EOR Deck Flashcards

(278 cards)

1
Q

what type of hernia is commonly present at birth?

A

umbilical

surgery consult if persists > 2 years of age

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2
Q

direct vs indirect relationship to inferior epigastric artery

A

MD don’t LIe
direct hernia - medial to IEA
indirect hernia - lateral to IEA

INdirect goes IN the deep inguinal ring & superficial ring but Direct Doesn’t

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3
Q

complications of hernias

A

Incarcerated - can’t be reduced but still receives blood supply
Strangulated - blood supply is cut off (medical emergency)

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4
Q

elevation in which is more sensitive for pancreatitis

A

lipase (3x ULN)

stays elevated longer compared to amylase which tends to be transient (48-72 hours)

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5
Q

what is likely seen on CMP in pancreatitis?

A

hypocalcemia

** calcium soaks around pancrease (akak from hypercalcemia) diminish tot

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6
Q

I GET SMASHED

A

Idiopathic

Gallstones
Ethanol
Truama

Steroids
Mumps/Malignancy
Autoiummune
Scorpion sting
Hyperlipidema
Hypercalcemia
ERCP !!!
Drugs (sulfa, protease inhibitors, HCTZ, GLP-1s)

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7
Q

ranson criteria for severe pancreatitis

A

used to predict severity of acute pancreatitis (3+ criteria means severe)

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8
Q

MC site of anal fissure

A

posterior midline

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9
Q

guidelines for bariatric surgery

A

BMI > 40 (100 lb over ideal body weight)

BMI > 35 w/ medical problem sequelae of obesity

Failed other surgical programs → must be psychologically stable & able to follow post-op instructions

Obesity NOT EXPLAINED by medical organic cause (i.e. endocrine)

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10
Q

most likely acid-base disturbance to develop postoperatively from SBO

A

metabolic alkalosis (hypochloremic, hypokalemic)

2/2 to volume contraction + gastric fluid loss

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11
Q

MC location for diverticula

A

sigmoid colon (2/2 to increased intraluminal pressure)

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12
Q

Painless rectal bleeding

A

diverticulosis

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13
Q

dx imaging of choice for diverticulitis

A

CT w/ Contrast

will see fat stranding and bowel thickening

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14
Q

TX of choice for diverticulitis

A

augmentin /bactrim

OR

cipro + metronidazole

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15
Q

indicator of unresectable gastric cancer

A
  • encasement of the hepatic artery
  • vascular involvement of aorta, hepatic artery or proximal splenic artery
  • distant metastasis
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16
Q

when do you usually experience pain from duodenal ulcers?

A

2-5 hours after meals

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17
Q

risk factor for pancreatic cancer

A

tobacco use

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18
Q

where do internal hemorrhoids arise from?

A

superior hemorrhoidal cushion

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19
Q

what are external hemorrhoids assoc with anatomically?

A

inferior hemorrhoidal plexus

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20
Q

where do internal & external hemorrhoids drain into?

A

internal pudendal veins

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21
Q

anatomy assoc with perirectal abscess?

A

perianal dermis

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22
Q

how many episodes a week of GERD is considered severe & requires immediate PPI use

