Envoy Flashcards

Question

What are the holding speeds at different altitudes?

Answer 1

At or below 6,000' MSL - 200 KIAS 6,001' - 14,000' MSL - 230 KIAS Above 14,001' MSL - 265 KIAS

Answer 2

Pilot certificates do not expire, and are valid if flight currency is maintained along with a current and appropriate medical certificate.

Answer 3

Fly international

Answer 4

Within 30 days

Answer 5

Airworthiness Certificate, Radio Station License, Registration Certificate, Operating Limitations, Weight and Balance

Answer 6

Enough fuel to fly to the destination then to alternate then thereafter for 45 mins at normal cruise

Answer 7

FAR 91.17 You cannot be under the influence of alcohol, taken a drink in 8 hours, or have a BAC of .04 or greater

Answer 8

FAR 121.471 1,000 hours in any calendar year 100 hours in any calendar month 30 hours in any 7 consecutive days 8 hours between rest periods

Answer 9

(61.17) 120 days

Answer 10

61.29 - Replacement of a lost or destroyed airman or medical certificate or knowledge test report. Must notify immediately...actual question is two parts, the other is how long is a temporary certificate good for, answer: 60 days A person who has lost an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report may obtain, in a form or manner approved by the Administrator, a document conveying temporary authority to exercise certificate privileges from the FAA Aeromedical Certification Branch or the Airman Certification Branch, as appropriate, and the: (1) Document may be carried as an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report, as appropriate, for up to 60 days pending the person's receipt of a duplicate under paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, unless the person has been notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked.

Answer 11

91. 211 Supplemental oxygen. (a) General. No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry - (1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration; (2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and (3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen. (b) Pressurized cabin aircraft. (1) No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry with a pressurized cabin - (i) At flight altitudes above flight level 250 unless at least a 10-minute supply of supplemental oxygen, in addition to any oxygen required to satisfy paragraph (a) of this section, is available for each occupant of the aircraft for use in the event that a descent is necessitated by loss of cabin pressurization; and (ii) At flight altitudes above flight level 350 unless one pilot at the controls of the airplane is wearing and using an oxygen mask that is secured and sealed and that either supplies oxygen at all times or automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude of the airplane exceeds 14,000 feet (MSL), except that the one pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask while at or below flight level 410 if there are two pilots at the controls and each pilot has a quick-donning type of oxygen mask that can be placed on the face with one hand from the ready position within 5 seconds, supplying oxygen and properly secured and sealed. (2) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, if for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave the controls of the aircraft when operating at flight altitudes above flight level 350, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to that crewmember's station.

Answer 12

121. 333 Supplemental oxygen for emergency descent and for first aid; turbine engine powered airplanes with pressurized cabins. (c) Use of oxygen masks by flight crewmembers. (1) When operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, each flight crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask so designed that it can be rapidly placed on his face from its ready position, properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen upon demand; and so designed that after being placed on the face it does not prevent immediate communication between the flight crewmember and other crewmembers over the airplane intercommunication system. When it is not being used at flight altitudes above flight level 250, the oxygen mask must be kept in condition for ready use and located so as to be within the immediate reach of the flight crewmember while at his duty station. (2) When operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, one pilot at the controls of the airplane shall at all times wear and use an oxygen mask secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen, in accordance with the following: (i) The one pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask at or below the following flight levels if each flight crewmember on flight deck duty has a quick-donning type of oxygen mask that the certificate holder has shown can be placed on the face from its ready position, properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen upon demand, with one hand and within five seconds: (A) For airplanes having a passenger seat configuration of more than 30 seats, excluding any required crewmember seat, or a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds, at or below flight level 410. (B) For airplanes having a passenger seat configuration of less than 31 seats, excluding any required crewmember seat, and a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less, at or below flight level 350. (ii) Whenever a quick-donning type of oxygen mask is to be used under this section, the certificate holder shall also show that the mask can be put on without disturbing eye glasses and without delaying the flight crewmember from proceeding with his assigned emergency duties. The oxygen mask after being put on must not prevent immediate communication between the flight crewmember and other crewmembers over the airplane intercommunication system. (3) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, if for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave his station at the controls of the airplane when operating at flight altitudes above flight level 410, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use his oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to his duty station. (4) Before the takeoff of a flight, each flight crewmember shall personally preflight his oxygen equipment to insure that the oxygen mask is functioning, fitted properly, and connected to appropriate supply terminals, and that the oxygen supply and pressure are adequate for use.

