Facilities Flashcards
(149 cards)
1
Q
An analysis that examines and evaluates the infrastructure and operations of a port, taking into account possible threats, vulnerabilities, and existing protective measures.
A
Area Maritime Security (AMS) Assessment
2
Q
An evaluation of a security assessment or security plan, intended to identify inadequacies that would render the assessment of plan insufficient.
A
Audit
3
Q
Which MARSEC level involves additional security measures for a period of time as a result of a heightened risk of a TSI?
A
MARSEC Level 2
4
Q
Which MARSEC level involves specific protective security measures for a limited time when a TSI is probable or imminent?
A
MARSEC Level 3
5
Q
Term for the area with access control that the FSP applies to:
A
Secure area
6
Q
Who does a facility submit an alternate security program to?
A
Commandant
7
Q
Who sets MARSEC Levels?
A
Commandant
8
Q
Who can temporarily raise the MARSEC Level for a port?
A
COTP
9
Q
Waterfront facilities must report TSIs to…
A
COTP
10
Q
Who do Outer Continental Shelf facilities report TSIs to?
A
District Commander
11
Q
Report security breaches to…
A
NRC
12
Q
Who issues MARSEC Directives?
A
Commandant
13
Q
105 does not apply to which facilities?
A-Receives commercial fishing vessels subject to 46 CFR 105
B-Receives passenger vessels with 150 passengers.
C-Receives SOLAS vessels.
D-Receives US cargo vessels subject to Subchapter I.
A
A-Receives commercial fishing vessels subject to 46 CFR 105
14
Q
The same person can be the FSO for more than one facility, provided…
A
-The facilities are in the same COTP zone, and
-Not more than 50 miles apart.
15
Q
To count a MARSEC Level change as an exercise, a facility must…
A
Report attainment to the COTP.
16
Q
How often must facility security drills be conducted?
A
Every 3 months
17
Q
Facility security drills must cover what parts of the FSP?
A
Individual
18
Q
If a vessel is at a facility during a security drill, the vessel…
A
Cannot be required to participate.
19
Q
How often must facility security exercises conducted?
A
Every calendar year, not to exceed 18 months between
20
Q
Security exercises must test…
A
-Communication and notification procedures,
-Coordination, resource availability, and response
21
Q
Facility security exercises are…
A
A full test of the security program.
22
Q
How long must a facility keep security training, drills, exercises, and maintenance records?
A
2 years, except for USCG inspection forms
23
Q
How long must a facility retain a Declaration of Security?
A
90 days
24
Q
How long a facility must attain a MARSEC level change in…
A
12 hours
25
How long is a Declaration of Security valid for at MARSEC Level 1?
90 days
26
What is the maximum duration of a Declaration of Security?
90 days
27
How long is a Declaration of Security valid for at MARSEC Level 2?
30 days
28
Where do you need a TWIC to have unescorted access?
-Secure area
29
At MARSEC Level 2, what type of screening must be conducted on all unaccompanied baggage?
X-Ray
30
At all MARSEC levels, cruise ship terminals must ensure the screening of…
All persons, baggage, and personal effects.
31
How many towing vessels must be available for a barge fleeting facility?
One for every 100 barges.
32
FSPs must be protected per…
49 CFR 1520 (Protecting SSI)
33
Designated dangerous cargo includes:
Division 1.1 and 1.2 explosives
34
Arrangement of cargo to allow for access to firefighting must be according to what NFPA and chapter?
NFPA 307 Ch 8-5
35
On a designated waterfront facility, what must be kept in adequate numbers and locations?
Fire extinguishing equipment
36
Hazardous materials used in the operation or maintenance of a 126 facility may be stored in what quantities?
Amounts necessary for normal operation conditions.
37
Storage of flammable liquids must be in accordance with what?
NFPA 30
38
Where on a facility of particular hazard must warning alarms be installed?
Waterside
39
On a facility of a particular hazard, how far must visual warning alarms be installed to be seen or heard from a distance away of__.
1 mile
40
What must be marked on all containers of ammonium nitrate?
Proper shipping name
41
Ammonium nitrate must be separated from organic materials by a wall or a distance of…
30 feet
42
Distance of hot work from hazmat stores:
100 feet from explosives
50 feet from other hazmat
43
Distance of hot work from gas freezing operations?
100 feet
44
Distance of hot work from fueling operations?
100 feet
45
LNG products marked with the letter T means?
Toxic
46
How far in advance must a 127 facility submit a Letter of Intent to the COTP?
1 year prior to the start of construction
47
How soon must the COTP be notified if any of the information on the Letter of Intent changes?
Within 15 days
48
The preliminary waterway suitability assessment must be submitted with the _
Letter of Intent
49
When must the follow-on Water Suitability Assessment be submitted?
180 days prior to transfer
50
After receiving the Letter of Intent from a 127 facility, the COTP will…
Issue a Letter of Recommendation
51
How far in advance of operations must a 127 facility submit alternative compliance requests?