A

> 2-3x week

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23
Q

grade I hepatic encephalopathy

A

disordered sleep, depression, irritability, mild cognitive fx

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24
Q

grade II hepatic encephalopathy

A

lethargy, confusion, personality changes, disordiention, asterisxis

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25
grade III hepatic encephalopathy
somnolence, confusion, inability to follow commands, disorientation
26
grades IV of hepatic encephalopathy
coma
27
classic radiographic finding seen in perforated diverticulitis
free air outside of the bowel in the abdomen
28
primary choledocolithiasis is assoc with with type of stones
pigment stones ## Footnote these stones originate in the common bile duct MC in pt with biliary stasis (think CF)
29
secondary choledocolithiasis is assoc with what type of stones?
cholesesterol ## Footnote stones origiante in the gallbladder and are then passed into the common bile duct
30
herniation through the femoral canal BELOW the inguinal ligament
femoral hernia
31
inguinal hernias are located where in relation to the inguinal ligament
SUPERIOR (above)
32
what incision site has the highest incidence of developing an incisional herna?
midline incisions ## Footnote ** painLESS bump at site of previous surgery scar
33
what complication is associated with a sliding hiatal hernia
schatzki ring
34
what condition desribes a thin linea alba & frequently coincides w/ an umbilical hernia
rectus abdominis diastasis
35
treatment of choice for complicated diverticulitis w/ pericolonic abscess > 4 cm
percutaneous drainage
36
labs that support hemolysis as etiology of jaundice ??
decreased haptoglobin, HCT increased LDH, retic & fragmented RBCs on smear
37
MC type of pancreatic cancer
ductal adenocarcinoma (at pancreatic head)
38
Courvoisier’s sign
palpable non-tender gallbladder (think pancreatic cancer)
39
(+) CA 19-9
pancreatic cancer
40
gold standard imaging for PUD
endoscopy
41
PUD alarm sx
- 50 - dyspepsia - hx of GU - anorexia - wt loss - anemia - dysphagia
42
what test is required if GU is found on UGI series
endoscopy (for biopsy - want to r/o malignancy)
43
gold standard test for H.Pylori
endoscopy w/ biopsy + rapid urease test
44
purpose of H/pylori antibodies
confirms infx but NOT eradication
45
H. pylori tx
Clarithromycin + amoxicillin + PPI
46
Side effect of PPI therapy
B12 deficiency
47
tx for refractory PUD
parietal cell vagotomy
48
findings on US for pyloric stenosis
double track
49
findings on barium study for pyloric stenosis
string sign
50
labs for pyloric stenosis
hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis (contraction alkalosis)
51
colon & small bowel tumor marker
CEA
52
labs in toxic megacolon
Elevated CRP & Anemia
53
initial TOC for cholelithiasis
RUQ transabdominal US
54
what medication should be abministered to a hemodynamically stable pt prior to colonoscopy ?
polyethylene glycol (clean out laxative)
55
Fasting serum gastrin levels > 10 x ULN
think gastrinoma (ZES)
56
results of secretin stimulation test for ZES
BIG elevation of gastrin
57
disorder assoc with ZES
MEN 1 (autosomal dominant)
58
use of CA19-9 for pancreatic cancer
good from monitoring but not SCREENING
59
what age do you start screening for colorectal cancer?
USPSTF says 50 (45 is grade B recommendation)
60
how do you reduce sigmoid volvulus?
sigmoidoscpy
61
3-6-9 rule
bowel is considered dilated when dilation is > 3 cm, 6 cm and 9 cm for the small bowel, large bowel, cecum, respectively
62
which virus is assoc. with increased risk of gastric cancer
EBV
63
MC benign cause of LBO
volvulus | ** MCC overall is colon cancer
64
MC site of large bowel obstruction
at or below the transverse colon
65
when is meckel diverticulum most likely dx?
boys age 10 or younger
66
Meckle diverticulum: rules of 2s
2 y/o 2 feet from iliocecal valce 2 in long 2% population 2 epithelila types (gastric, intestinal or pancreatic)
67
howship-romberg sign
assoc. w/ obturator hernia | pain extends down the medial aspect of the thigh w/ movement of the knee
