ENOT/Opthalmology Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

how is chronic rhinosinusitis categorized

A

lasting 12 weeks or longer - despite attempts at medical management

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2
Q

what is the common treatment for chronic rhinosinusitis

A

amox-clavulantate 875mg BID for at least 3 weeks and up to 10 weeks

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3
Q

what are aphthous ulcers

A

single or multiple small, shallow ulcers with a yellow-grey fibroid center with red halos

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4
Q

how are aphthous ulcers diagnosed

A

clinical presentation and history
consider biopsy if lasting for more than 3 weeks

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5
Q

what is the treatment for apthous ulcers

A

viscous lidocaine 2-5%

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6
Q

define blepharitis

A

chronic inflammation of lid margins - caused by seborrhea, staph or strep

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7
Q

how is blepharitis diagnosed

A

slit-lamp examination

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8
Q

what is the treatment for blepheritis

A

warm compresses, daily lid wash with diluted baby shampoo, lid massages and topical abx if infection is suspected

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9
Q

what presents with painless otorrhea, brown/yellow dicharge with a strong odor

A

cholesteatoma

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10
Q

what causes cholesteatomas

A

chronic eustachian tube dysfunction resulting in chronic negative pressure causing granulation tissue

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11
Q

how is cholesteotoma diagnosed

A

otoscopic visualization of granulation tissue
confirm with CT and audiogram for hearing loss assessment

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12
Q

how are cholesteotomas treated

A

surgical removal

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13
Q

what are the different types of conjunctivitis

A
  • viral
  • bacterial
  • allergic
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14
Q

what type of conjunctivitis presents with copious watery discharge, scant mucoid discharge

what is the common etiology

A

viral

adenovirus

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15
Q

what type of conjunctivitis presents with purulent discharge, crusting, usually worse in the morning

common etiologies

A

bacterial

S. pneumonia, S aurus for acute
M. catarrhalis and gonococcal/chlmydia

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16
Q

what is Giemsa stain includsion bodies indicative

A

chlamydia conjunctivitis

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17
Q

what type of conjunctivitis presents with red eyes, itching and tearing - typcially bilaterall

A

allergic

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18
Q
A
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19
Q

what is the treatment of bacterial conjunctivits

A

gentamicin/tobramycin
erythromycin ointment
trimethoprim and plymyxin B

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20
Q

if a patient has contacts what medications should be added to medication regimen

A

Fluoroquinolones - Ciprofloxacin/ciloxan drops

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21
Q

what presents with sudden onset of eye pain, photophibia, tearing, FB sensation, blurring of the vision and/or conjunctival injection

