entrance test Flashcards

(123 cards)

1
Q
  1. Oestrus induction in pigs
A

eCG and hCG

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2
Q
  1. Aujeszky’s disease
A

PHV-1

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3
Q
  1. Not a cause of Hoflund
A

Ruminal Acidosis

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4
Q
  1. Hannover method
A

Standing restraint, right flank laparotomy

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5
Q
  1. C-section in swine
A

Right or left flank incision

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6
Q
  1. In the treatment of milk fever
A

calcium injection in cattle IV

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7
Q
  1. Treatment of frothy bloat
A

Antifoaming agent, tubing, hay, flaxseed

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8
Q
  1. Normal presentation in a cow
A

Longitudinal anterior

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9
Q
  1. Gastric ulcer in swine
A

Teeth grinding

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10
Q
  1. IM injection in pig
A

Neck area

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11
Q
  1. Laparotomy layers in skin
A

Skin> SC> ext> int> transv> peritoneum> abdominal cavity

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12
Q
  1. Gilt puberty
A

150-170 days

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13
Q
  1. By which symptom can we differentiate CODD from foot rot in small ruminants (Contagious ovine digital dermatitis)
A

Initial location of hoof wall separation

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14
Q
  1. Lumbosacral in sheep
A

Epidural space

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15
Q
  1. ZnSO4 sheep disadvantage
A

Action time

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16
Q
  1. Bovine Respiratory disease complex
A

Multifactorial

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17
Q
  1. Sperm volume of boar
A

100-300ml

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18
Q
  1. Teat cistern anaesthesia
A

Procedures only affecting the MM

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19
Q
  1. Which gives scoliosis
A

Prox paralumbar nerve block

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20
Q
  1. Uterine torsion palpation IN THE COW
A

Pre-cervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation

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21
Q
  1. Cornual nerve
A

Under the crista orbitotemporalis

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22
Q
  1. Consequence of abomasal displacement
A

Hypokalaemia

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23
Q
  1. Course of rabies
A

3-6 days

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24
Q
  1. Cause of lungworm disease in cattle
A