68
thigh pain + sx of small bowel obstruction in older woman
think obturator hernia
69
what three surgical emergencies are pregnant patients w/ RLQ pain at increased risk for ?
ovarian torsion ectopic pregnancy appendicitis
70
# ``` ``` tx of recurring c diff
fidaxomicin 200 mg PO Q 12 hours
71
abx assoc with C diff
clindamycin cephalosporins FQs
72
medication used for prophylaxis of esophageal varicies?
propanolol
73
what cancer is associated with GERD
columnar metaplasia of the suqmous epithelium (esophageal cancer) | barretts esophagus --> adenocarcinoma
74
marker for hepatocellular carcinoma
AFP
75
ranson criteria (at admission)
age > 55 WBC > 16000 Glucose > 200 LDh > 350 AST > 250
76
Localized bowel wall thickening and increased soft tissue density in pericolonic fat are demonstrated on an abdominal CT scan.
diverticulitis
76
77
what type of adenomatous polyps has greatest risk for malignancy?
villious
78
MC location for colorectal carcinoma
sigmoid
79
two main types of esophageal cancer
SCC (arises in proximal 2/3 of esophagus) adenocarcinoma (distal 1/3 of esophagus)
80
TOC for pt with cholelithiasis
elective cholecystectomy
81
tx for cholangitis
abx (pip-tazo) + biliary drainage (ERCP)
82
tx of esophageal spasm
ccb
83
complication of chron disease
anal fistulas, perirectal abscess
84
right-sided colorectal cancer symptoms
IDA Anemia Melena Fatigue
85
left-sided colorectal tumors
Cramping Hematochezia Stool Narrowing Tenesmus WL
86
MC sites of volvulus
sigmoid -1 cecal - 2
87
first line tx for achalasia
pneumatic balloon dilation
88
what is elevated in intrahepatic cholestasis?
increased alk phos | ** think blockge (e.g. tumor)
89
sx of conjugated hyperbili
dark urine pale stools
90
gold standard test for dx cholecystitis
HIDA
91
when does screening begin for FAP?
10 y/o
92
what are the watershed areas of the colon?
splenic fixture rectosigmoid junction
93
s/sx of gastric cancer in proximal stomach
dysphagia
94
PE on ekg
deep S in lead I Q wave in lead III inverted T wave in lead III S1Q3T3
95
parkland formula
4 mL x wt (kg) x total BSA ## Footnote give 50% first 8 hours, remainder over 16 hours
96
best initial test for progressive dysphagia
upper endoscopy
97
MOA of Phenoxybenzamine
Alpha blocker
98
indications for formula fluid resuscitation in burns
Children w/ > 10% TBSA adults > 15% TBSA | use parkland fomula
99
MC tumor to metastasize to brain
melanoma
99
hormonal therapy in receptor positive BC
ER positive: tamoxifen ER positive & post-menopausal: aromatase inhibitors HER2 positive: monoclonal ab
100
MC type of breast cancer
infiltrating ductal carcinoma
100
breast cancer screening
biannual 40-74 y/o
100
most sensitive finding on biopsy for breast cancer
spiculated soft tissue mass
101
imaging for women w/ breast concerns by age
< 30: US 30-39: US & focused or bilateral mammo 40+: bilateral mammo + US
102
CKD Staging
Stage 1 - normal GFR (>/= 90) + either persistent albuminuria or known structural/hereditary renal disease Stage 2 - mild GFR 60 to 89 mL Stage 3 - moderate GFR 30-59 Stage 4: severe GFR 15- 29 Stage 5: kidney failure GFR < 15
103
gold standard imaging for nephrolithiasis
NON CON CT AP
104
tx of POUR
decompression of bladder by catherterization (in-and-out catheterization OR indwelling foley) | ** indwelling cath poses risk for UTI
105
meds tht cause urinary retention
anticholinergies antidepressants opioids benzos CC antagonists NSAIDs
106
perferred form of Dialysis cath for long-term therapy?
Upper Extremity AVF ## Footnote ** created by anastaomsis between brachial/radial aa AND cephalic vv ** can consider graft if HD < 2 yr duration
107
Dialysis access steal syndrome
hand pain, diminished sensation/motor fx, cyanosis of digits & diminished/absent pulses after UE fistual placement
108
older pt, painLESS hematuria & tobacco use
BLADDER CANCER
109
what zone of prostate does cancer usually arise?
peripheral | ** for PSA >4 & rapidly rising --> refer to urology
110
what zone of prostate does BPH arise?
transitional zone
111