Answer 13

§ 121.619 Alternate airport for destination: IFR or over-the-top: Domestic operations. (a) No person may dispatch an airplane under IFR or over-the-top unless he lists at least one alternate airport for each destination airport in the dispatch release. When the weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate airport are marginal at least one additional alternate must be designated. However, no alternate airport is required if for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate - (1) The ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation; and (2) Visibility will be at least 3 miles. (b) For the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the weather conditions at the alternate airport must meet the requirements of § 121.625. (c) No person may dispatch a flight unless he lists each required alternate airport in the dispatch release.

Answer 14

When the weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate airport are marginal at least one additional alternate must be designated.

Answer 15

§ 121.617 Alternate airport for departure. (a) If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums in the certificate holder's operations specifications for that airport, no person may dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate airport located within the following distances from the airport of takeoff: (1) Aircraft having two engines. Not more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. (2) Aircraft having three or more engines. Not more than two hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. (b) For the purpose of paragraph (a) of this section, the alternate airport weather conditions must meet the requirements of the certificate holder's operations specifications. (c) No person may dispatch or release an aircraft from an airport unless he lists each required alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release.

Answer 16

It's the boundary between the ground frequencies when you switch between them

Answer 17

13082 is only correct for an intersection departure. 13,400' is the full length available for takeoff.

Answer 18

12,240' Listed under "Additional Runway Information, Usable Lengths, Landing Beyond Glide Slope"

Answer 19

Reciprocal 070

Answer 20

Transition

Answer 21

A restricted area is identified as a red hatched area labeled with R before a number. As long as they are not active they are under the control of the FAA, you may be able to fly thru them. However they are active and you may need permission from the controlling body, otherwise plan not to fly thru one, or expect ATC to reroute your flight plan

Answer 22

4NM either side of centerline 8 Miles

Answer 23

On a Jepp chart it is a VFR only airport. On a FAA chart it means there are instrument approaches blue More precisely, these are airports that have published, Instr. approaches

Answer 24

CL = centerline lights; RCLM = runway centerline markings

Answer 25

a. Runway Centerline Lighting System (RCLS). Runway centerline lights are installed on some precision approach runways to facilitate landing under adverse visibility conditions. They are located along the runway centerline and are spaced at 50-foot intervals. When viewed from the landing threshold, the runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000 feet of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000 feet, and for the last 1,000 feet of the runway, all centerline lights are red. a. Runway edge lights are used to outline the edges of runways during periods of darkness or restricted visibility conditions. These light systems are classified according to the intensity or brightness they are capable of producing: they are the High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL), Medium Intensity Runway Lights (MIRL), and the Low Intensity Runway Lights (LIRL). The HIRL and MIRL systems have variable intensity controls, whereas the LIRLs normally have one intensity setting. b. The runway edge lights are white, except on instrument runways yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings.

Answer 26

The MALSR (Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System With Runway Alignment Indicator Lights) is a medium approach intensity lighting system (ALS) installed in airport runway approach zones along the extended centerline of the runway. The MALSR, consisting of a combination of threshold lamps, steady burning light bars and flashers, provides visual information to pilots on runway alignment, height perception, roll guidance, and horizontal references for Category I Precision Approaches HIRL – High Intensity Runway Light system MALSR – Medium intensity Approach Light System with Runway alignment indicator lights TDZ/CL – runway Touchdown Zone and Centerline Lighting system ALSF 1 – high intensity Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing lights, system length 2,400 to 3,000 feet ALSF 2 – high intensity Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing lights and red side row lights the last 1,000 feet, system length 2,400 to 3,000 feet SALS/SALSF – Short Approach Lighting System, high intensity (same as inner 1,500 feet of ALSF 1) SSALF – Simplified Short Approach Lighting system with sequenced Flashing lights and runway alignment indicator lights, system length 2,400 to 3,000 feet MALD/MASLF – Medium intensity Approach Lighting, with and without Sequenced Flashing lights, system length 1,400 feet ODALS – OmniDirectional Approach Lighting System with sequenced flashing lights, system length 1,400 feet RAIL – Runway Alignment Indicator Lighted sequence flashing lights (which are only installed in combination with other light systems) REIL – Runway End Identifier Lights (threshold strobes) LDIN – sequenced flashing LeaD-IN lights VASI – Visual Approach Slope Indicator PAPI – Precision Approach Path Indicator

Answer 27

The runway are white until the las 2000 feet or half of the runway, which is ever less, then they become yellow

Answer 28

Runway centerline lights are installed on some precision approach runways to facilitate landing under adverse visibility conditions. They are located along the runway centerline and are spaced at 50-foot intervals. When viewed from the landing threshold, the runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000 feet of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000 feet, and for the last 1,000 feet of the runway, all centerline lights are red. The runway edge lights are white, except on instrument runways yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings

Answer 29

A ten feet wide white threshold bar is located across the width of the runway at the displaced threshold. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and displaced threshold. White arrow heads are located across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar

Answer 30

Obstacle clearance 1000ft non-mountainous and 2000ft mountainous. It also assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22 nm of a VOR

Answer 31

1000 ft. above highest obstacle.