A

corneal abrasion

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22
Q

how are cornial abraisons diagnosed

A

fluoescen staining

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23
Q

what is the treatment for corneal abraisons

A

abx ointment - NO PATCHING

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24
Q

who commonly is affected by corneal ulcers

A

contact wearers

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25
what is a corneal ulcer
deep infection of cornia by bacteria, virus or fungi
26
what is the presentation of corneal abrasion
white spot on the surface of the cornea that stains wtih fluorscein
27
what is the treatment of corneal ulcer
immediate referral - if not possible start topcial opthalmic antibiotics
28
define keratitis
inflammation of the cornia
29
what is inflammation of the lacrimal gland called
dacryoadenititis
30
what is the cause of dacryoadenitis
bacteria or virus
31
what is an infectious obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct called
dacryocystitis
32
what is the eversion of the eyelid called
ectropion
33
what is inversion of the eyelid called
entropion
34
what is the treatment for ectropion and entropion
tear supplements and ocular lubricants at night - definitive = surgery
35
what is the common site for anterior nose bleeds
kiesselbachs plexus
36
what is the common site for posterior nose bleeds
Woodruffs plexus - phenopalatine artery
37
what needs to be given if anterior nasal packing is required
cephalosporin to prevent toxic shock syndrom
38
what is the classic triad associated with acute narrow angle closure glaucoma
injected conjunctiva, steamy cornea and a fixed dilated pupil (opthalmic emergency)
39
how are glaucomas diagnosed
tonometry showing increased IOP
40
what is the treatment for acute narrow angle-closure glaucoma
acetazolaminde IV = first line agent topical BB (timolol) Miotics/cholinergics (pilocarpine)
41
what is the definitive treatment for acutre narrow-angle glaucoma
peripheral iridotomy
42
what is the treatment for chronic open-angle glocoma
prostaglanding analogs - first line (latanoprost) topical BB (timolol)
43
what is a painful, warm, swollen red lump on the eyelid called
hordeolum
44
what is the treatment for hordeolum
warm compress and topical abx
45
what is a hyphema
trauma causing bleeding in the anterior chamber of the eye (between cornea and iris)
46
what is the tx for hyphemas
usually the blood is reabsorbed over days/weeks - elevate head at night to 30 degrees
47
how does labrynthitis present
acute onset, continuous vertigo + hearing loss, tinnitus lasting several days to week.
48
what is the treatment of labrynthitis
vestibular suppressants (meclizine) and antiemetics (zofran/promethazine) to limit symptoms 10 day course of prednisone taper
49
what is the treatment of laryngitis
vocal rest and supportive therapy
50
what is gradual painless of central vision called
macular degeneration
51
what is seen with dry macular degeneration
DRUSEN - yellow retinal deposits
52
what is seen with wet macular degeneration
hemorrhage, neovascularization
53
what is the treatment for wet macular degeneration
VEGF inhibiors photodynamic therapy Zinc and antioxidant vitamins
54
what is the treatment of dry macular degeneration
zinc and antioxidant vitamin
55
what disease is characterized by excessive endolymph fluid in the cochlea that causes overstimulation of the hairs - causing vertigo and sudden hearing loss
meniere disease
56
what is the treatment of meiere disease
low salt diet and diuretics to reduce the aural pressure
57
What is Samter's Triad
asthma ASA sensitivity nasal polyps ## Footnote often seen in conjunction with allergic rhinitis
58
what pathogen is the common cause of bacterial otitis externa
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (swimmers ear) or S. aureus (digital trauma)
59
what is the treatment for bacterial otitis exeterna wtih chance of or perforated TM
Cipro and dexamethasone drops
60
what are diagnostic criteria for otitis media
1. bulging of TM 2. other signs of acute inflammation (erythema, fever, pain) 3. middle ear effusion
61
what is the treatment options for otitis media
first line = amoxicillin second line = augmentin (macrolides if PCN allergic)
62
what is pailledema
optic disc swelling that is caused by increased ICP
63
what causes papilledema
malignant HTN brain tumor/abscess meningitis cerebral hemorrhage encephalitis
64
what is the presentation of a patient with parotitis
fever/chills periauricular, mandibular pain and swelling dysphagia
65
what is the treatment of parotitis
self limiting - treat with hydration and rest vaccination is effective for prevention
66
what is the treatment of peritonsillar abscess
aspiration, incision and drainage and/or ABX
67
what is the most common etiology of pharyngitis
viral - adenovirus or mononucleosis
68
what is the Centor Score
for streph pharyngitis 1. absence of a cough 2. exudates 3. fever (>100.4) 4. cervical lymphadenopathy (3 or 4 (+) means strep test)
69
what is the treatment for GAS pharyngitis
PCN = first line azithro if PCN allergic
70
what is the treament of gonorrhea pharyngitis
ceftriaxone 500mg IM as a single dose
71
what is a Pterygium
elevated, superficial, fleshy, tiragular-shaped "growing" fibrovascular mass - m/c in inner corner/nasal side of the eye
72
what is the treatment of pterygium
only surgically removal when vision is affected
73
what is the presentation of retinal detachment
curtain coming down across vision may sense floaters or flashes at onset
74
what is myopia
nearsightedness
75
what is the treatment of retinal detachment
opthalmologic emergency
76
what is the presentation of retinal vascular occlusion
sudden, painless, unilateral and usually sever vision loss
77
what is sialadenitis
bacterial infection of salivary gland
78
how is sailadenitis diagnosed
CT, US or MRI can confirm if pus - gram stain and culture
79
how is sialolithiasis
clinical dx is usually adequate
80
what are the only type of antibioitcs that are non-ototoxic
floxin drops