Equine 2 Flashcards

(117 cards)

1
Q

explain how equine grass sickness can lead to ileus

A

generalised dysautonomia –> decreased intestinal motility and GI secretions –> ileus +/- large colon impactions leading to ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the clinical signs of equine grass sickness

A
  • death in 48 hours if acute
  • colic
    • gastric fluid reflux on NG intubation
    • pseudoimpactions
  • tucked up posture
  • sweating
  • muscle fasciculations
  • ptosis
  • tachycardia (beyond that expected for degree of pain/hypovolaemia)
  • rhinitis sicca
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the current thought on EGS aetiology?

A

toxicoinfection with Clostridium botulinum types C and D whereby the toxin is locally produced in the horse’s GIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the horse related risk factors of EGS

A
  • age 2-7yo (rare in foals and older horses)
  • good/fat condition
  • low antibody levels to C botulinum type C and BoNT/C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the seasonal risk factors of EGS

A
  • spring and early summer (can be year round)

- cooler, dry weather with irregular frosts in 2 weeks before outbreak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the premises risk factors of EGS

A
  • high numbers of horses
  • young horses present
  • stud/livery/riding school
  • sand and loam soils > clay > chalk
  • increased soil nitrogen
  • previous occurrence at site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the management risk factors of EGS

A
  • access to grass
  • dietary change
  • movement/stress
  • pasture disturbance
  • anthelmintic use (ivermectins)
  • mechanical droppings removal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how is EGS definitively diagnosed

A

histopathology of autonomic or enteric ganglia at PM or following ileal biopsy (exlap will lead to diagnosis but worse for prognosis)
see chromatolysis, vacuolation of cells within autonomic ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the result of topical administration of phenylephrine drops 0.5% to the eye

A

reversal of ptosis in ipsilateral eye

false positives can be seen e.g. if A2A used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what may be seen on oesophgeal endoscopy and barium swallow in EGS

A

linear oesophageal ulcers (due to GI reflux)

defective oesophageal motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how is acute or subacute EGS treated

A
IV fluids
analgesia 
regular gastric decompression 
feeding 
once definitive diagnosis made recommend euthanasia or some subacute cases may become chronic and survive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how is chronic EGS treated

A
  • analgesia
  • palatable, high energy food available
  • hand feed
  • box rest with regular walks and grass access
  • warmth
  • monitor weight
  • bute or flunixiin and omeprazole for post-prandial colic
  • mucolytics/steam for rhinitis
  • prokinetics (cisapride no longer available)
  • appetite simulation (diazepam uncommonly used)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when should you consider treating EGS

A
  • horse attempting to swallow feed and drink and retains some ability to do so
  • no continuous moderate/severe colic signs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what premises factors may help prevent EGS

A
  • avoid previously affected sites

- soil exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what management factors may help to prevent EGS

A

minimise

  • grazing
  • movement
  • change of feed
  • pasture disturbance
  • frequent ivermectin use
  • mechanical droppings removal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what protective factors may help prevent EGS

A
  • cograzing with ruminants
  • regular grass cutting
  • manual droppings removal
  • supplementary forage feeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the main features of enterobacteriaceae

A
  • gram negative rods
  • facultative anaerobes
  • most are motile
  • tolerate bile salts in selective media
  • grow on non-enriched media
  • oxidase negative
  • catalase positive
  • ferment glucose
  • reduce nitrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

name the major enteric pathogenic enterobacteriaceae

A

E coli
salmonella serotypes
yersinia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

name some opportunistic enterobacteriaceae

A
  • proteus
  • enterobacter
  • klebiella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how are enterobacteriaceae differentiated

A
  • lactose fermentations
  • reactions on selective media
  • eosin-methylene blue agar (E coli)
  • colonial morphology
  • PCR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which enterobacteriaceae have mucoid colonial mophology

A
  • klebsiella

- enterobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which enterobacteriaceae swarms on rich media

A

proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which enterobacteriaceae has red pigmentation

A

serratia marcescens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which strains of E coli are important

