EPME E-5 and below Flashcards
(155 cards)
1
Q
Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?
A
ETQC-SMB-TAG@uscg.mil
2
Q
The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to ____ months of education benefits.
A
36 months
3
Q
A purpose of what program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard?
A
Advanced Education
4
Q
According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than ____ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.
A
95,000
5
Q
What is considered binge drinking for men?
A
5 drinks
6
Q
What is considered binge drinking for women?
A
4 drinks
7
Q
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?
A
0.08
8
Q
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
A
1.5 oz
9
Q
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
A
Suicide Attempt
10
Q
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
A
Suicide
11
Q
What term is defined as self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
A
Self-Harm
12
Q
Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a ____ level of intensity.
A
Medium to vigorous
13
Q
According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?
A
Moderate
14
Q
Deliberate use of the Risk Management process ____ by reducing member exposure to hazards.
A
Increases mission success
15
Q
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?
A
GAR 2.0
16
Q
What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?
A
Crew endurance
17
Q
Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?
A
PEACE and STAAR Models
18
Q
To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, members must not exceed ____ hours of combined duty-hours and driving hours.
A
14 hours
19
Q
Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?
A
Desert Storm/Shield
20
Q
In which year did the United States Coast Guard conduct the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina?
A
2005
21
Q
The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following ____.
A
The World Trade Center attack
22
Q
What language did Semper Paratus originate from?
A
Latin
23
Q
If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?
A
Manufacturer
24
Q
Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the ____ to prevent improper use or handling.
A
Safety Data Sheet
25
Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?
O-6 or higher
26
Transition/Relocation Managers may provide ____ with local resource information.
Welcome Packages
27
What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?
Family Advocacy Specialist (FAS)
28
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months?
March and September
29
The end of marking periods for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months?
April and October
30
On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), award points are earned up to what point?
Servicewide Eligibility Date (SED)
31
A first term enlisted member’s IDP must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor within ____ days of reporting to the unit.
30 days
32
What is the control option used for specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?
Avoid
33
What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?
STAAR
34
In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?
Feedback
35
Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an "UNSAT" conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?
6 months.
36
Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?
Investigator Rating or Diver Rating
37
Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?
based on service need and will be announced by ALCOAST message.
38
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
Suicide
39
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
Self-Harm
40
What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide Threat
41
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Suicide Attempt
42
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with no injury is reported as _____.
Self Harm Level 1
43
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with injury is reported as _____.
Self Harm Level 2
44
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm resulting in death is reported as _____.
Self Harm Level 3
45
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as _____.
Suicide Attempt Level 2
46
For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as _____.
Suicide Attempt Level 1
47
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide-Related Ideations
48
What would be the cause to report a Self-Harm Level 3 in the Suicide Prevention Program?
Death
49
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Undetermined Suicide-Related Behavior
50
Dismissing _____ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
Suicide-Related Ideation.
51
In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____ at some point in their lives.
Episode of Suicidal Thinking
52
What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
Suicide-Related Communications.
53
What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior.
Suicide Plan
54
What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide Plan
55
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
IS PATH WARM? (Ideation, Substance use, Purposelessness, Anxiety, Trapped, Hopelessness, Withdrawal, Anger, Recklessness, Mood Changes.
56
_____ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.
Asking
57
What may be helpful to lead into the question "Are you thinking about killing yourself?"
Statement of your observations.
58
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE (Ask, Care, Escort)
59
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
Ask step.
60
During the _____ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
Care step.
61
During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
Care step.
62
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
Care Step
63
In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
Care Step
64
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Care step.
65
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Care Step
66
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?
Escort Step.
67
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?
Escort Step.
68
If you ask a person "Are you thinking about killing yourself?" and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
Ask the question again, letting the person know you are serious.
69
If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?
How? Situation? History?
70
Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Regional Work-Life Office.
71
Which is the most reliable way to avoid STD infection?
Abstinence
72
Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans?
All Active Duty
73
Who do your submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?
Submitted to their supervisors.
74
When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?
Months of April and October.
75
The most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved by _____.
the member and supervisor.
76
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?
150 minutes
77
Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?
2 or more days.
78
All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____ per week.
180 minutes per week.
79
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.
150 minutes.
80
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of strength training.
