EPME Flashcards
1
Q
TAP prepares SMs for separation. What is the core curriculum on the TAP seminar?
A
Goals, Plans, Success (GPS).
2
Q
What are the steps of the Individual Transition Plan (ITP) Deliverables at TAP?
A
- Pre-separation counseling
- eBenefits registration
- Preparing ITP
- Move up to Capstone
3
Q
What pay grade shall not re-enlist regardless of time in service?
A
E1 and E2
4
Q
What is PGP?
A
Professional Growth Point (PGP) the maximum amount of active military service a member can have for their current pay grade.
5
Q
What is the cut-off date that determines whether or not a member is a HYT candidate?
A
31 December
6
Q
All members in the pay grade _____ are subject to HYT and shall submit a retirement request in accordance with Section 3.G. and 3.H. the Separations manual.
A
E-9
7
Q
What is a HYT PGP Waiver?
A
Allows the member to continue on active duty past the required separation or retirement date - per CG-PSC-EPM
8
Q
What is a CSEL waiver?
A
A waiver for members based on assignments described in the Command Senior Enlisted Leader (CSEL) Program - COMDTINST 1306.1 (series)
9
Q
What is the professional growth point (PGP) per grade?
A
E-1 and E-2: completion of enlistment contract. Cannot reenlist or extend. E-3 and E-4: 10 years active service E-5: 16 years active E-6: 20 years active E-7: 24 years active E-8: 26 years active E-9: 30 years active
10
Q
Members whose active military service time exceeds their PGP are allowed to advance if that advancement occurs on or before ___________ of the year they reach their PGP.
A
31 Dec
11
Q
PGP up reduction in pay grade: Members shall keep the PGP for _____ months from the date of reduction.
A
36 months. At end of 36 months, member shall assumes the PGP of their existing pay-grade, regardless of previous rank.
12
Q
What is PDES?
A
Physical Disability Evaluation System - the PDES process does not exempt a member from becoming an HYT candidate.
13
Q
HYT takes precedence over ________.
A
obligated service.
14
Q
All HYT candidates (E-3 to E-8) will separate, or retire if requested and retirement eligible, no later than ___________ of the year following the year their active military service time exceeds their PGP, unless granted a HYT PGP waiver.
A
1 September
15
Q
Members who reach 30 years active military service between ________ and _________ shall retire on 1 September of the year they exceed their PGP.
A
1 January and 31 August
16
Q
Members who reach 30 years active military service between _________ and _________ shall retire on the first day of the next month after they reach 30 years active military service.
A
1 September and 31 December
17
Q
An _________________ board is not authorized for members discharged due to HYT.
A
administrative separation
18
Q
Because the HYT policy covers discharges and retirements, an ________________ board described in 14 U.S.C. §357 is not authorized for members separated due to HYT.
A
involuntary retirement
19
Q
The member may request to Commander (CG PSC-EPM) to be separated or retired, if eligible, due to HYT, up to ___________ prior to their required separation date. In this case, the nature of the separation is involuntary.
A
six months
20
Q
HYT candidates may be eligible for ___________ if they are not retirement eligible. (10 U.S.C. 1174 (e) (2) (A)).
A
separation pay
21
Q
MSM and below have how many lines of text?
A
Cannot exceed 12 lines of text using Times New Roman 11-12 inch pitch, bold font. If O or V device, entire citation limited to 14 lines (statement double-spaced below citation).
22
Q
Citation for awards above MSM have how many lines of text?
A
Cannot exceed 16 lines of text, 18 including O or V device.
23
Q
What is the basis of the Appeal Process?
A
Incorrect information, prejudice, discrimination. disproportionately low marks for particular circumstances.
24
Q
What may not be appeal on a set of marks?
A
The “Advancement Recommendation” may not be appealed to an appeal authority.
25
Responsibilities of member IRT to an Appeal:
Request and audience: verbally express any concerns with rating chain that could lead to a written appeal.
Written Appeal: If no verbal agreement, appeal in writing.
26
When must a member submit an EER Appeal?
Within in 15 calendar days (45 for reservists) after the date they signed the acknowledgement section of counseling sheet.