30 days
52
Each LNG loading flange must be _ from each bridge crossing a navigable waterway and each entrance to a tunnel under a navigable waterway
300 meters
53
What must an LNG facility’s emergency power provide power to?
Emergency shutdown, communications, firefighting, emergency lighting
54
What does not need to be serviced by an LNG facility’s emergency power?
Security
55
Lighting on a 127 facility must be how bright?
55 lux (5 foot-candles) at loading flanges
11 lux (1 foot-candle) in work areas
56
Emergency lighting in an LNG facility must illuminate what 3 things?
Emergency shutdown systems
Communications equipment
Firefighting equipment
57
LNG fixed sensors must have…
Audio and visual alarms in the control room
58
Warning alarms on an LNG facility must maintain 50% flash intensity in a vertical arc…
1 degree above and below the horizontal plane
59
Each light and siren on an LNG/LHG facility must be located…
So that the warning alarm is not obstructed for a distance of 1 mile in all directions
60
Parking spaces on an LNG facility must be ___ from any storage tank or loading flange.
15 meters
61
What must the PIC test before transferring LNG?
Sensors/alarms
Emergency shutdown
Communication systems
62
What does the PIC not need to do for a shoreside LNG release?
Notify nearby vessels
(This is an operator responsibility)
63
What must the PIC do in the event of an LNG release?
Immediately notify vessel PIC
Shutdown transfer
Notify COTP
Not resume until authorized by COTP
64
LNG personnel must receive refresher training how often?
Every 5 years
65
Each hose on an LNG facility must be___ diameter, and ___or less in length.
1 1/2 inches
100 feet
66
LNG facilities must have an international shore connection meeting what standard?
ASTM F1121-87
67
Underwater pipelines must be protected as per:
49 CFR 195.248
Applies to LHG facilities
68
Each LHG hose and loading arm must be adequately supported against the weight of its constituent parts, the LHG being transferred, and___.
Any ice formed on it.
69
Each LHG loading arm must have an alarm to indicate when it is approaching the limits of its extension, unless___.
The Operations Manual requires a person to perform the same function
70
Each LHG loading arm must have a nameplate or other permanent marking which indicates what 3 things?
Each LHG it handles
MAWP and corresponding service temperature
Minimum service temperature
71
Substructures in the marine transfer area of an LHG facility must have a fire endurance rating of ___.
2 hours
72
Each LHG manifold or loading arm must be ___ from bridges or tunnels crossing navigable waterways.
60 meters
73
Each LHG manifold or loading arm must be___ from public roadways.
30 meters
74
What must an LHG facility’s gas detectors be able to detect?
30% LEL of each flammable product, and
PEL of each toxic product
75
What type of shut-off valve must LHG facilities be equipped with?
Quick Closing
76
If transferring flammable LHG, valves must have fusible elements that melt at less than 105 c (221 F), or ___
Sensors that perform the same function
77
LHG facilities must have a warning alarm that is audible for ___
1 mile from the transfer in all directions
78
Lights and sirens on an LNG facility must be located___
So as to minimize obstructions, and to be heard and seen for 1 mile
79
What first aid training is not required for PICs on LHG facilities?
Frostbite
Actual requirements are:
Burns
CPR
Toxic exposure (if handled)
Medical transport
80
Pressure tests for LHG hoses and loading arms must be at least ___times the MAWP and last for at least___.
1.1 times the MAWP
30 minutes
81
When testing the pressure gauges on an LHG facility, displayed pressure must be within ___ of actual pressure.
10 percent
82
Each water system on an LHG facility must have pipes and hoses of ___ diameter, enough hose to___.
2 1/2 inches,
Connect the hydrant to the vessel.
83
Each water system on an LHG facility must supply water for how long?
At least 2 hours
84
Where is the Marine transfer area for oil/hazmat?
Between the vessel and the first manifold or shutoff valve after the pipeline enters secondary containment.
85
When is a transfer considered to be complete?
After all connections are uncoupled and closed, and the DOI is complete.
86
When is an ops manual reviewed?
After initial submission, following substantial changes, and when required by the COTP.
87
A facility operator may request that portions of their operations manual be considered _or__
Privileged or confidential
88
After reviewing an OPS manual, the COTP will provide notice stating…
Examined by the coast guard
89
What manual or document provides the PIC with initial notification procedures, means of accessing emergency containment equipment, and procedures for reporting initial containment of a spill?
Ops manual (no reference requiring the PIC to have the FRP immediately available).
90
How many days does a facility have to respond to COTP written notice of inadequacies in their ops manual?
45 days
91
The minimum design burst pressure for oil or hazmat hoses must be ____ times the relief valve setting plus static head pressure.
4
92
HAZMAT hoses shall be marked:
HAZMAT SERVICE – SEE LIST, followed by a letter, number, or symbol.
93
What does not need to be marked on a hose if it is listed in hose records?
-Date of manufacture
-Date of last test
94
What must never be marked on a transfer hose?
Burst pressure and test pressure.
95
There are hoses in the transfer area which have not been blanked off. The facility manager says the hoses are new, and have never been used. Is this a deficiency?
