exhaust.

Answer 33

Exhaust. Correct The highest air velocities, and thus the highest energy, is found in the inter-turbine guide vane section of the engine. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 1), Aircraft Engines

Question 34

Why do we use EGT to determine engine performance? EGT is a direct measurement of the power being produced by the engine EGT is a direct measure of the amount of fuel being used. EGT is the only way to measure the performance of a turbine engine. The limiting factor of a gas turbine engine section is the turbine section.

Answer 34

The limiting factor of a gas turbine engine section is the turbine section. Correct The most limiting factor of a gas turbine engine is the temperature of the turbine section, which is indirectly measured by the temperature of the exhaust gases leaving the turbine through the exhaust. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Systems.

Question 35

What is the correct sequence for starting turbine engines? Fuel, ignition, air. Air, Ignition, Fuel. Ignition, fuel, air. Combustion, intake, compression.

Answer 35

Air, Ignition, Fuel. Correct First, adequate airflow must exist. Second, ignition must be provided. Third, fuel is provided to the combustion chamber via the fuel nozzles. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Transition to Jet Powered Airplanes.

Question 36

What is the compressibility of gas versus liquid? Gas is compressible. Liquid is compressible. Neither gas nor liquid are compressible. Both gas and liquid are compressible.

Answer 36

Gas is compressible. Correct Physics states that gasses are compressible, where fluids are not. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Systems.

Question 37

When are compressor stalls most likely? High angle of attack. Low angles of attack. High airspeeds. In cruise.

Answer 37

High angle of attack. Correct At higher angles of attack, the airflow into the compressor inlet is more likely to be disturbed. It is this disruption that leads to compressor stall. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, Turbojet Operating Limitations.

Question 38

What is the best performance for a turbine engine? High RPM. Low RPM. At a moderate RPM. At low altitude and low airspeed.

Answer 38

High RPM. Correct Jet engines operate most efficiently at high RPM, which allows for the maximum inlet pressure. Reference: Aerodynamics For Naval Aviators, Turbojet Operating Characteristics.

Question 39

An enhanced version of the fowler flap: Contains an aerodynamic surface that separates from the wing to increase the angle of attack Contains an aerodynamic surface that is triple-slotted. Consists of a forward, middle and aft panel that when deployed, slides each the aft panel rearward on tracks as it lowers. Consists of a forward, middle and aft panel that when deployed, slides each the aft panel forward on tracks as it raises.

Answer 39

Contains an aerodynamic surface that is triple-slotted. Correct Enhanced fowler flaps include triple slots in between individual surfaces. This allows the boundary layer at the aft portion of the wing to be energized, increasing lift. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, High Lift Devices.

Question 40

An enhanced version of the fowler flap: Has sections that combine and leave an open slot between the wing and the fore flap, as well as aft of each of the flap sections. Has sections that raise and leave an continuous slot below the wing and the fore flap, as well as between each of the flap sections. Has sections that separate and leave an open slot between the wing and the fore flap, as well as between each of the flap sections. Has a section that separates to leave an open slot above the wing and the fore flap, as well as below each of the flap sections.

Answer 40

Has sections that separate and leave an open slot between the wing and the fore flap, as well as between each of the flap sections. Correct Enhanced fowler flaps include triple slots in between individual surfaces. This allows the boundary layer at the aft portion of the wing to be energized, increasing lift. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, High Lift Devices.

Question 41

What is GPS and how does it work? Uses 32 satellites of which 5 are observable. Uses a global series of highly accurate ground stations that the aircraft is always in range of. Uses internal strap down gyros that measure acceleration and begin from a known point. Uses a highly accurate signal in the ULF bandwidth to navigate from point to point.

Answer 41

Uses 32 satellites of which 5 are observable. Correct GPS is a satellite based navigation system that uses a constellation of 32 satellites to triangulate aircraft position. The system is designed so that no less than five satellites are observable at any one time. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Navigation.

Question 42

During flight you lose your EPR gauge. What would you do? Cross check with fuel flow. Cross check with inlet pressure. Cross check with RPM. Cross check with oil pressure.

Answer 42

Cross check with RPM.

Question 43

Normally, the turbine ignition system: Is used to turn the turbine fan, ignites the fuel in the combustion section and is then switched off. Is used to turn the turbine fan, ignites the fuel in the combustion section and is then switched to continuous. Is used to ignite the fuel in the combustor and then it is switched off. Is used to ignite the fuel in the combustor and then it is switched to continuous.