Answer 32

Go over IPAD limb heading 356 to intercept course 340 to GVINE then on course 262 to cross KMART at or above 5500 and at or below 240K, then on depicted route to NELYN, thence... Top Alt 10,000 ft max speed 250K.

Answer 33

126.625 - BVT is boiler see graphi

Answer 34

Point at which normal descent can be made on non precision approach

Answer 35

The maximum authorized altitude (MAA) is the highest altitude at which the airway can be flown without receiving conflicting navigation signals from NAVAIDs operating on the same frequency. Chart depictions appear as “MAA-15000.”

Answer 36

91.175 TTRVRA

Answer 37

Check if he just fell a sleep. Then put on an oxygen mask on myself, put one on him and have the passengers wear an oxygen mask, and declare an Emergency ( that is the answer the recruiter wanted)

Answer 38

2000ft/min

Answer 39

MOCA Minimum obstacle clearance altitude.

Answer 40

MDA 91.175

Answer 41

when cdi alive and you are flying inbound.pt?

Answer 42

You may continue the approach unless told not to do so

Answer 43

Put my O2 mask on Provide him O2 Strap him in tight so he does not slump against controls Declare emergency Divert

Answer 44

According to Jeppesen, grid MORA is based on an altitude of 5,000 feet: "In order to provide one standard for the whole world, the minimum vertical distance between the MORA and the highest obstacle along the route was determined to be either 1,000 feet or 2,000 feet, depending on the elevation of the terrain and obstacles below. When flying over precipitous terrain and when flying at higher altitudes, the amount of error between indicated altitude and true altitude increases. As a result, 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance was provided for the lower altitudes. For all terrain and obstacles greater than 5,000 feet, it was decided to create an obstacle clearance of 2,000 feet

Answer 45

It ensures you are at a safe altitude before continuing on the airway. It is the lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude (MEA)

Answer 46

Minimum Enroute Altitude provides 1000 feet obstacle clearance and adequate signal reception

Answer 47

WX less than 800 and or 2sm vis

Answer 48

91.185 ## Footnote FLY THE HIGHEST OF: M.E.A – ■ M - Minimum altitude prescribed for IFR ■ E - Expected (as in: “Expect 5000 10 min after departure”) ■ A - Assigned. Last altitude assigned by ATC. SELECT THE ROUTE BY THIS ORDER: A.V.E.F – ■ A - Assigned route, if none: ■ V - Vectored (fly to fix/route/airway last vectored to), if none: ■ E - Last Expected route by ATC, if none: ■ F - Filed route

Answer 49

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is defined as the reduction of vertical space between aircraft from 2,000 to 1,000 feet at flight levels from 29,000 feet up to 41,000 feet. RVSM was implemented as a means to increase airspace capacity and provide access to more fuel-efficient flight levels.

Answer 50

No. They are for planning purposes and are nt considered mandatory unless given in a clearance

Answer 51

3,000 ft elevation change within 10nm

Answer 52

Runway distance remaining signs

Answer 53

Next to the missed approach instructions, the lights are mentioned

Answer 54

if the visibility is 1/4 and the minimum is 1/2, can we land?" I know if you are not yet inside of the FAF fix you can't continue the approach if visibility falls below minimums, but also i know that if your inside of the FAF you can continue the approach

Answer 55

Depends on the altimeter setting. kollsman window bellow 1000 feet is 1/10 = 100feet higher flight levels would be 1/10= 300 feet

Answer 56

MORA stands for Minumum Off Route Altitude. It will provide 1000 feet of obstacle clearance in non-mountainess area, and 2000 feet obstacle clearance in mountainess area.

Answer 57

Minimum Crossing Altitud

Answer 58

Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA) - An MAA is a published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment. It is the highest altitude on a Federal airway, jet route, RNAV low or high route, or other direct route for which an MEA is designated at which adequate reception of navigation signals is assured That you will not get interference from another VOR with the same frequency.

