ENT Essentials Flashcards

1
Q

when do adenoids usually regress by

A

aged 13

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2
Q

causes of hypertrophy of adenoids

A

acute infection
allergy
inflammatory conditions

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3
Q

symptoms of enlarged adenoids

A

nasal obstruction - mouth breathing, snoring, hyponasal speech
Nasal discharge
OSA
otalgia from eustachian tube obstruction
deafness from AOM and otitis media with effusion

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4
Q

Diagnosing adenoid enlargement

A

clinically
FNE

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5
Q

Indications for adenoidectomy

A

nasal obstruction
Glue ear
recurrent AOM
OSA

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6
Q

Methods for performing adenoidectomy

A

curettage
suction diathermy
coblation

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7
Q

contraindications to adenoidectomy

A

URTI recently
uncontrolled bleeding disorders
Cleft palate - either overt or submucosal

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8
Q

why is cleft palate a contraindication to adenoidectomy?

A

adenoids assist in closure of nasopharynx from oropharynx - velopharyngeal insufficiency can result

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9
Q

Complications of adenoidectomy

A

soft palate damage
haemorrhage
subluxation of atlanto-axial joint
eustachian tube stenosis
hypernasal speech - treat with speech therapy and give it time, otherwise pharyngoplasty

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10
Q

treatment of post adenoidectomy bleed

A

return to theatre
post nasal pack

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11
Q

what % of blood volume can children lose before increase in SVR and HR

A

30%

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12
Q

define age associated hearing loss

A

prev. known as presbyacusis
progressive bilateral SNHL where other causes have been excluded

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13
Q

describe the pathophysiology of age associated hearing loss

A

reduction in number of inner and outer hair cells, particularly at basal end of cochlea

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14
Q

indications for an MRI if SNHL?

A

asymmetry on PTA of 15dB or more at any 2 adjacent test frequencies

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15
Q

commonest pattern on PTA of age associated hearing loss

A

sloping, high frequency SNHL

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16
Q

Aim of treatment of age associated hearing loss

A

assess degree of disability
provide hearing aid
rehabilitate patient

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17
Q

rehabilitation available for age associated hearing loss?

A

lip reading classes
auditory training

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18
Q

Define barotrauma

A

damage to body structures due to changes in atmospheric pressure

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19
Q

Causes of barotrauma (3)

A

flying
diving
hyperbaric oxygen therapy

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20
Q

Describe boyles law

A

as ambient pressure increases, volume of a gas decreases

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21
Q

advice to prevent barotrauma

A

dont sleep during aircraft descent
encourage eating and drinking i.e. ET opening
topical decongestants or oral decongestants if needed
Control any co-existant rhinitis prior to flying

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22
Q

why are divers advised not to dive if have an URTI

A

ETD - if unable to equalise pressures may get a perforation - cold water caloric - resulting acute vertigo and vomiting can be fatal in a diving situation

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23
Q

Causes of cervical lymphadenopathy

A

infection - URTI, dental, EBV, Kawasaki
inflammatory - SLE, sarcoidosis
Neoplastic - lymphoma, mets from H&N primary, mets from skin cancer or distant sites