coag disorder commonly assoc with wilms tumor?
VW disease
112
TRIAD assoc. with Renal Cell Carcinoma
abdominal mass flank pain hematuria
113
paraesophageal vs sliding hiatial hernia
A "sliding hernia" - stomach & lower part of the esophagus slide up through the diaphragm "paraesophageal hernia" - stomach pushes through the diaphragm alongside the esophagus (bulges out next to it, rather than sliding up through the opening)
114
barretts esophagus dysplasia
squamous --> columnar epithelium
115
pre-operative abx for appendicitis
single dose 2nd gen cephalosporin | cefoxitin, cafezolin, cefotetan
116
abx for non-operative appendicitis
Levofloxacin Metronidazole
117
characteristic of tremor form hyperthyroidism
high frequency & low amplitude
118
medication indicated in mgmt of PAD
Aspirin
119
Most Common Causes of Postoperative Fever
Wind (Atelectasis) Water (UTI) Walking (DVT) Wound (Infection) Wonder Drug (Fever)
120
# * risk factors for PONV
- N/V Prior to Surgery - Female Sex - hx of PONV - Non-Smoker - Increasing Age - Hx of Chemo N/V - General Anesthesia - Long Duration of Surgery - Opioid Administration
121
Best Imaging Modality for Acute Aterial Emboli
CTA of Pelvis w/ Runoff
122
MCC of Significant Lower GI Bleeding
Diverticulosis | Think: Elderly, Smoker, Painless Hematochezia
123
what is required pre-op for pt w/ hx of MI and > 40 y/o
EKG
124
pressure to dx compartment syndrome
> 30 mmHG | normal: 0-8 mmHg
125
hypocalcemia on ekg
prolonged QT
126
tx hypercalcemia
IV normal saline & furosimide
127
when should you d/c aspirin before surgery?
stop 7 days before & resume 7 days after
128
when should pt be prompted to stop smoking before surgery?
at least 8 weeks prior
129
do you continue methodone tx on day of surgery?
yes, continue use including day of surgery to avoid WD
130
time line of post-operative fever
wind (atelectasis/pneumonia): < 1 day water (uti/dehydration): 2-3 days walk (DVT/PE): 3-7 days wound (infx/hematoma): 5-7 days wonder drugs (allergy): anytime
131
Virchow Triad
Circulatory Stasis Endothelial Injury Hypercoaguable State
132
what general surgery has a high cardiac risk?
Open Cholecystectomy
133
how do you prevent postoperative pulmonary (sp. atelectasis) complications?
incentive spirometry
134
pre-operative DVT prophylaxis
intermittent pneumatic compression + LMWH
135
1st line tx for community acquired MRSA suspicious lesions
(non beta-lactam abx) clinda trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole tetracyclines
136
central venous catheter infection rates
subclavian: lowest risk IJ: double risk compared to subclavian Femoral: highest risk infx
137
how to stabilize cardiac membrane in hyperK
calcium gluconate or calcium chloride
138
assoc w/ reduced mortality in pt w/ STEMI
aspirin & a P2Y12 receptor blocker (ticagrelor/prasugrel)
139
Westermark Sign on CXR
s/x of PE | (aka a vascular cutoff sign)
139
what protein marker can be used to assess short-term changes in nutritional status?
pre-albumin (if low, pt may require enteral or parenteral nutrition)
140
what happens to albumin after surgery
decreases d/t stress
141
most appropriate IV fluid for preop pt who is NPO
LF (bc its considered balanced crystalloid - will match body's natural electrolyte balance w/o making significant changes)
142
when should hemodyalysis pt be dialyzed prior to elective surgery?
1 day before
143
how to prevent pulmonary complications in asthmatics requiring intubation prior to surgery ?
Administer rapid-acting beta-agonist or nebulized tx 30 min prior to surgery
144
goodpasture syndrome
glomerulonephritis + pulmonary sx | red cell casts + hemoptysis suggests vasculitis or goodpasture syndrome
145
what type of pneumothorax occurs in conjunction with menstrual periods?
catemenial pneumothorax
146
where should tip of the IVC filter be placed?
inflow of the renal veins
147
lung cancer assoc w. smoking that can NOT be tx w/ surgery
small cell lung CA
148
gold standard test for dx lung cancer
Final needle transthoracic aspiration
149
MCC post-op pneumonia
pseudomonas | tx w/ pip-tazo, cefepime, levo, meropenem