Answer 59

Study the jepps guide, bold black arrow in one directio

Answer 60

I said we should call maintenance and stood my ground on that answer. I think they're looking for you to stand your ground with a decision because he kept pushing for me to change it. He is not operating as his capacity as a mechanic. so we should pass this on to MX team

Answer 61

Minimum Safe Altitude - Typically 25nm unless otherwise depicted Minimum Sector Altitude - If broken into sectors and also 25nm unless otherwise depicted 1000 feet obstacle clearence

Answer 62

IFR or ICAO now? DVFR flight plan ADCUS written in remarks (means advise customs) Radio Operating Certificate (both pilots certificate and aircraft) "English proficient" on all pilot certificates All crew and passengers must have valid passports

Answer 63

12mos under 40, 6 mos over 40

Answer 64

Generic Equipment Required (FL290-FL410): RVSM-Two independent altitude measurement systems (with ice protection), one transponder (with mode C), an altitude alerting system, and an automatic altitude control system. Altimeter error tolerance is 200ft apart.

Answer 65

18NM 2000FPM

Answer 66

no / celiling is not controling

Answer 67

final approach fix for a non-precision runway.

Answer 68

White and green

Answer 69

Just read the 'Initial Climb' section for the correct runway then the 'Routing' section

Answer 70

Reduced available thrust, longer T/O roll, degraded climb performance

Answer 71

MEL stands for Minimum equipment list. It is a list designated to a company approved by the FAA listing equipment that is OK to be inoperative to continue a flight. Usually including steps to ensure safety and steps to ensure it is fixed in the near future

Answer 72

Airport reference point. It is the center point of an airport, where the GPS will take you if you go "Direct To" that airport

Answer 73

Green located on the right wing and red located on the left.

Answer 74

Runway declared distance information available

Answer 75

box en route

Answer 76

Only if approved by the agency controlling them. It could be ATC or it could be another agency.

Answer 77

No, since V1 assumes an engine failure most of the time, you cannot assume you have thrust reversers because the thrust would be assymetric and lead to control issues

Answer 78

Cleared to descend via the altitudes associated with the STAR, bottom altitude will be depicted on the last point in the sequence

Answer 79

MEA on a gps only route

Answer 80

Clear, Rime and Mixed Ice. Clear is the most dangerous not only because is hard to see but because it can change the shape of airfoil

Answer 81

Configuration Deviation List - Identifies any external part of an aircraft type that can be missing at the commence of a flight and the aircraft remains airworthy

Answer 82

he half-circle on an airway that goes around a navaid or intersection means that it is not part of that route's structure.

Answer 83

With 3, you can take off with one not reporting or missing and the other 2 become controlling. You are not legal to take off with any of them reporting below minimums

Answer 84

At high density altitude airports, take off performance is diminished. Will require longer take off run, less take off thrust, higher airspeed for take off.

Answer 85

In class b no speed restriction except for 250 under 10,000. Vfr corridor thru class b max speed 200 at exactly 10000 no speed restriction

Answer 86

specific temperature. T0032300103 temp 32.3 dew point 10.3

Answer 87

Use the timing method chart on the approach plate

Answer 88

This is a Non Movement area, easily known by the legend on the airport diagram. Research what it means non-movement ramp / movement taxiways

Answer 89

he highest point of an airport's usable RWY and is measured in height above MSL

Answer 90

Below 10,000 MSL within Mexican Airspace - 250 KIAS Below 10,000 AGL within 30 NM of any airport - 250 KIAS

Answer 91

Increases landing distance/TAS

Answer 92

the ASI reading decreases to zero, because there is no difference between ram and static air pressure

Answer 93

Navaid/FIX/ARP

Answer 94

Depends on altitude if bellow 10000, yes

Answer 95

Pressure Tendency: 5appp; the character (a) and change in pressure (ppp; tenths of hPa) the past 3 hours EX: 56010 First number 0(increase) to 10 (decrease) - 5 no change Barely decreased. 1.0 hectopascal over the past 3 hours.

Answer 96

Reduces lift, increases drag, increases stall speed, and reduces control effectiveness. Can disrupt airflow to engine and cause a compressor stall. Causes instruments to read inaccurately. Obscures visibility

Answer 97

Bernoulli's Principle an increase in the speed of a fluid occurs simultaneously with a decrease in pressure newtons 3 law.

Answer 98

Fuel to destination, then to furthest alternate, then 45 min at cruise / normal cruise settings

Answer 99

Distance required to accelerate to takeoff power, have an engine failure at V1 and abort the takeoff without thrust

Envoy Flashcards

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