Answer 43

Is used to ignite the fuel in the combustor and then it is switched off. Correct The ignition of fuel in the combustion section of a turbine engine is self-sustaining once the process is initiated. Ignitors are only need at engine start. This is simpler than reciprocating engines, which need ignition at timed properly at during each engine rotational cycle. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 1), Engine Ignition and Electrical Systems.

Question 44

You make an emergency descent to 9,000 feet. When you level off, your cabin altitude reads 9,000 feet, your differential pressure is 0 and rate of climb is 0. Does your problem still exist? Yes. No. It depends on engine thrust. If the flux valve is opened, then no.

Answer 44

Yes. Correct A problem still exists because the aircraft is depressurized. You know this because there is zero differential and the cabin is at the same altitude as the aircraft. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Cabin Environmental Control Systems.

Question 45

What types of electricity do most large aircraft generate from engine driven generation systems? AC. DC. Variable frequency AC. Variable frequency DC.

Answer 45

AC. Correct Large aircraft typically generate AC power from generators. These are called constant speed drives or integrated drive generators. Through gearing, they spin at a constant speed to produce 400hz power. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Electrical System.

Question 46

On a cold day you are climbing out but not as well as expected. Why? EPR gauge is not reading correctly. Cross check with RPM to ensure correct climb thrust is set. The EPR gauge is correct, but you have probably not computed the takeoff thrust correctly. There is some drag due to ice on the wings. The cargo weight is heavier than anticipated.

Answer 46

EPR gauge is not reading correctly. Cross check with RPM to ensure correct climb thrust is set. Correct An EPR probe could be iced up. Cross check with N1 for accurate indications of engine speed and increase thrust accordingly. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Systems.

Question 47

What is TCAS? Terrain Collision Alert System. Traffic Collision Avoidance System. Traffic Control Alert System. Terrain Controlled Airport Surveillance.

Answer 47

Traffic Collision Avoidance System. Correct CAS is the Traffic Collision Avoidance System, and provides vertical collision avoidance guidance when another aircraft intrudes into the protection envelope. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Glossary.

Question 48

What effect does ice in the pitot system have on aircraft instruments? Unreliable attitude indications. Unreliable heading indications. Flight control malfunctions. Unreliable airspeed indications.

Answer 48

Unreliable airspeed indications. Correct Ice on the pitot system components would result in unreliable airspeed indications. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, Flight Instruments.

Question 49

How many gallons does it take to get 3,000 lbs. of Jet A? 500 gallons. 450 gallons. 400 gallons. 1,000 gallons.

Answer 49

450 gallons. Correct Jet A weighs approximately 6.7 lbs/gal. Reference: FAA Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook, Weighing the Aircraft and Determining Empty Weight Center of Gravity.

Question 50

What flight control does not aid in the creation of lift? Flaps. Slats. Leading edge flaps. Spoilers/Speed Breaks.

Answer 50

Spoilers/Speed Breaks. Correct Spoilers deploy from the top of the wing to disrupt airflow and reduce lift. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Flight Controls.

Question 51

How do you tell the loads on the electrical bus? Check the load meter. Check the circuit breakers. Look at the generator output. Check the battery discharge rate.

Answer 51

Check the load meter. Correct Load meters will tell you to amperage load on a bus, usually in a fraction of the maximum load. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Electrical System.

Question 52

What can hot compressor air be used for? Energizing the boundary layer. Wing/engine anti-ice. Probe anti-icing. Pitch control.

Answer 52

Wing/engine anti-ice. Correct Wing and engine anti-ice uses hot compressor bleed air to heat the leading edge surfaces. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Transitioning to Jet-Powered Aircraft.

Question 53

For aircraft certification, what height must an aircraft be at the end of the runway with an engine failure at V1? 35 feet. 50 feet. 25 feet. 100 feet.

Answer 53

35 feet. Correct The first segment of climb FAR requirements requires that the aircraft be able to cross the departure end of the runway at 35 feet AGL. Reference: FAA Pilot Guide to Takeoff Safety.