Dictiocaulus Viviparus

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25
25. What can azaperone cause in pigs
Peripheral vasodilation
26
26. Transabdominal US pregnancy check in sheep
Day 28-35
27
27. Which symptoms is NOT present in the case of acute traumatic reticulo-peritonitis?
Tiptoeing
28
28. Which joint is affected most by osteochondrosis dissecans in swine?
Elbow
29
29. What is the consequence of vasectomy?
Procedure that blocks the flow of spermatozoa
30
30. Hepatosis dietetica is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin
Vitamin E
31
Which of the following techniques is not used for the resection of the DIP joint in cattle? a. Bulbar approach b. Axial approach c. Solar approach d. Abaxial approach
b. Axial approach
32
Which of the following skin diseases can be diagnosed at birth by apparent clinical signs? a. Pityriases rosea b. Greasy pig disease c. Epithliogenesis imperfecta d. PDNS
c. Epithliogenesis imperfecta
33
Which statement is TRUE about footrot in small ruminants? a. Commonly occurs in mediterranean areas b. Caused by Treponema spp. c. Easily treated by antibiotic therapy d. Severity of the symptoms depends on the virulency of the strain of bacteria causing the illness
d. Severity of the symptoms depends on the virulency of the strain of bacteria causing the illness
34
What cases interdigital hyperplasia? a. Treponema spp. b. Genetic background c. Harsh foot trimming d. Irritant footbathing solution
b. Genetic background
35
The obstipation of the swine can be caused by: a. Water intoxication b. Long lasting fever c. Can be a consequence of meningitis d. The inadequate particle size of the granulated feed
b. Long lasting fever
36
Medicines/steps used in the treatment of swine gastric ulceration: a. Separating different ages of swine b. The elimination of technological stress c. Metoclopramid d. Prostaglandin F2 alpha
b. The elimination of technological stress
37
What cannot be the cause of vaginal prolapse in sheep? a. Excess body condition b. Multigravid uterus c. High-fiber diets, particularly root crops d. Low body condition
d. Low body condition
38
Which of the following agents causes bowel edema in swine? a. Fumonisin B1 b. Verotoxin-producing E. coli c. Haemophilus parasuis d. Salt poisoning
b. Verotoxin-producing E. coli
39
Which is true for Azaperone in pig? a. Cheap, not effective for pigs b. Expensive, effective and licensed for pigs c. Cheap, effective but not licensed for pigs d. Cheap, effective and licensed for pigs
d. Cheap, effective and licensed for pigs
40
What is the acceptable pregnancy rate in a normal breeding season in sheep? a. >90% b. 50-60% c. 60-70% d. 40-50%
a. >90%
41
What is the palpation of the vas deferens? a. Bone b. Cartilage c. Swab d. Soft
b. Cartilage
42
What is the optimal pH range of the rumen? a. 7.0-7.5 b. 5.5-6.3 c. 7.2-8.0 d. 6.3-7.1
d. 6.3-7.1
43
What disorders are the most common in the period around farrowing? a. Uterine and cervical prolapse b. Invagination of the uterus c. Uterine torsion d. Rupture of the uterus
a. Uterine and cervical prolapse
44
Where do we inject during proximal paravertebral anaesthesia? a. Between the proc. Spinosus of the lumbar vertebrae, into the intervertebral joint b. 1-2 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. Transversus, and under the skin c. 4-5 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. Transversus, and under the skin d. 8-10 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. Transversus, and under the skin
c. 4-5 cm laterally from the midline, under and over the proc. Transversus, and under the skin
45
What is the sign of correct needle placement during epidural anaesthesia of cattle? a. Blood can be aspirated to the syringe b. The tip of the needle can move freely c. Fluid drops are sucked in from the conus of the needle d. Hissing sound of the air coming out of the epidural space
c. Fluid drops are sucked in from the conus of the needle
46
When is the induction of parturition recommended in swine? a. After day 105 of the pregnancy b. After day 107 of the pregnancy c. After day 109 of the pregnancy d. After day 112 of the pregnancy
d. After day 112 of the pregnancy
47
How can flunixin-meglumine be administered to farm animals? a. PO b. SC c. IP d. IV
d. IV
48
In the case of acute traumatic reticuloperitonitis, what will be the haematology findings? a. Haemoconcentration, neutropenia, low levels of fibrinogen and total protein b. Haemoconcentration, neutropenia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein c. Low red blood cell count, leukocytosis, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein d. Haemoconcentration, neutrophilia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein
d. Haemoconcentration, neutrophilia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein
49
Which procedure CANNOT be done without anaesthesia in calves? a. Opening abscesses b. Ear tagging c. Correction of umbilical hernia d. Disbudding in newborns
c. Correction of umbilical hernia
50
What causes the traumatic injury of the liver in calves during birth? a. Pressure inside the birth canal b. Excessive force during forced extraction c. Abnormal presentation of the calf d. Yanking the umbilical cord
b. Excessive force during forced extraction
51
What are the characteristics of the discharge in clinical endometritis? a. Reddish-brown, watery, smelly b. Yellowish-white (pus), watery c. Reddish-brown, viscous d. Yellowish-white (pus), viscous
d. Yellowish-white (pus), viscous
52
The mulberry heart disease… a. Is manifesting only in special breeds of swine b. Is the degeneration of the cardiac muscle due to Vitamin E and Selenium deficiency c. Means the flaccid paralysis of the smooth muscle of visceral organs d. Means the stimulus something formation disease something heart
b. Is the degeneration of the cardiac muscle due to Vitamin E and Selenium deficiency
53
In which species do you expect to see the side effects of lidocaine in a therapeutic dose? a. Cow b. Small ruminants c. Both of them d. None of them
b. Small ruminants
54
The position of the fetus is a. The situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus b. The longitudinal axis of the dam to that of the fetus c. The maternal spinal axis to that of fetal spinal axis d. The fetus placement in the maternal abdominal cavity
c. The maternal spinal axis to that of fetal spinal axis
55
How can we store boar semen? a. Native ejaculate, frozen b. Native ejaculate, cooled (16-17 degrees C) c. Diluted ejaculate, cooled (16-17 degrees C) d. Diluted ejaculate, chilled (4 degrees C)
c. Diluted ejaculate, cooled (16-17 degrees C)
56
Which of the following statements is false regarding osteoporosis? a. It is caused by Ca-P or vitamin-D deficiency in growing animals b. A frequent clinical sign is sudden, severe lameness c. It causes a decrease in both trabecular and cortical bone thickness d. Articular cartilage is usually not affected
a. It is caused by Ca-P or vitamin-D deficiency in growing animals
57
What is the place of the intercoccygeal epidural anaesthesia? a. Between the last sacral (S5) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1) b. Between the last sacral (S4) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1) c. Between the last sacral (S6) and the first coccygeal vertebrae (C1) d. Between the first (C1) and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2)
d. Between the first (C1) and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2)
58
# Choose the CORRECT statements from the following, concerning to uterine torsion of the cow a. Precervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation b. Postcervical torsion can be palpated with vaginal palpation c. Precervical torsion can be only palpated via rectal palpation d. My manual palpation we cannot diagnose uterine torsion
a. Precervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation
59
The peripartal insulin resistancy in ruminants a. Under farm circumstances measurable with the HEC cow-side test b. A calculated index measures it from blood parameters e.g. RQUICKI c. If blood glucose concentration is <3 mmol/liter d. It happens around 3 months after calving
b. A calculated index measures it from blood parameters e.g. RQUICKI
60
What is the consistency of the ruminal content in case of anterior functional stenosis? a. Foamy, cream-like b. Watery c. Doughy d. Solid
a. Foamy, cream-like
61
Traumatic reticulopericarditis Expected fluid like?
Exudate in 99% of the TRP cases (watery viscous,smelly , high protein)
62
False in swine pox
It is sporadic disease, notifiable in hungary
63
In swine acepromazine will cause
Hypotension,hypothermia
64
In Healthy animal hoof trimming, which structure doesn't need to be cut
Heel
65
Estrus in cattle, uterine horn is
Rigid due to high level of estrogen
66
In Epiphyseolysis in glit, which bone is most affected?
Femur
67
Which agent is characterized by immune complex mediated vasculitis?
PDNS
68
1. Proximal lumbar paravertebral nerve block in cattle
NT13, NL1, NL2
69
2.Position in cattle
Upright dorsal is normal
70
3.Not Notifiable Diseases in small Ru
I think IBR (scabies, IBR, contagious something and pox of goat and sheep,, maybe someone can help)