150
hereditary spherocytosis: hypoplastic crisis
follows acute viral illness, profound anemia, HA, nausea, pancytopenia, hypoactive marrow, pigmented gallstones
151
labs in DIC
high: PT / PTT, INR, Fibrin Degredation Products low: Platelets, Fibrinogen
152
tx of DIC
- administer antifibrinolytic (e.g.TXA) - heparin - glucocorticoids
153
minimum platelet count for surgical clearance
most major surgies: 50,000/micoL low risk endoscopic procedures: 20,000/microL neuro/ocular surgery: 100,000/microL
154
sequale of bariatric surgery
pernicious anemia | ** removal of gastric parietal cells in the stomach --> decreased secret
155
Where is Vitamin B12 Absorbed?
Terminal Ileum
156
labs in pernicious anemia
ELEVATED MMA & Homocystine
157
labsin folate deficiency (anemia)
only ELEVATED homocystine
158
mcc of compartment syndrome?
Tibial fx | tibialis anterior mc compartment
159
mgmt of SAH
- keep systolic BP< 160 commonly achieved w IV labetalol/nicardapine **Nimodipine (dhp-ccb) given to every SAH pt w/ anuerysm w/ 4 days of sx onset x 21 days --> prevents vasospasm !!!
160
scoring tool for determining the risk of stroke
ABCD2 age, blood pressure, clinical fx, duration of sx, DM
161
characteristic of TIA d/t carotid artery stenosis
monocular vision loss
162
CT findings in chronic vs acute subdural hematoma
Acute: concave crescent shaped hyperdensity Chronic: concave crescent shaped hypodensity
163
mgmt of subdural hematoma
- burr holes - drains blood - occasionally want to reverse anticoagulation therapy to help w clot drainage (esp. in chronic)
164
wernicke encephalopathy triad
confusion ataxia opthalmoplegia
165
sequele of wernicke encephalopathy
Korsakoff syndrome --> anterograde/retrograde anesia & confabulation
166
MRI finding in wernicke encephalopathy
abnormality w/n mamillary bodies
167
tx of wernicke encephalopathy
thiamine infusion (however, give glucose first)
168
CEA prophylaxis
low dose aspirin prior to procedure
169
MCC of secondary hyperparathyroidism
CKD
170
MC Type of thyroid cancer
papillary (80%) | papillary = popular
171
what will you see on a cancerous thyroid nodule in uptake scan?
cold --> does not take up iodine from RAI scan | ** will require a FNA w/ biopsy
172
indications for parathyroidectomy
- serum ca > 1 mg/dL above ULR - T-score below or at -2.5 - vertebral fx - CrC < 60 mL/min - 24 hour urinary ca > 400 mg/day - kidney stones - calcium in renal parenchyma - age < 50 y/o
173
best test for hypothyroidism
TSH
174
MEN 1
pituitary adenoma parathyroid tumor pancreatic tumor
174
best test for hyperthyroidism
T4
175
men IIA
parathyroid adenoma pheocromocytoma medullary thyroid carcinoma
176
men IIB
medullary thyroid carcinoma multiple mucosal neuromas marfanoid habitus pheochromocytoma
177
what type of cell does medullary thyroid cancer arise from?
parafollicular cells
178
hypothyroidism effects on BP?
diastolic htn | 2/2 increase PVR
179
hashimoto ab
antithyroid peroxidase antithyroglobulin
180
thyroid cancer assoc w/ iodine deficiency
follicular
181
what size thyroid nodule should be biopsied
> 1 cm
182
monitoring for AAA
> 5.5 cm or grown 0.5 cm in 6 mo --> immediate surgery w/ q6 mo US 5.0-5.4: US/ CT Q6 mo 4.0-4.9: US/CT Q12 mo 3.0-3.9: US/CT Q3 years
183
gold standard for AAA dx
angiography
184
dysphagia, regurgitation of food, halitosis
Zenkers Diverticulum | barium swallow followed by EGD to r/o malignancy
185
PAD dx on ABI
ABI < 0.9
186
mainstay tx for caludication in PAD
cliostazole --> platelet inhibitor | ** CI in pt w/ heart failure
187
tx of AAA > 5.5 cm
emergent endovascular stent-graph placement
188
USPSTF screening for AAA
men 65-75 who have every smoked
189
tx of cardiac tamponade
pericardiocentesis
190
beck triad
hypotension JVD muffled heart sounds
191
pulsus paradoxus
> 10 mmhg drop in systolic BP w/ inspiration
192
tx of recurrent pericardial effusion?
pericardial window is preferred over pericardiocentesis
193
BP goal in aortic dissection
systolic 100-120 achieved w/ labetalol or esmolol | ** esmolol for pt with severe asthma or bradycardia
194