Question 54

On climb, both differential and cabin altitude are rising. The cabin is climbing at 500 fpm, while the aircraft is climbing at 2000 feet per minute. Is this normal operation? The aircraft is unpressurized. The aircraft has experienced a rapid depressurization. Normal Operation. The aircraft is pressurizing, but abnormally slow.

Answer 54

Normal Operation. Correct This is a normal situation. The cabin cannot be maintained at ground level, due to the differential pressure limits on the fuselage structure. Pressurization maintains a higher than ambient cabin pressure, but not sea level at all altitudes. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Cabin Environmental Control Systems.

Question 55

You start losing cabin pressure, and you fix the problem. How do you determine if the cabin is re-pressurizing? Cabin pressure differential is decreasing. Cabin pressure differential becomes zero. Cabin pressure differential is increasing. Cabin pressure differential increases, then decreases.

Answer 55

Cabin pressure differential is increasing. Correct Cabin pressurization works by increasing the pressure within the fuselage when compared the ambient conditions. If you note an increase in differential, the cabin is pressurizing. Reference: AMT Handbook Airframe (Vol 2), Cabin Environmental Control Systems

Question 56

What is the antiservo tab? Provides a tab by which the flight control is easier to move. Trims the flight control for a particular airspeed. Allows bleed air to enter the engine anti-ice actuator. Provides feedback on the yoke to prevent over control.

Answer 56

Provides feedback on the yoke to prevent over control. Correct An antiservo tab moves in the same direction, but to a greater degree, as the control surface. This makes moving the surface more difficult, adding control feel and making over control less likely. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Flight Controls.

Question 57

Why is fuel taken from the center tank first? Fuselage weight. Wing loading. Center of gravity improvements. Lower stall speed.

Answer 57

Wing loading. Correct Fuel is taken from the center tank first to reduce the rotational force produces by lift on the wings. If the fuel was used from the wing first, the very light wing compared to the heavy fuselage could create rotational forces that exceed design limits. This is also the theory behind zero fuel weight: That limitation does not protect against an overweight condition of the fuselage, but an underweight condition of the wings. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Fuel Systems.

Question 58

The FA reports smoke in the cabin. What is your first step? Remove power to the cabin. Remove electrical power from the aircraft. Put your oxygen mask on. Verify the smoke with the detection systems.

Answer 58

Put your oxygen mask on. Correct Smoke and fumes are extremely dangerous and can render a crew incapacitated very rapidly. Putting on the oxygen mask with 100% flow is critical to maintaining awareness. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Emergency Procedures

Question 59

You are on a 727 with three fuel tanks. The number one and three tanks have two dump pumps on each and the number two tank has four dump pumps. Each pump dumps at the same rate of 300 pounds per minute. There is 11,000 pounds of fuel in each tank. Number two tank must be 2,000 pounds or higher than the number one and three tanks. The number one and three tanks are burning 4,500 pounds per hour. The number two engine has failed. Which fuel tank would finish dumping all of it’s fuel first? The number one tank. The number three tank. They will empty at the same time. The number two tank.

Answer 59

The number two tank Correct The rate of dump from the center tank is equal to 300 lbs/min x 4 pumps, which is 1200 lbs/min. That means the fuel would be drained from the center tank in slightly more than 9 minutes. The combined dump/burn rate from the wing tanks is only 675 lbs/min. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Fuel System.

Question 60

What do vortex generators do? Increase the ability of the aircraft to fly steeper approaches at slower speeds. Dump lift off of the wing after landing or when a faster descent rate is needed. Prevents shock-induced separation as the wing approach critical Mach. Increases the efficiency of the wing at high altitude.

Answer 60

Prevents shock-induced separation as the wing approach critical Mach. Correct Vortex generators prevent shock-induced separation of the boundary layer by directing high energy air. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, Configuration Effects – Transonic and Supersonic Flight.

Question 61

Where does a fire extinguisher discharge on a jet engine? Into the combustion chamber. Into the combustion chamber and compressor. Into the inlet and exhaust. Between the engine and the shroud.

Answer 61

Between the engine and the shroud. Correct Fire extinguisher halon bottles are discharged between the engine shroud and the actual engine itself. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 2) – Engine Fire Protection Systems.

Question 62

What part of a jet engine does bleed air come from? Turbine section. Compressor section. Fan bypass. Exhaust.

Answer 62

Compressor section. Correct Bleed air is taken from the compressor section of a jet engine. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Systems.