NOTE: If the member refuses to sign the counseling sheet, this timeline begins the
date the unit representative signs the refusal to sign statement.
27
Comments are required for any mark of ____________.
1,2,3,7 or when member is NOT recommended for advancement or an unsatisfactory conduct mark.
28
COs will endorse and send appeal letter to appeal authority within ____ calendar days of receiving it from member.
15
29
Appeal authority may ______ the ____ days if CO needs additional info.
extend; 15
| NOTE: COs endorsement should address any delay.
30
The appeal authority must review and act on the appeal within ____ calendar days after receiving it.
15
31
Who may extend the 15 days if appeal authority needs additional time?
PSC-EPM/RPM
32
Who has authority to change a mark?
Appeal authority
33
Can the appeal authority raise or leave a mark unchanged?
Yes.
34
Can the appeal authority lower a mark an AO has assigned?
No.
35
Earring specifics for women:
4-6mm ball studs (1/8-1/4 inch) natural white pearl, white diamond, plain gold, or silver with a shiny or brushed matte finish - centered on earlobe.
36
Backpacks with ODUs may be worn how?
straps over both shoulders or with a single strap over the left shoulder.
37
Women's hair bulk no more than how many inches?
no more than 3 inches
38
Hair must not fall below___________.
bottom edge of collar
39
Hair accessories shall not add more than how many inches of bulk?
2 inches (3 inches max for bun).
40
Men hair bulk no more than how many inches?
1 and 1/2 inches.
41
Men's hair must not touch __________.
top of collar or ear.
42
Men's hair no longer than how many inches?
4 inches.
43
Sideburns shall not extend below ___________________.
point level with the bottom of the ear opening.
44
Dinner dress mini medals worn how?
3 inches below left lapel notch. Women: 1/3 of distance between shoulder and bottom hem of jacket.
45
Maintain how many inches on epaulets when wearing rank insignia?
3/4 inch
46
What are the measurements of insignia on a garrison cap?
The center of both insignia (if officer) are place 1 and 1/2 inches form the bottom of the cap and 2 inches right or left of the front crease.
47
Directives must undergo review every ______ years.
4
48
What is CGHQ-5356?
Directives Control Sheet - Submit to CG-612
49
What is a Letter of Promulgation (LOP)?
LOPs transmit policy, and remain in effect for the life of
the directive. The LOP also lists any reporting or form requirements that the directive
imposes.
50
An instruction has no requirement for what?
A table of contents
51
How many pages does an instruction consist of?
25 (including enclosures)
52
What is a Commandant's Notice?
A Commandant Notice is a directive
of a one-time or brief nature and has the same force and effect as an instruction. All notices have self-cancelling provisions. Issue an instruction for information expected to remain effective for longer than one year. Use a Notice for one (1) year special announcements of morale and subjects short in nature instead of ALCOAST Commandant Notices.
53
What is an Operation Order (OPORD)?
An Operation Order is a directive issued by a commander to a subordinate commander effecting the coordinated execution of an operation.
54
What is CG-4183?
All newly activated or commissioned organizations must complete a Change of Mailing, Freight, and Billing Address, Form CG-4183, per your official Operating Facility Change Order (OFCO).
55
What is form CG-4229?
Digest
56
All directives over 25 pages require what?
A table of contents
57
Where is the signature block positioned on an LOP?
On the fifth line below that last paragraph (four blank lines).
58
What does a "Without Grade of Signing Authority" signature line look like?
The first line should be the name of the signer in all
capital letters. The second line should be the signing authority’s long title.
Example for HQS: A.B. LASTNAME
Assistant Commandant for Human Resources
Example outside of HQS: A.B. LASTNAME
Commander, First Coast Guard District
59
What does a "With Grade of Signing Authority" signature line look like?
The first line should be the name of the signer in all
capital letters. The second line should state his/her military grade, followed by U.S. Coast Guard and the third line should contain the signing authority’s long title.
Example for HQS: A.B. LASTNAME Rear Admiral, U.S. Coast Guard
Assistant Commandant for Human Resources
Example outside of HQS: A.B. LASTNAME
Commander, U.S. Coast Guard First Coast Guard District
60
Where is the /s/ located when a directive is signed?