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24
Q

Investigations for cervical lymphadenopathy

A

FNA
US
CT/MRI
Bloods

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25
Sulphur granules on FNA cytology?
actinomycosis
26
what is heerfordt's syndrome
bilateral parotid swelling, anterior uveitis, facial palsy and fever --> sarcoidosis
27
diagnosis of sarcoidosis
CXR ACE serum calcium (elevated) caseating granuloma on biopsy negative tuberculin test
28
treatment of sarcoidosis
steroids
29
ENT presentation of SLE
cervical lymphadenopathy recurrent mouth ulcers motility disorders of oesophagus
30
diagnosis of SLE
ANA on serology
31
treatment of SLE
NSAIDs Steroids immunosuppresants hydroxychloroquine methotrexate
32
diagnosis of lymphoma
Can be suspected from FNA but needs formal biopsy
33
level 2 nodes are
upper jugular nodes
34
level 3 nodes are
mid jugular nodes
35
level 4 nodes are
lower jugular
36
level 5 nodes are
posterior triangle
37
level 6 nodes are
anterior compartment group
38
level 7 nodes are
superior mediastinal group
39
first echelon draining lymph nodes for primaries are
40
define cholesteatoma
collection of migrating keratinising squamous epithelium trapped within the middle ear or mastoid
41
describe pathophysiology of congenital cholesteatoma
arises from epithelial cell rests in forming middle ear which would usually have disappeared at 17 weeks gestation, usually present as a pearly white mass behind an intact TM
42
describe how a cholesteatoma causes its complications
proteolytic enzymes released by outermost layer of cholesteatoma erode adjacent bone, ossicles, exposing inner ear, facial nerve, meninges of brain deafness due to damage of bones in middle ear but also erosion of labyrinth (would be associated with dizziness due to damage to vestibular apparatus) - usually damages lateral SCC causing positive fistula sign invasion of facial nerve directly brain abscess, meningitis, venous thrombosis from direct spread of cholesteatoma to brain
43
why is cholesteatoma easily infected
contents of cholesteatoma have no blood supply so easily infected by any bacteria
44
presentation of cholesteatoma
hearing loss foul smelling otorrhoea may have otalgia
45
investigations for cholesteatoma
PTA CT temporal bones MRI for recurrence monitoring Biopsy only needed if suspect malignancy
46
how to perform masking
tragal rub - occlusion of auditory canal by putting pressure on tragus with rubbing motion Barany box
47
what is bings test
similar to rinne's test - tuning fork strunk and placed on mastoid then ipsilateral meatus occluded by examiners finger and subject asked if noise is quieter or louder
48
external parts of a cochlear implant
microphone speech processor transmitter coil
49
differential diagnosis of cough
laryngopharyngeal reflux post nasal drip CRS laryngeal hypersensitivity laryngeal dysfunction allergic response airway stenosis
50
Management of laryngopharyngeal reflux
lifestyle changes - avoiding certain food and drink, food diary, avoiding large meals at bedtime, avoiding caffeine at bedtime because relaxes lower oesophageal sphincter medication - PPI, antacids investigate for causes such as hiatus hernia and refer to appropriate team
51
management of drooling
watchful waiting anticholinergic agents to dry secretions such as hyoscine patches, oral glycopyrrolate SLT physical therapies Botox into salivary glands occasionally surgery - rare but removal of glands for example or adenotonsillectomy
52
organisms responsible for epiglottitis
haemophilus influenza type B streptococcus pyogenes streptococcus pneumoniaw staphylococcus aureus
53
Which vessel usually responsible for traumatic epistaxis and why
nasal trauma often involves the vomer and superior part of nasal septum which is supplied by a branch of anterior ethmoidal artery - therefore ligation of SPA and anterior ethmoidal may be required in traumatic epistaxis
54
causes of epistaxis
iatrogenic (nasal surgery, intranasal steroids) trauma (fractures, foreign body, nose picking) inflammatory (rhinitis, sinusitis) neoplastic (pyogenic granuloma, juvenile angiofibroma, SCC) idiopathic anticoagulants bleeding disorders HHT HTN
55
inheritance of HHT
AD
56
treatment of HHT epistaxis
KTP laser septodermoplasty Young's procedure tamoxifen bevacizumab (inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor)
57
commonest abnormalities which cause a prominent ear
poorly developed antihelical fold overly developed prominent deep conchal bowl
58
treatment of bat ears
small babies with modest deformity - 'ear buddies' - splints which enourage pinna to adopt appropriate shape earfold nitinol implants pinnaplasty
59
risk factors for perichondritis
local trauma (burns/bites/piercings) OE
60
commonest organism responsible for perichondritis
pseudomonas aeruginosa staph aureus
61
what is chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis and treatment
tender red nodule on ear usually due to area of localised damage to cartilage skeleton from trauma or inflammatory reaction to cold temperatures keep ear warm, excision biopsy
62
name of syringe used for ear syringing
higgison syringe
63
exostoses vs osteoma
osteoma - benign tumour of bone arising from tympanosquamous or tympanomastoid suture line exostoses - more common, hyperostoses of tympanic bone of external canal
64
define fistula
communication between 2 epithelial lined surfaces
65
define sinus
epithelial lined blind ending tract
66
when does the branchial apparatus appear
4th week of foetal development
67
consequence of persistance of a branchial cleft or pouch
simple sinus opening externally or internally respectively