what type of aortic dissection always requires surgical intervention
standford type A (this is a surgical emergency)
195
indications for surgery w/ standford type B dissection
- major vascular occlusion - EOD - aortic rupture - hypertension refractory to medication
196
tx of acute limb ischemia
revascularization | (4 hours of occlusion increases risk of compartment syndrome)
197
next best test for working up murmur
TTE
198
most accurate test for working up new murmur
TEE
199
anticoagulation used for pt w kidney disease
unfractionated heparin
200
ABI index that indicated chronic limb-threatening ischemia
< 0.4
201
use of what medications is CI in. aortic dissection?
thrombolytics
202
late finding of acute arterial occlusion indicating ischemia
paresthesia - loss of motor fx
203
common site of arterial embolus
commonf emoral artery
204
ecg changes in prinzmental angina
TRANSIENT ST elevation
205
medication CI in isolated PAD?
BB --> will worsen claudication
206
specific indicator of inc risk of postop cardiopulmonary
inability to climb two flights of stairs or walk four blocks
207
indication for surgery of peptic ulcer disease
ulcer > 3 ## Footnote ** WL is MC post surgical complication d/t limiting food intake bc of early satiety
208
RF for esophageal stricture
- GERD - radiation to head & neck - eosinophilic esophagitis | ** barium swallow usually NOT helpful in dx --> get endoscopy
209
PUD tx
duodenal ulcers: PPI for 4-8 wks gastric ulcers: 8-12 wks ** can use celecoxib for pain control (selective cox2i)
210
branchial cleft cyst
located LATERAL aspect of the neck
211
thyroglossial duct cyst
located MIDLINE of neck (close to hyoid bone) | ** MC after URI
212
long, nonbranching anomalous arterial branch origiinating from the SMA that transveres the mesentary toward RLQ on contrast angiography
Meckle Diverticulum
213
hypoglycemia in perioperative setting
serum glucose < 70 [severe if < 40]
214
tx for preoperative glucose > 180 mg/dL
IV insulin + 5% dextrose solution | perioperative glycemic target = 110-180 mg/dL
215
hwo to tx alert pt with hypoglycemia post-op
15 g carbohydrates (aka 4 glucose tabs)
216
tx for hypoglycemia w/ AMS
glucagon IM 1 mg
217
shifting dullness
Ascities
218
highest surgical risk for DVT
ortho procedures (e.g. total joint) truama
219
low risk DVT prophy
CVD, compression socks & venous foot pumps until ambulating
220
mod-high DVT prophylaxis
LMWH | CI in renal disease [they require fractionated heparin instead]
221
leser-trelat sign
appearance of many SKs assoc. with hepatocellular carcinoma
222
what predisposing disease for hepatocellular carcinoma gives pt highest risk of developing the maliganancy?
hep C
223
new onset htn in pregnancy ddx
gestational htn, preE or Hydronephrosis
224
tx of hydronephrosis in afebrile, nonauric pt
percutaneous ANTEGRADE stent percutaneous nephrostomy
225
tx of hydronephrosis in septic pt
retrograde ureteral stenting
226
MC type bladder cancer
urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma
227
tx of varicose veins 2/2 to saphenous vein reflux that is refractory to conservative mgmt
radiofrequency ablation
228
reticular veins at the medial malleolus are a sx of?
saphenous vein insufficiency
229
what type of groin hernia is most likely to strangulate?
femoral hernia
230
PTT measures what?
intrinsic pathway (XIII, IX, X, XI, XII, thrombin & prothrombin)
231
PT measures what?
XII
232
tx of VWF
desmopressin
233
tx of recurrent diverticulitis
surgical bowel resection
234
colorectal cancer incidience by location
rectosigmoid > ascending > descending | L side : tends to obstruct R side: tends to bleed
235
hyperkalemic emergency
> 6.5 mEq/L | ddx of etiology: renal failure, DKA, rhabdo, TLS, meds
236
cardiac assoc with HF
ventricular arrythmias 2/2 to filling defects & poor contractility | ** typically require ICD esp if EF is 35% or less
237
preferred anticoagulation in pt with malignancy presenting with PE
LMWH (SQ) x 6 months
238
preferred dx test for esophageal stricture
endoscopy
239
serum albumin