A
  • ETEC
  • EPEC
  • VTEC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the cultural properties of campylobacter
- flat, droplet-like, glistening colonies that spread along the direction of the streak on moist agar - white to salmon coloured when older - characteristic odour - take two days to grow
26
what are the microscopic properties of campylobacter
- gram negative - slender - vibrio shaped
27
which species of campylobacter are important (GI and repro)
- jejuni subsp jejuni - coli - fetus subsp fetus - fetus subsp venerealis
28
what occurs during initial colonisation of campylobacter in birds
inflammatory response
29
reduced weight gain and hock burn are correlated to colonisation with which organism in birds
campylobacter
30
when might campylobacter be associated with disease in dogs
- young or debilitated animals | - synergy with other pathogens
31
what are the microbiological properties of clostridia
- gram positive - rod shaped - tetani are thin - perfringens are large and wide - obligate anaerobes - produce endospores
32
which species of Clostridia are important
- botulinum - difficile - perfringens - tetani
33
what are the cultural properties of clostridia
small to medium sized, grey/yellow, translucent colonies rough with lobate margin, or flat with irregular surface and filamentous margin perfringens is non-proteolytic and has no distinct odour
34
how should sampling for clostridia be carried out
- anaerobic transport medium - prompt culture on enriched blood agar - anaerobic atmosphere with hydrogen and 5-10% CO2
35
where can clostridia be sampled from
- soil - fresh water - marine water - part of normal GI flora - fresh cadaver material (overgrowth if old)
36
how can clostridia species by differentiated
perfringens - double haemolysis biochemical identification ELSIA for toxins antibody based techniques from lesion samples
37
how is lawsonia diagnosed
- clinical signs and gross pathological findings | - PCR or immunofluorescent tests
38
why is lawsonia hard to culture
obligate intracellular pathogen
39
intestinal spirochetes are important pathogens of which species
pigs | poultry
40
how are spirochetes and brachyspira diagnosed and differentiated
observation in stained faecal smears grown anaerobically and confirmed by culture on selective blood agar differentiate on haemolysis
41
which bacterium causes Johne's disease in ruminants
Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis
42
how is M avium subsp paratuberculosis sampled from animals
scrapings | punch biopsies from rectum
43
which diagnostic methods can be used for M avium subsp paratuberculosis
histopathology - affected tissue or lymph nodes microscopy with ZN technique culture is difficult and time consuming
44
what are the properties of actinobacillus lignieresii
- gram negative rod - facultative anaerobe - oxidase positive - urease negative - commensal of mucous membranes
45
which bactrium causes wooden tongue in cattle
actinobacillus lignieresii
46
how does actinobacillus lignieresii cause wooden tongue
invade through breaks in mucous membrane spread limited to soft tissues of tongue and LNs of head tongue becomes hard, swollen and painful
47
what are the properties of actinomyces bovis
``` gram positive anaerobic (some other species facultative) non-spore forming rod shaped branched networks of hyphae ```
48
which bacterium causes lumpy jaw in cattle
actinomyces bovis
49
describe lumpy jaw
tumour like swellings on the upper and lower jawbones of cattle that develop slowly over months consisting of honeycombed masses of bone filled with pus. can develop and discharge small amounts of pus containing yellow granules
50
how does actinomyces infect cattle
breaks in the mucous membrane lining of the mouth
51
what is the treatment of lumpy jaw
iodine therapy | tetracyclines
52
what are the features of fusobacterium necrophorum
- gram negative - obligate anaerobe - non-spore forming - non-motile
53
where is fusobacterium necrophorum found in animals
alimentary tract | cattle - respiratory tract
54
what does fusobacterium necrophorum infection involve
injury to epidermal layer allows infection to be established. Affects the mucous membranes and underlying tissues of the oral cavity epithelium. self-limiting.
55
what are the potential pathogenic mechanisms of fusobacterium necrophorum
toxins: - leucocidins - haemolysin - cytoplasmic
56
how is fusobacterium necrophorum treated
penicillins | generally self-limiting
57
describe the process of testing resistance profiles with disc diffusion
1. 100ul bacteria on non-selective agar plate 2. discs placed on agar label up 3. incubation under specified conditions 4. compare zone diameter to standard measurements
58
describe MIC testing using E strips