68
consequence of persistence of both a cleft or a pouch
development of a fistula with internal and external openings, joined by a fistula tract
69
what is the first branchial arch responsible for forming
malleus, incus, mandible, maxilla
70
what is formed from first arch pouch
eustachian tube middle ear
71
what is formed from first arch cleft
external auditory meatus
72
how do first branchial arch fistulas present
very uncommon but usually large with superior opening in external auditory canal and inferior opening in neck between tragus and hyoid bone
73
what does the second branchial arch form
stapes, stylohyoid ligament, posterior portion of hyoid bone
74
what does the second arch pouch form
bed of tonsillar fossa
75
how does a second branchial arch fistula form
skin opening in neck at anterior border of SCM and internal opening in tonsillar fossa
76
investigation of second branchial arch fistula
fistulogram CT with contrast MRI
77
how would 3rd and 4th branchial arch fistula present
uncommon skin opening in neck, internal opening in pyriform fossa or pharynx
78
what is an oroantral fistula
communication between oral cavity and maxillary sinus - caused by infection, cancer, developmental clefts, cocaine abuse, tooth extraction (most commonly)
79
management of oroantral fistula
small - conservative management or simple primary closure larger - buccal or palatal mucoperiosteal flap
80
what suggests a FB in pharynx
increasing odonophagia pain on gentle side to side manipulation of larynx history
81
how does button battery cause trauma
button battery in contact with tissue on both sides of battery creates an electric current between the terminals, causes sodium hydroxide to build up in tissues, causes caustic burn
82
complications of button battery
nose - septal perforation ear - external ear canal skin destruction, TM destruction phayrngeal perforation oesophageal perforation
83
what to do after FB removal from nasal cavity
reexamine afterwards to ensure no second FB more posteriorly
84
how to determine if there is an oesophageal perforation post FB
gastrografin swallow or omnipaque 500 swallow
85
soft food bolus in oesophagus management
admit IV buscopan diazepam fizzy drink barium swallow to look for cause of obstruction
86
management of sharp FB in oesophagus
rigid oesophagoscopy if a mucosal tear, keep in hospital post procedure, IV abx, 4 hours NBM post procedure
87
CXR findings of FB in trachea/bronchi
show the FB if radoiopaque consolidation/collapse/hyperinflation/mediastinal shift
88
management of fb in bronchi
bronchoscopy
89
how to remove fb in bronchi of young children
ventilating hopkins rod bronchoscopes
90
t1 vs t2 mri images
t1 - csf/globe fluid signal dark, fat white t2 - fluid white, fat also white
91
contrast agent used in mri
gadolinium
92
imaging choice for cholesteatoma
hrct temporal bones - shows well defined mass in middle ear cleft with or without ossicular erosion
93
what is an ager nasi cell
pneumatisation of agger mound which can extend into frontal recess and cause mechanical obstruction
94
pneumatised middle turbinate, when enlarged can narrow middle meatus and osteomeatal complex, resulting in obstruction. inflammation and fluid opacification can also occur in concha bullosa resulting in bullitis
95
haller cell ethmoid air cells which have projected inferiorly along the medial aspect of the orbital floor and obstruct the maxillary ostium if enlarged
96
exercises used in acute labyrinthitis and when to start them
cooksey cawthorne exercises but only commence once initial phase of symptoms have settled. Can accelerate recovery and central compensation.
97
what is a labyrinthine fistula
bony erosion of labyrinthine capsule to expose/rupture endosteum of labyrinth - endosteum is a thin layer of periosteum separating membranous labyrinth from dense cortical bone covering SCCs, breach results in perilymph fistula and may cause vertigo and a dead ear
98
what is tullio phenomenon
vertigo in presence of loud sounds - associated with semicircular canal dehisence
99
speech options for laryngectomy patients
oesophageal voice prosthetic speech valve electrolarynx
100
laser stands for
light amplification by the stimulated emission of radiation
101
safety precautions laser
designated laser environment with appropriate sinage (signs on all theatre access doors when laser in use, with theatre doors locked/signs saying dont enter) laser safety officer and supervisor appointed and trained appropriately all laser users should attend regular update courses anaesthetic consideration - non inflammable anaesthetic agent, ensure ET cuff inflated with saline not air patient - saline soaked drapes on face and taped eyes/safety goggles all theatre personnel to wear safety goggles regular maintenance and checking of aiming beam and laser output non refelctie scopes adequate suction availability
102
complications of mastoid surgery
facial nerve injury hearing loss tinnitus vertigo change in taste dural injury vascular injury - sigmoid sinus, petrous carotid artery
103
complications and management of complications of temporal bone fractures
facial palsy - steroids, monitor, surgical decompression CSF otorrhoea/rhinorrhoea - bed rest, head elevation, stool softeners, LD if not settling, if persists more than 10 days surgical exploration perilymph fistula - surgical exploration TM perforation - conservatively with water precautions, if not healed after 6-8 weeks tympanoplasty EAC fracture - conservative, but may result in canal stenosis and cholesteatoma ossicular damage - monitor for some time then tympanotomy