After the name to indicate it was signed.
61
What are the measurements of the margins on a directive?
The left justified margin should be no less than 1". The right unjustified margin should be no less than 1". The top and bottom margin should be 1".
62
What is the measurement of page numbers on a directive?
Center the page number 1/2 inch form the bottom of the page.
63
What is CG-4590?
Concurrent Clearance Form
64
When do you reissue a directive?
When cumulative changes result the replacement of 50% or more of the directive pages or the sponsor desires to reissue.
65
BRS: The military automatically contributes ___% of your basic pay to your TSP after 60 days of service.
1%
66
What is form CG-7430?
BRS Election form
67
1-4% BRS contributions start at how many months of service?
25 months
68
Class A mishaps are what dollar amount and higher?
1M or greater, loss of life or permanent disability.
69
Class B mishaps are what dollar amount and higher?
A;
70
Class C mishaps are what dollar amount and higher?
A;
71
If you opt into BRS and elect to contribute a portion of your own pay into your TSP account, your service will match up to an additional ____% of your basic pay.
4%
72
No matter how much you contribute of your own pay, maximum contributions are ____ % of your basic pay.
5%
73
To become vested in service automatic (1%) contributions, you must have completed ___ years of service.
2
74
Service members under BRS who qualify for retired pay, may be eligible to elect wither a ___% or ___% discounted portion of their monthly retired pay as a lump sum in exchange for reduced monthly retired pay.
25; 50
75
Monthly retired pay returns to the full amount when the service member reaches ____________________.
their full social security retirement age - for most is 67.
76
IF choosing the lump sum option, you must notify your human resources servicing office no less than ____ days before retirement.
90
77
Payments for the ____ will be deducted from your remaining monthly retired pay if you elect the lump sum.
SBP
78
What does DEERs stand for?
Defense Eligibility Enrollment Reporting system
79
How many P&D 3307s are there?
A
80
Is an EER required after an NJP?
A
81
Immediate (O) codes on messages indicate what delivery time?
A
82
Priority (P) codes on messages indicate what delivery time?
A
83
How many chapters does the DPRI have?
7
84
Gifts that do not exceed $____ can be accepted.
$25?
85
Who flies the CG Ensign?
Cutters and shore units
86
How many total strips does the CG Ensign have?
16 - number of states at the time
| 8 red and 8 white
87
How many battle streamers are flown with the CG standard during ceremonies and parades?
34
88
What is the minimum service requirement for warrant officers?
8 years total active service and at least 4 years total active service in CG/CGR
89
A Progress Message should be sent within ___ hours of a Class A or Class B mishap to the aviation fleet
72
90
Reports of Survey are required for CG property that has a monetary value of what amount?
A
91
How many days of leave are birth mothers authorized?
84 days - 42 maternity convalescent and 42 days of primary caregiver leave
92
How many days of leave are birth mothers authorized?
84 days - 42 maternity convalescent and 42 days of primary caregiver leave (may be taken in two separate periods).
93
Secondary caregivers are authorized ___ days of leave
21 (one continuous period)
94
What is maximum width of a watch?
1 inch
95
What is CG-5354?
PDR - 4 part folder - used to hold unit or SPO-PDR
96
E-1 marking period?
January (all) July (AD only)
97
E-2 marking period?
January (all) July (AD only)
98
E-3 marking period?
February (all) August (AD only)
99
E-4 marking period?
March (all) September (AD only)
100
E-5 marking period?
April (all) October (AD only)
101
E-6 marking period?
May (all) November (AD only)
102
E-7 marking period?
September (all)
103
E-8 marking period?
November (all)
104
E-9 marking period?
June (all)
105
Advance payment of an amount equal to ___ % of the personally procured move monetary allowance when a Service member move his or herself.
60
106
How many types of P&D 3307s?
33
107
Supervisor must council member on marks within ___ days.
30
108
Human Relations Training is completed how often?
Triennially
109
The Coast Guard has ___ roles and ____ missions.