Question 63

Since turbine ignition systems are operated mostly for a brief period during the engine-starting cycle, they are: As a rule, more trouble-free than the typical reciprocating engine ignition system. As a rule, less trouble-free than the typical reciprocating engine ignition system. As a rule, more typical of a reciprocating engine ignition system design. As a rule, more typical of a diesel engine ignition system design.

Answer 63

As a rule, more trouble-free than the typical reciprocating engine ignition system. Correct The ignition of fuel in the combustion section of a turbine engine is self-sustaining once the process is initiated. Ignitors are only need at engine start. This is simpler than reciprocating engines, which need ignition at timed properly at during each engine rotational cycle. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 1), Engine Ignition and Electrical Systems.

Question 64

Is cabin pressure differential pressure is equal to zero, cabin rate of climb is equal to zero, cabin altitude is equal to zero and aircraft is at sea level. What is this telling you? The aircraft is unpressurized at cruise. Aircraft is on the ground. The bleeds are not on. This is a normal in flight configuration.

Answer 64

Aircraft is on the ground. Correct In this case, the aircraft is on the ground since there is no differential and the cabin altitude and aircraft altitude are equal. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Cabin Environmental Control Systems.

Question 65

What are fixed slots? Direct airflow to the upper wing surface and delay airflow separation at higher angles of attack. Directs airflow downward to increase lift at high angles of attack. Allows air to enter the air conditioning packs. Directs air across the ailerons to increase roll control at slow speed.

Answer 65

Direct airflow to the upper wing surface and delay airflow separation at higher angles of attack. Correct Fixed slots are found in the leading edge of some wings. They act to allow the free stream to bypass the leading edge and energize the boundary layer at high angles of attack. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, High Lift Devices.

Question 66

You encounter smoke in the cabin. What do you do? Lower the cabin to increase pressure, snuffing out any possible fire. Immediately remove all electrical power from the aircraft. Ensure the pressurization is functioning and increase airflow. Raise the cabin elevation to vent, differential pressure decreases.

Answer 66

Raise the cabin elevation to vent, differential pressure decreases. Correct By raising the cabin altitude, you are letting air out of the cabin. This will remove smoke and fumes. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Emergency Procedures

Question 67

What is the purpose of spoilers? To aid roll control by directing high energy air across the ailerons. They are used to energize the boundary layer and lower the angle of attack. Disrupt airflow over the top of the wing. They allow for steeper approaches in high lift configurations.

Answer 67

Disrupt airflow over the top of the wing. Correct Spoilers deploy from the top of the wing to disrupt airflow and reduce lift. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Flight Controls

Question 68

What is the general idea of dealing with an electrical fire? Increase electrical power to identify the source. Isolate the source. Reduce power to a lower voltage to mitigate the fire. Take no action other than land immediately.

Answer 68

Isolate the source. Correct Emergency checklists are designed to help the crew to isolate the source of an electrical fire, often by rendering the electrical system to a condition where only essential items are powered. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Emergency Procedures.

Question 69

What happens when you pull the fire handle? Cuts off the electricity to the engine. Cuts of fuel to the entire wing. Shuts off the fuel tank from the remainder of the aircraft. Cuts off fuel by closing the firewall fuel shutoff valve.

Answer 69

Cuts off fuel by closing the firewall fuel shutoff valve.

Question 70

A crew member must breathe oxygen above how many feet? Above 25,000 feet all the time. You cannot fly above 41,000 feet without a pressure suit. Above 25,000 feet when one pilot leaves their station and one at all times when operating above 41,000 feet. Above 24,000 feet when one pilot leaves their station and one at all times when operating above 41,000 feet. Anytime smoke is present. Otherwise, supplemental oxygen is not required.

Answer 70

Above 25,000 feet when one pilot leaves their station and one at all times when operating above 41,000 feet Correct If only one pilot is at his flight crew station above FL250, he/she must use supplemental oxygen. Above FL 410, one crew member must be on supplemental oxygen at all times. Reference: FAR 121.333.

Question 71

Your accessory drive gear train has sheared and will likely cause a large delay. What is the primary function of the accessory section of a turbine engine? It provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for operation and control of the engine. It provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for operation and control of the aircraft air intake section. It provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for operation and control of the aircraft compressor section. It provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for operation and control of the aircraft turbine section.