place strip on agar with bacteria. MIC is at the point where the edge of the zone of inhibition crosses the E strip.
59
define intrinsic resistance
organism naturally resistant to certain groups of antibiotics
60
describe acquired resistance
transferable or heritable modification of self
61
What is EGUS
Equine gastric ulcer syndrome
62
what has EGUS now been split into
ESGD (equine squamous gastric disease) and EGGD (equine glandular gastric disease)
63
list the disorders of the equine stomach
``` ESGD EGGD Gastric disease in foals gastric rupture gastric impaction habronemiasis gasterophilus gastric neoplasia ```
64
explain the pathogenesis of ESGD
- prolonged exposure to mucosal aggressive factors - mucosal protective factors absent in squamous region (lack of mucosal-bicarbonarte film) - reduced gastric pH - Acid splashes up onto the surface of the squamous region
65
what factors are mucosal aggressive
- HCl - pepsin - bile acids - other organic acids
66
what factors are mucosal protective
- mucous - bicarbonate only present in the glandular region
67
what factors reduce gastric pH
- no food buffer (especially fibre) - ileus (increase in bile acids in stomach) - high carbohydrate diet (more VFAs, dissociate at low pH) - stress
68
ESGD is seen most commonly in which types of horses?
performance horses and broodmares
69
At what grade does ESGD cause clinical signs
generally grade 3 or more
70
list the clinical signs of ESGD
- often none - poor performance - attitude changes - mild, acute or recurrent colic - decreased appetite --> weight loss/reduction in BCS
71
how is ESGD diagnosed
gastroscopy - diagnose and grade level of ulceration
72
how is ESGD treated
Omeprazole (first choice) - proton pump inhibitor - licensed - PO SID - £350-500/month Ranitidine - H2 blocker - more effective in rested horses - unlicensed - cheaper - TID - almost never used
73
describe grade 1 ulcers
yellow hyperkeratinisation on surface but mucosa still intact. not associated with clinical signs
74
describe grade 2 ulcers
multiple, small, multifocal lesions. reasonably extensive. may start seeing signs if there are a lot
75
describe grade 3 ulcers
larger, deeper, more extensive lesions. more likely to bleed. associated with clinical signs
76
describe grade 4 ulcers
deep craters. need to contract and granulate to heal so will take a long time. clinical signs seen
77
how is ESGD prevented
dietary management - small, regular feeds, high fibre, small-holed haynets, feed prior to exercise low dose omeprazole licensed but not generally indicated pectin-lethicin compounds - some efficacy
78
why are biopsies for EGGD problematic
transendoscopic not representative of full thickness trucut likely lead to peritonitis (do not perform) disease may only manifest at pyloric antrum but often whole glandular region is affected
79
what are the theories of the possible underlying cause of EGGD
- immune mediated (like IBD) | - infectious (less popular theory)
80
explain the pathogenesis of EGGD
anything that inhibits mucosal blood flow - decreased PGE2: normally promotes secretion of mucous-bicarbonate layer, stimulates production of surface PLs, enhances mucosal repair and controls Na concentration in cells preventing swelling and death. - increased gastric acid - disruption of mucosal protective factors
81
what may disrupt mucosal protective factors (often relates to decreased gastric blood flow)
- stress - NSAIDs (no evidence in horses currently) - furosemide - hypovolaemia - colic, diarrhoea, sepsis - anorexia/intermittent feeding - ileus
82
what are the clinical signs of EGGD
- temperament change (nervousness, aggression) - cutaneous sensitivity (biting flanks, resentment of girth, rugging, leg aids etc) - reluctance to go forward when ridden - unexplained weight loss - reduced appetite or altered eating patterns - colic (mild, recurrent)
83
what are the risk factors of EGGD
- undertaking more exercise per days of the week - increased number of carers (management, stress) - intense exercise (although less common than ESGD) performance horses
84
how is EGGD diagnosed
gastroscopy - although lesions seen on the surface may not represent the true extent of the disease
85
how is EGGD treated
options 1. oral omeprazole and sucralfate - increases mucosal blood flow 2. misoprostol - suppresses acid, increases PGE2. currently most effective. 3. injectable omeprazole - weekly IM. more effective than oral. steroids if refractory - not understood why they work unknown how to manage the 30-40% that don't respond to drugs
86
how is EGGD prevented
- minimum 2 days rest from work per week - turnout where possible (providing not stressful) - minimise changes in companions and carers - minimise management changes/stressors - feed 30mins prior to exercise - feed pectin-lethicin supplements or sugar beet BID - add corn oil to diet