5;11
110
What article gives petty officers apprehension authority under UCMJ?
Article 7
111
What article of the UCMJ is used for insubordination towards and officer?
Article 91
112
What article of the UCMJ is used for failure to obey an order or regulation?
Article 92
113
What is the 'Z' code for messages?
Flash action - goal of 10 minutes
114
What is the 'O' code for messages?
Immediate - 30 minutes
115
What is the 'P' code for messages?
Priority - 3 hours
116
What is the 'R' code for messages?
Routine - 6 hours
117
What priority does a member have on an INCONUS underway unit?
3
118
How many paid ADT days are SELRES authorized per year?.
12; unless PSU then 15....
119
What flag must be displayed when the CG is engaged in law enforcement?
CG Ensign
120
What is Level I of the Alcohol and Abuse Rehab Prevention Program or Substance Abuse and Prevention Program (SAP)?
Level I: Outpatient Treatment
121
What is Level II of the Alcohol and Abuse Rehab Prevention Program or Substance Abuse and Prevention Program (SAP)?
Level II: Intensive Outpatient/Partial Hospitalization
122
What is Level III of the Alcohol and Abuse Rehab Prevention Program or Substance Abuse and Prevention Program (SAP)?
Level III: Residential/Inpatient
123
What is Level IV of the Alcohol and Abuse Rehab Prevention Program or Substance Abuse and Prevention Program (SAP)?
Level IV:Medically Managed Intensive Inpatient Treatment (detox)
124
Who is responsible for the SAP program?
CG-1111
125
What is SAPM?
Substance Abuse Program Manager - serves as manager for SAP program
126
What is a SAPPS?
Substance Abuse Prevention Program Supervisor
127
What is a SAPS?
Substance Abuse Prevention Specialist
128
Commands with ___ or more members will designate a CDAR.
15
129
Commands with ___ or greater will designate at minimum one primary and one alternate CDAR
50
130
Commands with less than ___ members and
collocated with a larger command may request
permission from that command to designate the larger unit’s CDAR as their unit CDAR
15
131
To be a CDAR, you must be an E-__ to E-__
E5-E8 or chief warrant officer or O1-O4 - members must not be in a supervisory role.
132
How many elements are in the GAR model?
6
133
What are the six elements of the GAR model?
```
Supervision
Planning
Crew Selection
Crew Fitness
Environment
Event Complexity
```
134
Who is required to complete the Danger/Caution tag-out control sheet?
A
135
How many FPCONs are there?
5 - NORMAL, ALPHA, BRAVO, CHARLIE, DELTA
136
What FPCON applies in the immediate area where the attack has occurred and intelligence indicates a specific target location is likely?
CHARLIE
137
Can a Mast Rep submit evidence?
A
138
How many characters are comments limited to on an competency with exception of conduct and advancement potential on the EER?
220 characters
139
What is FOCON Normal?
When general global threat of possible terrorist activity is possible.
140
What is FPCON Bravo?
When increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exits.
141
What is FPCON Delta?
When immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that a terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent..
142
Class A mishaps are ________ and higher.
2,000,000 or greater; fatality or permanent disability; missing military member, damage to CG boat of 300,000 or greater
143
Class B mishaps are ________ and higher, but less than _________.
500,000 or greater, but less than 2,000,000
144
What is BRS continuation pay?
Payable between 8 years but before 12 years - calculated from service member's pay entry base date. Payment of at least 2.5 to 13 times basic monthly pay. Reservists eligible for 0.5 times.
145
Class C mishaps are _______ and greater, but less than _______.
50,000 or greater, but less than 500,000.
146
Class D mishaps are _______ and greater, but less than _______.
5,000 or greater but less than 50,000
147
What is the defined benefit multiplier under BRS?
2%
148
Government automatic and matching contributions of up to __ % if basic pay.
5%??? or 4%???
149
To become vested in the Service Automatic Contribution (1%) you must have completed ___ years of service.
2
150
Members may elect to receive a ____ % or ____ % lump sum payment of their retired pay discounted to the PV in exchange for reduced monthly retired pay until age 67.
25 or 50