Answer 71

It provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for operation and control of the engine. Correct The accessory drive train provides the rotational force required to power engine driven components such as the fuel pump, oil pump, generator and hydraulic pump. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 1), Aircraft Engines

Question 72

When do engine stalls usually occur? High speed. High altitude. Low altitude. Low Speed.

Answer 72

Low Speed. Correct Engine, or compressor, stalls occur predominantly at low airspeed due to a disruption of airflow across the fan face. Reducing thrust will help clear the stalled condition. Reference: Aerodynamics For Naval Aviators, Turbojet Operating Limitations.

Question 73

What is the advantage of an axial flow compressor? High compression ratio. High bypass ratio. Low compression. High speed.

Answer 73

High compression ratio. Correct Axial flow compressors have a very high compression ratio by the virtue of that they have multiple stages of compression. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Transitioning to Jet Powered Airplanes.

Question 74

A turbine engine usually has an accessory section gear train driven by: The engine low-pressure fan turbine through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling. The engine high-pressure fan turbine through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling. The engine low-pressure compressor through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling. The engine high-pressure compressor through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling.

Answer 74

The engine high-pressure compressor through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling. Correct The accessory drive gear train is driven by the high-pressure compressor, due to its high rotational energy and relatively constant speed. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 1), Aircraft Engines.

Question 75

What are the meanings of the colored disks on a fire extinguisher? Green disc ruptured or missing, thermal discharge. Red disk ruptured or missing, electrical discharge. Red disk ruptured or missing, thermal discharge. Green disc ruptured or missing, electrical discharge.

Answer 75

Red disk ruptured or missing, thermal discharge. Correct A red ruptured disc indicates that a thermal discharge of the halon bottle has occurred. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 2), Engine Fire Protection Systems.

Question 76

How are batteries affected when connected in parallel? How are batteries affected when connected in parallel? Parallel, adds amperage but not voltage. Consecutively, adds amperage and voltage. Parallel, adds amperage and voltage.

Answer 76

Parallel, adds amperage but not voltage. Correct Batteries connected in parallel add amperage to a system, but voltage remains the same. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Electrical System.

Question 77

What are fowler flaps? Reduce wing area by reducing chord and increasing high-speed performance. Changes the camber of the wing and increases wing area. They generate vortices to delay the onset of Mach tuck. They increase lift without increasing drag by not changing the wing area or camber.

Answer 77

Changes the camber of the wing and increases wing area. Correct Fowler flaps move aft and downward, increasing wing area and camber to increase lift. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, High Lift Devices.

Question 78

You have two 6-volt batteries. How do you make 12 volts? Put the batteries in parallel. Attach the batteries to suitable DC generators. Two 6-volt batteries always make 12 volts, regardless of how they are attached. Put the batteries in series.

Answer 78

Put the batteries in series. Correct Batteries placed in series will add voltage to a system in proportion to their total additive voltage. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Electrical System.

Question 79

Why is fluid used in hydraulic systems over gas? It is cheaper than generating extra engine power. Gas in incompressible, which would overstress components. Because fluid is not compressible like gas. Gas is undependable at low temperatures. Correct

Answer 79

Because fluid is not compressible like gas. Since fluid is not compressible, the pressure of the fluid can be transferred directly to the actuator for the flight control surface. A gas is compressible, making the use of gas undependable for high-pressure surface movement applications. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Systems.

Question 80

What would I do if I hot started an engine and it barely went over the limits? Maintenance looks at it and says that you are fine and then it happens again. Do you still write it up? No. Yes. It depends how far over limits it was. Only if maintenance deems a write up necessary.

Answer 80

Yes.

Question 81

Cruising along you have a total AC power failure. You are able to get one generator back online. How do you know how much power the generator is creating? This is impossible. Both generators are necessary to power the aircraft. A single generator can power the aircraft and the amperage will be the same as with all generators functioning. Single generator would produce its rated EMF with double the amperage load upon it. A single generator can power the aircraft and the amperage will be the same as with all generators functioning, but the batteries will discharge.

Answer 81

Single generator would produce its rated EMF with double the amperage load upon it. Correct One generator is sufficient to provide electrical power to the aircraft, but the load (amperage) will be doubled on that generator. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Electrical System.