30 minutes.
81
Because the effects of physical activity are cumulative, exercise sessions may vary in length, with a minimum of _____ minutes, in order to be beneficial.
10 minutes
82
In general, physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?
3 days per week.
83
Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a _____ level of intensity.
medium to vigorous level of intensity.
84
According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?
Moderate-Intensity.
85
What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?
CG-6049.
86
Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve _____.
Acceptance of some level of risk.
87
What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps if not managed?
7 human factors (mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision making, communication, and assertiveness).
88
Deliberate use of the Risk Management process _____ by reducing member exposure to hazards.
Increases mission success.
89
The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the _____.
expected risk exposure.
90
What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?
Risk Management Process.
91
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?
GAR 2.0
92
When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?
When hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure.
93
Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is _____.
continuous and adaptive.
94
Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?
5 steps (1. Identify Hazards, 2. Assessing Hazards, 3. Developing controls and making decisions, 4. Implementing controls, 5. Supervising and evaluation controls).
95
What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as-needed-basis, when new missions/activities are introduced to the unit?
Risk Assessment Matrix (RAM).
96
What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?
Crew Endurance
97
Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _____.
Address unique operational realities.
98
Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?
PEACE and STAAR models.
99
_____ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.
Risk
100
_____ is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity.
Risk Management (RM).
101
How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
3 steps (Assess Hazard Exposure, Assess Hazard Severity, Assess Probability).
102
What is binge drinking for women?
04 drinks within a 2 hour period.
103
What is binge drinking for men?
05 drinks within a 2 hour period
104
A sign of alcohol poisoning is _____.
Passes out and cannot be awakened
Vomiting while passed out
Has cold, clammy, and/or pale skin
Breathing is slow and irregular
105
Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
0,1,2,3 model
106
The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that "zero" drinks is the low risk option when _____.
when one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications
107
A member diagnosed within the first _____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.
180 days
108
The music for Semper Paratus was Written by __?
Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck
109
The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of__ praising the revenue cutter ingham
New Orleans
110
When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?
Not known exactly, between 1896 and 1897
111
The _____ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.
CG Stripe
112
The _____ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.
CG Stripe
113
The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.
CG Shield
114
The Coast Guard _____ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.
CG Emblem
115
The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in
1927
116
The _____ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.
CG Seal
117
The _____ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.
CG Seal
118
The presence of the _____ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.
Commissioning Pennant
119
The _____ is the canton of the United States Flag.
Union Jack
120
The _____ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.
Union Jack
121
The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____ battle streamers.
43
122
The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____.
U.S. Marine Corps.
123
Only _____ may display a complete set of battle streamers.
Major Headquarters Commands
124
Individual units may only display those _____ that they have earned.
Streamers
125
Battle streamers are attached to the _____, replacing cords and tassels.
Coast Guard Standard
126
This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.
Coast Guard Standard
127
The _____ is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.
Coast Guard Standard
128
On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the _____.
Coast Guard Ensign
129
The _____ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.
Coast Guard Ensign
130
The _____ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.
Coast Guard Ensign
131
How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
26 times
132
Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?
DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal
133
DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
Bronze Star with Combat “V” and the purple heart.
134
In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for _____ days.
87 days
135
The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following _____.
9/11
136
In which year did the United States Coast Guard conducted the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurrican Katrina?
2005
137
Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?
Operation Desert Shield/Storm in the Persian Gulf
138
During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?
26 Point class patrol boats
139
During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.
Operation Market Time
140
Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day.
Captain Quentin R. Walsh
141
During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?
Captain Quentin R. Walsh
142
During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
6 Cutters. CGC Tampa was one of them and sunk.
143
Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?
World War 1
144
An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish _____ duties for the United States Coast Guard.
Captain of the Port.
145
The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____ during World War I.
A torpedo
146
What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?
USRC HARRIET LANE
147
On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____.
United States Revenue Cutter Service.
148
Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?
Ellsworth Price Bertholf
149
Who was the Coast Guard's first aviator?
LT Elmer Stone
150
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?
March 1st, 2003.
151
When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?
April 1st, 1967.
152
The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?
January 28th, 1915.
153
The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _____ when the Revenue Cutter Gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.
1831
154
In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?
Steamboat Inspection Service
155
The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.
10
