Epme e5 Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

What should you do if you find errors on your PDE?

A

Note them on a printed copy of the form, sign it, and provide it to your admin officer

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2
Q

How can you access your SWE PDE?

A

Self Service in DA

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3
Q

On your PDE you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first advancement on or after what date?

A

SED (service eligibility date)

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4
Q

You will be credited Sea Time points on your PDE at what rate?

A

2 points per year or .166 per month

WMLS will get 2.33 points per year

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5
Q

On your PDE, award points are earned up to what point?

A

Service wide eligibility date

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6
Q

On your PDE, TIR and TIS are computed up to what point?

A

Future date for SWE eligibility

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7
Q

You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the job ranking preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections?

A

You will have to submit a new eResume the next day. Only one a day

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8
Q

Once you have chosen all desired job basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?

A

Click save to JOB BASKET

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9
Q

What should you do after ranking positions I. Order of preference on your eResume?

A

Click return to previous page

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10
Q

You have submitted an incorrect eResume. What can you do to delete the information?

A

DA does not allow for deletions of incorrect eResumes

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11
Q

How is risk defined within Risk Management?

A

Is a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity

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12
Q

What is the first choice in the standard order of precedence for RM controls?

A

Design and engineering solutions to achieve minimum risk

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13
Q

Which of the following is a Risk Assessment pitfall?

A

Over optimism, Misrepresentation, Alarmism, Indiscrimination, Prejudice, Inaccuracy, Enumeration

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14
Q

In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, “WHY” analysis is used in which action?

A

Action 3- List

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15
Q

Develop Controls is an action for which step in the RM process?

A

step 3

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16
Q

Within the RM Process, which is a type of control that can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?

A

Engineering controls, physical controls, administrative controls, educational controls, operational controls

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17
Q

Which of the following is an action in step 4 of the RM process?

A

Action 1- Make implementation clear

Action 2- established accountability

Action 3- provide support

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18
Q

In step 5 of the RM process, ensuring that changes requiring further RM are identified is part of which action?

A

Action 1- monitor

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19
Q

What provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

STAAR (spread out, transfer, avoid, accept, reduce)

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20
Q

In which step of the RM process cycle does a member, establish accountability?

A

Step 4. Implement Controls

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21
Q

In step 1 of the TM process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed what model can be used?

A

PEACE

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22
Q

What is the control method to reduce or eliminate risk from a hazard that identifies when it is possible to avoid specific risk by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?

A

AVOID

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23
Q

Reducing risk by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task, to another individual, unit or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using

A

STAAR method

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24
Q

Which of the following is the foundation of the risk management process?

A

Crew resource management
Bridge resource management
Team coordination training
Maintenance resource management

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25
What is defined as “the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard”
RISK
26
What is defined as “a process to identify, assess control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity”?
Risk Management (RM)
27
Which is an action taking during the first step in the RM process?
Action 1- mission/task analysis Action 2- what can go wrong analysis Action 3- list causes
28
What does the RM process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?
Effective teamwork and communication
29
What does analysis of a mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?
Lack of deliberate and systematic Rm during preparation, planning, and execution of operations
30
Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature involve____?
The acceptance of some level of risk
31
What critical human factor that will increase the potential for Erie-induced if not managed?
Mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision making, communication, assertiveness
32
Deliberate use of risk management process________ by reducing member exposure to hazards.
Increases mission success
33
The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant the _________.
Expected risk exposure
34
What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?
Risk Management
35
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?
GAR 2.0
36
When is RM most effective?
When hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigation’s and controls to reduce risk exposure.
37
Since all coast guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the risk management process is?
Continuous and adaptive
38
What is captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?
PEACE and STAAR analysis
39
What model is used to identify those Ellen wants considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?
PEACE model
40
What outlines potential strategies to mitigate and or control risk?
STAAR model
41
What are the steps of risk RM?
1. Identify hazards 2. Assessing hazards 3. Developing controls and making decisions 4. Implementing controls 5. Supervising and evaluating controls
42
What are the units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as needed basis?
Risk assessment matrix (RAM)
43
What should units use at the start of each day?
GAR 2.0
44
Which models when used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the chain of command, assist in decision making, and encourage robust risk management?
PEACE and STAAR models
45
What is a function of physiological factors that support the ability of crew members to perform safely and effectively?
Endurance
46
Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 to?
Address unique operational realities
47
At a minimum units must include all elements of which model in their GAR 2.0?
PEACE
48
Which models can also be applied to activities outside the workplace that are often spontaneous and dynamic?
PEACE and STAAR
49
What shall all units use to conduct a real time assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personnel to hazards?
GAR 2.0
50
Which is a model to identify hazards?
STAAR
51
How many actions are there in the last step of RM preocess?
3
52
Develop controls is the first action in which step of the RM process?
Step 3
53
Documentation is critical to success of which step in the overall RM process?
Step.5- supervise and evaluate
54
The first step in the IDP process is to?
Initiate the IDP as part of the individual check-in at the unit
55
An IDP is not_____?
A performance evaluation method A contract for training A means for or revising a position description
56
What is the basis for scheduling the next counseling session for an enlisted members IDP?
Every 6 months after their first one
57
What form number is an Enlisted IDP?
CG-5357
58
Which element of successful leaders is associated with the leadership competency “taking care of people”?
Leading others
59
Which leadership competency is being displayed by a First-line Supervisor who coaches others and provides sound, thought advice?
Mentoring
60
The anticipated level of expertise for first line supervisors for the effective communications leadership competency includes which of the following?
Produces materials that are clear and articulate Speaks in concise effective organized manner, tailored to the audience Listens attentively, understands and absorbs the message of others Observes body language and other forms of non verbal communications
61
What traits described for coast guard leaders within the effective communications competency?
Good listeners Facilities an open exchange of ideals Ask for feedback routinely Communicates face to face whenever possible a
62
Coast guard leaders communicate effectively in which of the following ways?
Formal and informal settings
63
What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first line supervisor in Respect for Others and Diversity Management?
Treats all individuals fairly and without bias Acts in compliance with coast guard policies
64
What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first line supervisor in influencing others?
Learns to influence others Gains cooperation Showing respectful understanding of there positions
65
What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
1. Define 2. Identify When parties are in conflict 3. Identify stages of conflict 4. Determine appropriate conflict style 5. Employ 6. Facilitate
66
Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer to peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive?
Escalation
67
What is the first stage of conflict escalation?
Disagreement
68
In this conflict management style each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want?
Compromising
69
In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires?
Accommodating
70
In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires?
Competing
71
The coast guards preferred style for conflict management is?
Collaboration
72
What is the last stage I. Resolving conflicts among peers?
5. Resolution
73
Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?
Stage 4. De-Escalation
74
What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict?
Where a peer to peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive
75
What is the third stage of conflict?
Escalation
76
Which of the following are a behavioral clue that a conflict with a peer may exist?
Avoids interaction with you or eye contact Outgoing interactions with you have quickly stopped You hear rumors A significant decrease in professional daily verbal interaction with you The person has a decreased involving unit activities
77
An IDP is?
A tool to facilitate a conversation that the supervisor uses to discuss professional and personal goals