Question 82

When do you turn on your anti-ice system? ``` Upon entering icing conditions. Prior to entering icing conditions. Before takeoff. After takeoff checklist. Correct Anti-ice systems prevent ice formation, they are not effective at removing ice. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Transitioning to Multiengine Airplanes. ```

Answer 82

Prior to entering icing conditions.

Question 83

Aircraft has three fuel tanks. Tanks A and C have two boost pumps each and tank B has four boost pumps. Which tank will reach empty first? Tank A. Boost pumps are regulated for the desired transfer rate based on the design requirements engineered into the aircraft. Tank B. Tank C.

Answer 83

Boost pumps are regulated for the desired transfer rate based on the design requirements engineered into the aircraft. Correct Most aircraft have boost pumps whose logic is primarily automatic in nature. The flow rate is engineered as a design requirement of the aircraft. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Fuel System.

Question 84

Passing FL210 climbing to FL350, you have a pressurization problem. What indications will you have? Differential pressure will increase, and cabin altitude will increase towards your current altitude. Differential pressure will decrease, and cabin altitude will decrease towards the ground. Pressure differential will trend towards zero and cabin pressure will trend towards your current altitude. Pressure differential will remain unchanged, but the cabin altitude will increase. .

Answer 84

Pressure differential will trend towards zero and cabin pressure will trend towards your current altitude. Correct If pressurization fails, the differential will trend towards zero, the cabin rate of climb will increase and the cabin altitude will rise towards the aircraft altitude. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Cabin Environmental Control Systems

Question 85

What does EPR measure the pressure of? Ratio of the N1 to the N2 compressor pressures. Ratio of turbine inlet temperature to the compressor inlet temperature. Ratio of turbine discharge to compressor inlet pressure used to measure thrust. The total Newtons of thrust produced, as a percentage of maximum rated.

Answer 85

Ratio of turbine discharge to compressor inlet pressure used to measure thrust. Correct EPR is the ratio between in the air pressure at turbine discharge and the pressure of the air at the fan face. Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Systems

Question 86

Which of the following items is not on the engine accessory gearbox? Fuel pump. Oil pump. Hydraulic pump. Air pack.

Answer 86

Air pack. Correct Common accessory section components include fuel pumps, oil pumps, generators and hydraulic pumps. Pneumatic air cycle machines, or “packs” operate via compressor bleed air. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 1), Aircraft Engines.

Question 87

On fowler flaps, air from the underside of the wing flows through slots that enhances: Laminar flow on the lower surfaces and the greater camber and effective wing area increases overall lift. Laminar flow on the upper surfaces and the lower camber and effective wing area increase overall lift. Laminar flow on the upper surfaces and the greater camber and effective wing area decrease overall lift. Laminar flow on the upper surfaces and the greater camber and effective wing area increase overall lift.

Answer 87

Laminar flow on the upper surfaces and the greater camber and effective wing area increase overall lift. Correct Enhanced fowler flaps include triple slots in between individual surfaces. This allows the boundary layer at the aft portion of the wing to be energized, increasing lift. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, High Lift Devices.

Question 88

What is the voltage and frequency for aircraft AC electrical power? 120 VAC, 500 Hz. 115 VAC, 400 Hz. 28 VAC, 400 Hz. 24 VAC, 500 Hz.

Answer 88

115 VAC, 400 Hz. Correct Most AC powered aircraft have a power rating of 115V at 400 Hz frequency. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Electrical System.

Question 89

You are on a 727 with three fuel tanks (left, right and center). For a normal takeoff the fuel tanks each feeds its appropriate engine. The center tank, must always have 2,000 pounds more fuel than the left and right tanks. After takeoff, you lose the number three engine. How are you going to crossfeed? Crossfeed from the number three tank to the number two engine. Crossfeed from tank two to the number three engine. Crossfeed from number one to engine number two. Take no action. The aircraft will automatically balance the fuel.

Answer 89

Crossfeed from the number three tank to the number two engine. Correct Maintaining 2,000 pounds more fuel in the center tank than the wings is critical to not overstressing the wing/body junction. In this case, transferring fuel from the number three tank to the center (number two) engine will achieve this goal. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Fuel System.

