Epilepsy Flashcards

(36 cards)

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Name the epilepsy syndrome

A
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3
Q

Name Side Effects of Each:

  1. Carbamazepine
  2. Carbamazepine and Oxcarbazepine
  3. Valproic acid
  4. Topiramate and Zonisamide:
A

1.Interactions with other hepatically metabolized drugs and increased risk for osteoporosis and hypercholesterolemia

  1. Hyponatremia, pancytopenia
  2. Weight gain, hypercholesterolemia, PCOS, teratogenicity, hepatotoxicity, increase ammonia levels
  3. Increased risk of kidney stones💎

all AEDs: drug hypersensitivity syndrome, SJS, and suicidal ideation

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4
Q

What is the diagnostic definition of epilepsy?

A

Two or more unprovoked seizures >24 hours apart, or one unprovoked seizure with high risk for recurrence.

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5
Q

What defines a focal seizure?

A

Electrical discharge originating from a specific region of the brain.

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6
Q

What are the two types of focal seizures based on awareness?

A

Focal Seizures with awareness

Focal seizures without awareness

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7
Q

How might a focal seizure present clinically?

A

As a “staring episode.”

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8
Q

What is a secondary generalized seizure?

A

A focal seizure that spreads to involve the entire cerebral cortex.

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9
Q

How do primary generalized seizures differ from secondary generalized seizures?

A

Primary generalized seizures start with a diffuse discharge involving the whole brain simultaneously, while secondary generalized seizures begin focally and then generalize.

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10
Q

What are common comorbidities of epilepsy?

A

Mood disorders, sleep disorders, metabolic bone disease, and hyperlipidemia.

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11
Q

What are common causes of provoked seizures?

A

Metabolic disturbances, drug intoxication or withdrawal, infection.

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12
Q

How are single provoked seizures managed?

A

Correct the underlying cause

Anti-Elliptic Usually not needed

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13
Q

When is diagnostic evaluation not needed after a provoked seizure?

A

If the patient has a normal neurologic examination.

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14
Q

What are characteristic features of psychogenic nonepileptic spells (PNES)?

A

Forced eye closure, long duration, hypermotor activity that starts and stops, asynchronous, asymmetric flailing of extremities.

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15
Q

How is PNES diagnosed?

A

Inpatient video EEG monitoring.

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16
Q

What is PNES strongly associated with in military veterans?

17
Q

What is included in the initial evaluation for a first unprovoked seizure?

A

EEG (normal EEG does not rule out seizure), CBC, electrolyte and glucose levels, toxicology screen, brain MRI (or CT head in emergencies), CSF analysis if fever, prolonged altered mental status, immunosuppression, or severe headache.

18
Q

What should you do if a patient does not return to baseline mental status 15 minutes after a seizure?

A

Obtain continuous EEG to rule out nonconvulsive status epilepticus.

19
Q

How can you differentiate syncope from seizure?

A

Syncope involves brief loss of consciousness, occasional tonic-clonic jerking, but quick and complete recovery.

20
Q

Should you diagnose absence seizures in adults?

A

No, absence seizures are not typically diagnosed in adults.

21
Q

When should anticonvulsant therapy be started after seizures?

A

After ≥2 unprovoked seizures or after a single high-risk unprovoked seizure (with focal findings on neuroimaging, EEG, or severe head trauma).

22
Q

What can adding new medications that alter AED metabolism result in?

A

Loss of seizure control.

23
Q

When should epilepsy surgery be considered?

A

When patients fail to respond to their first and second AEDs (in sequence or combination).

24
Q

What is the most common epilepsy surgery?

A

Mesial Temporal Lobe Resection

Remove - sclerotic lesions associated with focal seizures

25
When should emergent head imaging be obtained in status epilepticus?
If the cause is unknown; however, imaging should not delay treatment.
26
What is the most common cause of convulsive status epilepticus?
Low antiepileptic drug (AED) blood level.
27
Which IV anti-epileptic drug is preferred for Anti-epileptic Naive patients?
Fosphenytoin (preferred over phenytoin).
28
What should be done if a patient stops seizing but does not return to baseline within 30 minutes?
Start continuous EEG monitoring to check for nonconvulsive seizures.
29
Should AEDs be given for primary prophylaxis after a new stroke or brain tumor?
No, primary AED prophylaxis is not indicated.
30
What is required for patients with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
Lifelong Anti-Epileptic Medication
31
Which AEDs Inactivate hormonal contraception?
1. Carbamazepine 2. Oxacarbazepine 3. Phenytoin 4. Topiramate
32
A Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or 2 seizures within 5 minutes w/o return to baseline between seizures Management ?
Convulsive Status Epilepticus 1. Emergent CT Head -if no known underlying cause ——-Thiamine and Glucose- if ETOH use is suspected 2. First-line treatment is IV lorazepam, IV diazepam, or IM midazolam. ——-Benzodiazepines should be followed by an IV AED to avoid seizure recurrence. IV Keppra
33
What is anticonvulsant hypersensitivity syndrome?
Rare disorder t develops within 2 months of starting AED ## Footnote This syndrome can lead to severe complications if not recognized and managed promptly.
34
What are the clinical manifestations of anticonvulsant hypersensitivity syndrome?
* Fever * Rash * Pharyngitis * Lymphadenopathy * Facial swelling * Systemic organ involvement (such as hepatitis or nephritis) ## Footnote These symptoms can vary in severity and may affect multiple organ systems.
35
What is the typical time frame for the development of anticonvulsant hypersensitivity syndrome after starting therapy?
Typically within two months. ## Footnote Early recognition is crucial for effective management.
36
What is the management for anticonvulsant hypersensitivity syndrome?
* Discontinuing the offending drug * Administering systemic glucocorticoids ## Footnote Prompt intervention is essential to prevent further complications.