71
4. Not a sign for chronic traumatic reticuloperitonitis
Diarrhea | _mandibular edema, tachycardia, cachexia
72
5.Induction of farrowing
PGFa2
73
6.Treatment frothy bloat
Antifoaming agent, tubing, hay, flaxseed
74
7.Fog fever
Sudden onset, more animals
75
8.Sacrococcygeal injection
S5, C1
76
9.Ear Tag
Day 7
77
10.Worst case in iv regional anesthesia on extremities in small ruminants
Phlebitis
78
11.When vaginal prolapse
Last month of pregnancy
79
12.Thinner part in birth canal (narrowing of the birth canal)
→ wrong answer bifurcation | Cervix, hymen, vulva
80
13.Carbohydrates get digested to
VFA
81
14.Causes Arthritis in swine
Erysipelas, Haemophilus parasuis, Mycoplasma hyorhinis,( M. Hyosynoviae, was not on list, but for completion)
82
15.White line abscess in small ruminants can cause
Distal interphalangeal joint DIP inflammation
83
16.Standing restraint incision
Vertical
84
17.Method for abomasal torsion recumbent surgery
Ventral paramedian abomasopexy
85
18. Injection site for Vena cranial in a piglet
Injection on right side because the N.vagus is on the left
86
19.incubation period of rabies
2 weeks- 4 months
87
20.what is NOT used for anesthesia of the teat:
L - block | V-Block, Ring-Block,regional iv anesthesia?
88
22.megacolon in swine
Secondary due to chronic peritonitis
89
23.thrombocytopaenuc purpura
(NOT mostly common in gilts), purple bruises, suckling piglets, type II hypersensitivity reaction
90
24.Treat hypoglycemia in piglets
Intraperitoneal glucose injection, oral tube/formula, colostrum, (NOT auricular iv injection)
91
25.treat hypocalcemia in cattle
Ca-borogluconate iv
92
26. What can NOT be used for pregnancy check in a sow
Uterine biopsy
93
27. TIVA in small ruminants should be use seldomly because it causes
regurgitation of rumen content → aspiration → pneumonia | • ruminal bloat → respiratory function
94
28. Zearalenone toxicosis - affecting estrus signs
The appearance of a red and swollen vulva in gilts and increased abortions and stillbirths during gestation may indicate zearalenone contamination of the feed
95
29. What is NOT used to check the efficiency of colostrum
Measure of antibodies with refractometer Measure of serum total protein Density measure (NOT routine hematology)
96
30. Method for closure of the uterus
Sero muscularly
97
1. Last palpable vertebrae in a cow?
L5
98
2. Malignant catarrhal fever?
OHV-2
99
3. What is the most important step in postnatal treatment?
Drying calf or breathing or umbilical disinfection
100
4. What is a vasectomy?
Cutting vas deferens
101
8. Newborn calf body temperature?
39-40 degree celsius
102
9. Which of the following is zoonotic?
Streptococcus suis ++++, Aujeszky, Teschen
103
10. What is the consequence of ruminal reflux?
Cl- ion concentration increases
104
11. Which of the following diseases is caused by the disturbance of endochondral ossification?
Osteochondrosis
105
12. What do you NOT give to treat subclinical ketosis?
Gamithromycin
106
13. Which parameter is used for early disease detection on herd level?
Feces or milk production is the answer (not sure which one is correct)
107
14. Which of the following skin diseases can be diagnosed at birth by apparent clinical signs?
Epitheliogenesis imperfecta
108
15. Xylazine efficacy in cows?
10 times for efficient in cow than in horse
109
16. The position of the fetus is?
Maternal spinal axis to that of the foetal spinal axis
110
18. The posture (NOT POSITION !) of the fetus is :
The situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus
111
19. Which statement is FALSE about the development of reticulo peritonitis ?
The oral papillas of the cattle play a role in its development
112
20. What is the recommended breeding age for gilts ?
220-240 days
113
21. Which disease can not cause hoflund syndrome ?
acute rumimal acidosis
114
22. Where do we make a uterine incision in a pig during C section ?
near the bifurcatio
115
23. What is the threshold post-partum after which the retention of the fetal membrane is diagnosed in cows ?
24 hours
116
5. When is the corpus luteum sensitive to prostaglandin?
Day 12
117
6. Vaginal prolapse, which phase is necrotic?
Grade 1, 2, 3 or 4
118
7. Rumen pH in SARA?
pH 5.5-6.5
119
24. Something of the following is true for … in cows ?
it is usually caused by E coli
120
25. Zoonotic ?
streptococcus suis
121
26. The diff diag of enteritis according to the age of the animal ?
E coli infection typically occurs in sows after weaning
122
27. How can a toe granuloma be treated in Small rum ?
compression bandage after excision
123
28. Vasectomy means ?
vas deferens is ligated and a section is removed