Question 90

You are in level flight and encounter icing conditions, and you know that the pitot system heat is not working. What do you do? Descend to a lower altitude and find a colder SAT Descend to a lower altitude and find a warmer SAT. Climb to a higher altitude; warmer than the current freezing level Make no changes until you can ensure accurate airspeed inputs.

Answer 90

Climb to a higher altitude; warmer than the current freezing level

Question 91

During engine start, N1, N2, and fuel flow are normal, but engine isn’t starting. What is the malfunction? Low start valve pressure. Low electrical power to start mechanism. Watered down fuel. Ignition malfunction.

Answer 91

Ignition malfunction. Correct This is a failure of the engine to light off. Usually, this is due to an ignitor malfunction. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Transition to Jet Powered Airplanes,

Question 92

An accessory section reduction gear ratios are relatively high because: The rotor operating rpm is so high. The rotor operating rpm is so low The rotor operating pressure is so high. The rotor operating pressure is so low.

Answer 92

The rotor operating rpm is so high. Correct The rotational speed of the HP compressor is very high. Reduction gearing is necessary to slow the rotational speed of the accessory section to an appropriate speed for engine driven components. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 1), Aircraft Engines.

Question 93

You are descending through 6,000 feet and elect to turn on the engine anti-ice due to icing conditions ahead. Your EPR was 1.96. What do you expect the EPR to read after you have switched the anti-ice on? 1.91 1.98 2.00 Zero. Correct Engine anti-ice works through compressor bleed air. By removing air from the compressor section, you reduce the pressure of the air leaving the back of the engine, thus reducing EPR. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Systems.

Answer 93

1.91 Correct Engine anti-ice works through compressor bleed air. By removing air from the compressor section, you reduce the pressure of the air leaving the back of the engine, thus reducing EPR. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aircraft Systems.

Question 94

If you lose air while starting a jet engine after ignition has occurred but before the completion of the start cycle, what is the most probable outcome? Hot start. No light start. Failed compressor start. Hung start.

Answer 94

Hung start. Correct A hung start occurs when there is inadequate compressor speed to continue the start process. The start will “hang” at a particular N1. A hot start may eventually result as fuel is ignited with insufficient air velocity through the combustion chamber. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Transitioning to Jet Powered Airplanes.

Question 95

The speed brake control can deploy all spoiler and speed brake surfaces fully when operated. Additionally: Often, these surfaces deploy on the ground automatically when engine thrust reversers are retracted. Often, these surfaces deploy on the ground automatically when weight-on-wheels signal is received or when adequate main landing gear wheel spin up occurs. Often, these surfaces deploy on the ground automatically when brakes are activated. Often, these surfaces deploy on the ground automatically when brakes are retracted.

Answer 95

Often, these surfaces deploy on the ground automatically when weight-on-wheels signal is received or when adequate main landing gear wheel spin up occurs. Correct Most large turbojets deploy both the roll and ground spoilers upon weight on wheels signal or upon adequate main gear wheel spin up. Reference: Airplane Flying Handbook, Transition to Jet Powered Airplanes.

Question 96

The reduction gearing within the accessory section casing provides suitable drive speeds for: The engine air intake section. The engine compressor section. The engine turbine section. Each engine accessory or component.

Answer 96

Each engine accessory or component. Correct The rotational speed of the HP compressor is very high. Reduction gearing is necessary to slow the rotational speed of the accessory section to an appropriate speed for engine driven components. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Powerplant (Vol 1), Aircraft Engines.

Question 97

What is RAIM? Random automatic integrated monitor. Receiver approach integrity monitoring. Radar autonomous inertial management. Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring.

Answer 97

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring. Correct RAIM stands for receiver autonomous integrity monitoring. It is a receiver internal process that evaluates the performance of the GPS receiver. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Navigation.

Question 98

How many volts are modern day aircraft batteries? 18 volts 15 volts. 24 volts. 28 volts.

Answer 98

24 volts. Correct Modern aircraft batteries are rated at 24 Volts. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Electrical System.

Question 99

What temperature does fuel start to freeze? Jet A: -54C/-40F. Jet A: -51C/-54F. Jet A: -40C/-40F. Jet A: -60K/-40F.

Answer 99

Jet A: -40C/-40F. Correct The freezing point of Jet A is -40C/-40F. Reference: Aviation Maintenance Technician Handbook – Airframe (Vol 2), Aircraft Fuel System.