used to assess nutritional status level < 3.5 = malnutrition --> assoc. with poor wound healing, inc risk infx & inc length of hospital stay
240
CI to carotid artery endarterectomy
- prior ipsilateral endarterectomy - significant cardiovascular or pulmonary comorbidities that inc anesthesia risk. (if they don't qualify - carotid artery stenting)
241
indication for carotid endarterectomy
asymptomatic & stenosis > 80%
242
tx of acute arterial occlusion
revascularization w/ open thrombectomy or embolectomy
243
post operative urinary retention volume
> 100 mL
244
reciprocal ST depression in anterior leads (V1-V6)
posterior wall MI | circumflex artery occulsion
245
indiciation for surgical intervention of hemothorax
output of > 1500 cc blood on chest tube insertion or > 200mL/hr over 3 hours | ** requires surgical exploration to id source fo bleeding
246
counseling for ESRD
-sodium intake < 2g/day -potassium intake < 1500 mg/day - avoid excessive oral fluid intake - low-protein diet
247
third degree burns
full thickness burn involving epidermis, dermis & SQ tissue
248
fourth degree burns
extend to fascia, muscle, tendon or bone
249
w/u for small-volume hematochezia
pt < 45: anoscopy or sigmoidoscopy pt > 45 (regardless of BL): colonscopy
250
preferred fluids for post-op hypovolemia
NS (0.9%) [ esp in cases of alkalosis or volume loss] | ** hypertonic saline used if pt has lowe serum concentration or open abd
251
tx of NSAID associated PUD
omeprazole x 8 weeks w/ f/u endoscopy
252
serum lactate > 4 mmmol/L
lactic acidosis
253
in what order does intestinal motility usually return following surgery?
small intestine --> stomach --> colon
254
soft tissue gas (subQ emphysema) detected on US or CT
necrotizing fasciitis
255
Autonomic dysreflexia
2/2 spinak cord injury @ T6 or above that leads to unchecked sympathetic tone requires removal of noxious stimuli below level of injury (MC bladder) Tx w/ nifedipine or nitroglycerin
256
empiric therapy for perianal abscess
amox-clav or cipro + metronidazole
257
preferred surgical tx for cecal volvulus
hemodynamically stable: ileocecectomy unstable: cecopexy +/- cecostomy tube
258
finding on plain film abdmoinal XR for cecal volvulus
coffee bean or comma appearance sign
259
volvulus on barium enema
bird beak sign
260
sigmoid vs cecal volvulus
cecal is mc d/t congenital abnormal connection thus is MC in younger pt
261
in which artery does occlusion cause claudication in upper 2/3 calf?
superficial femoral artery
262
MCC Erythema Multiforme (EM)
HSV | ** other causes sulfa drugs, oral hypoglycemics, anticonvulsants, PCNs,
263
precipitating factor for intraparenchymal hemorrhage
physical activity | RF: HTN, amyloid angiopathy,, vascular malformation
264
focal white hyperdense lesion w/n brain parenchyma on non-con CT
intraparenchymal hemorrhage
265
Atelectasis
loss of lung colume d/t collapse of lung tissues | ** pt typically presents w. increased work of breathing & hypoxia
266
characteristics of benign peptic ulcer
smooth, regular, rounded edges w/ flat, smooth ulcer base often filled w/ exudate
267
lung cancer screening
50-80 w/ 20+ pack year history of smoking AND currently smoke OR quit within last 15 years → Annual Low dose CT Screening can be D/C once someone has quit smoking for 15 years
268
What are the three criteria for diagnosis of chronic kidney disease?
1. decreased fx for 3+ months 2. GFR < 60 3. strucutral/functional kidney abnormalities
269
Importance of LATERAL anal fissures
significant for secondary anal fissures ---> likely caused by chron's, granulomatous disease, malignancy, communicable disease
270
when is it appropriate to test for cure in H.Pylori patients?
4 weeks after completion of therapy
271
sludge vs gallstones on US
sludge : echogenic withOUT shadowing gallstones: echogenic WITH shadowing
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Toxic Megacolon Tx
- complete bowel rest - NG tube - PPI for stress gastritis prophylaxis - IV glucocorticoids if underlying IBD - surgical subtotal colectomy w/ end ileostomy (refractory pt) | ** higher consideration for surgery in pt w/ IBD on second line tx