No. New, unused hoses and hoses which have been gas-freed are exempt from this requirement.
96
What may the COTP require an MTR facility to install?
Monitoring devices
97
Small discharge containment on a facility that has four hoses of 6” diameter.
2 barrels
98
Small discharge containment on a facility with 12” hoses:
4 barrels
99
Amount of small discharge containment for a mobile facility.
5 gallons
100
How quickly must the emergency shut-off activate on a bulk oil facility constructed on or after Nov 1, 1980?
30 seconds
101
How quickly must the emergency shut-off activate on a bulk HAZMAT facility constructed on or after Oct 4, 1990?
30 seconds
102
COTP may require a lighting inspection with a meter held…
3 feet above the deck
103
Lighting: On a horizontal place ____ ft above the deck, must measure ____ at transfer connection points and ____ in work areas.
3 feet
5.0 foot candles
1.0 foot candle
104
A small or remote 154 facility may be allowed to use an adequate amount of lighting approved by whom?
COTP
105
Where must designation of PICs be kept?
Carried by each PIC while engaged in transfer operations, unless immediately available at the facility.
Often kept in the Ops Manual, but this is not a requirement.
106
How long must a facility maintain records of Coast Guard examinations?
3 years
107
How long must a 154 facility retain records of repairs?
3 years
108
Significant and substantial harm facilities, and substantial harm facilities must submit…
Facility response plans.
109
How is the maximum most probable discharge calculated?
Lesser of 1,200 barrels or 10% of the worst case discharge
110
Where must a Qualified Individual be located?
Within the United States.
111
What is the worst case discharge for a mobile facility?
Loss of the entire contents of the container in which oil is stored or transported.
112
Facility Response Plans must be written in…
English
113
Facilities of significant and substantial harm, and facilities of significant harm must have what in their Response Plans?
Emergency Response Action Plan
114
FRPs must be in accordance with the ACP in effect ___ months prior to initial plan submission or the annual plan review.
6 months
115
A significant and substantial harm facility’s response plan must list enough trained personnel to respond to a spill for how long?
7 days
116
Who must guarantee training for private response personnel?
Owner/operator
117
How often must QI notification drills be conducted?
Quarterly
118
How often must equipment deployment exercises be conducted for facility owned equipment?
Semiannually
119
How often must OSRO owned response equipment be deployed?
Annually
120
All components of a Facility Response Plan must be exercised how often?
Every 3 years
121
How long must a 154 facility’s owner or operator maintain exercise records?
3 years
122
Period of validity for a Facility Response Plan:
5 years
123
When must a facility submit corrections to their FRP requested by the COTP?
Within the time specified by the COTP in the deficiency letter.
124
When must the COTP finish reviewing requested corrections to a Facility Response Plan?
Within 30 days of submission
125
Which subpart of 154 covers vapor control systems?
Subpart P
126
An “existing” vapor control system began operating prior to:
July 23rd, 1990?
August 15th, 2013?
127
Vapor control systems (VCSs) must be certified by whom?
Certifying entity
128
A vapor control system must comply with which NFPA?
NFPA 70: Electrical equipment
129
A vapor collection arm must be painted ____ and labeled ____.
Red/yellow/red; “VAPOR”
130
Each facility vapor connection flange must be protected by a…
Stud ½” in diameter and 1” long
131
Hoses that transfer vapors must have a design burst pressure of at least ____, and max allowable working pressure of ____.
-Burst: 25 PSI
-MAWP: 5 PSI
132
Vapor recovery hoses must be able to withstand a vacuum of…
2 psi
133
A VCS’s vapor collection rate must be at least ____ times the maximum cargo transfer rate.
1.25
(vapor growth plus inerting gas)
134
A VCS must be designed to prevent tank pressure or vacuum from exceeding ____ of the relief valve settings.
80%
135
A VCS must be designed to prevent tank pressure from going below ____ PSI.
0.2
136
When does a transfer begin?
When both PICs first meet to begin completing the declaration of inspection.
137
What in a transfer system is allowed to leak?
Packing glands
138
What must be available to PICs during a transfer?
Ops manual and DOI
139
How many bolts must be used for temporary transfer connections?
At least every other hole, and in no case less than 4
140
How long must a facility retain a DOI?
1 month from the date of signature
141
Prior to transferring oil, non-metallic hoses must not burst, bulge, leak, or distort under ____ times the MAWP.
1 ½
142
A facility must have reception facilities if it takes vessels of…
-400 GT
143
COA form for NLS:
Form B
144
A reception facility receives what document?
Certificate of Adequacy (COA)
145
How much notice is required for an oil reception facility to receive oil and oily mixtures?
24 hours
146
Oil reception facilities must be able to complete transfer of oily ballast water in less than…
10 hours
147
Oil reception facilities must be able to complete transfer of other oily mixtures in less than…
4 hours
148
Where must all rubbish or waste be stored on a designated waterfront facility?
Adequate receptacles
149
What certificate does a reception facility receive?
Certificate of adequacy