87
when is gastric disease in foals a concern
sick, septic, PAS, stressed and hospitalised foals. need a disruption of mucosal protective factors --> reduced gastric blood flow
88
describe the pathogenesis of gastric disease in foals
Ischaemic damage and reduction in mucosal blood flow rather than acid damage as in adults.
89
what are the clinical signs of gastric disease in foals
young - moderate to severe colic older - bruxism and ptyalism. oesophageal reflux and pyloric/duodenal strictures and gastric rupture life threatening
90
how is gastric disease in foals diagnosed
- gastroscopy - faecal occult blood test - contrast radiography - abdominal ultrasound especially if looking for gastric rupture - peritoneocentesis
91
how is gastric disease in foals treated
controversial - sucralfate: especially if there is concurrent oesophageal ulceration (do not give omeprazole -reduction in gastric acid can predispose to severe secondary bacterial infection due to C difficile. some vets still use)
92
how does the prognosis of gastric disease in foals compare to EGGD or ESGD in adults
much less favourable
93
what is the prevalence of gastric disease in pigs
up to 60% of growers at slaughter | 5% in sows
94
what are the clinical signs of gastric disease in pigs
- anorexia - vomiting - anaemia - teeth grinding - black faeces - weight loss in growers (chronic form) - death due to haemorrhage
95
what factors are involved in causing gastric disease in pigs
- nutrition (low protein, fibre, vit E, selenium or zinc, high energy, wheatm iron, copper, calcium, unsaturated fats, whey and skimmed milk) - ground up feed rather than pellets - irregular feeding patterns - shortage of feeder space - increased stocking density - transportation - other stress - aggression between animals - poor stockmanship - fluctuating environmental temperatures - concurrent disease (pneumonia, sepsis) - breed
96
how is gastric disease in pigs diagnosed
- clinical signs - PME - faecal occult blood test
97
what are the differentials for gastric disease in pigs
- eperythrozoonosis - hyostrongylus rubidus (gastric worm) - porcine enteropathy
98
when may gastric rupture occur in horses
- secondary to small intestinal strangulating lesions
99
what are the signs of gastric rupture in horses
``` painful --> pain free suddenly due to decreased pressure septic shock due to peritonitis - reluctant to move - tachycardic (>100) - purple mm - no borborygmi ```
100
how is gastric rupture diagnosed in horses
- peritoneal tap
101
when may gastric rupture occur in foals
rare, usually secondary to perforating gastric ulcers likely due to necrotising enterocolitis (bacterial infection)
102
when may gastric rupture occur in pigs
secondary to perforating gastric ulcers
103
what are the signs of gastric impaction
- acute: colic signs | - chronic: anorexia and weight loss
104
why may gastric impaction occur
- primary or secondary motility disorder - secondary to dental disease, gorging or dehydration due to inadequate water intake (rare) - rarely associated with poor quality forage, FBs or improper mastication
105
how is gastric impaction diagnosed
NG tube hitches/gets stuck on passage - no fluid gastroscopy - full after 24 hours of food being withheld abdominal ultrasound surgery (abdominal radiograph in ponies, donkeys, miniatures)
106
how is gastric impaction treated
- aggressive gastric lavage (water or caffeine free cola) - promotility agents (erythromycin, metaclopramide) - surgery to empty need to act quickly, left longer then function may not return
107
how do habronema travel to the stomach
eggs laid in sores, larvae hatch and burrow into mucosa, penetrates and migrates to stomach
108
how is habronemiasis treated
avermectins every 4 weeks x3
109
what are the rare consequences of habronemiasis (usually of little consequence)
- granulomatous reaction around pyloric antrum - pyloric outflow obstruction - mild, recurrent colic - intermittent tachycardia and NG reflux
110
how is clinical habronemiasis diagnosed and what are its differentials
``` ddx - SCC (or other tumour) - EGGD diagnosis - gastroscopy and biopsy ```
111
describe the importance of gastrophilus
- no importance in terms of clinical disease - clients get upset when pupae are passed in faeces - incidental finding during gastroscopy in winter - respond to avermectins
112
describe the life cycle of gastrophilus
- adult flies lay white/yellow eggs on horses' legs - eggs hatch spontaneously or when stimulated by horse's saliva when grooming - L3 attaches to squamous gastric mucosa along with the margo plicatus (G intestinalis) or dorsoproximal duodenum (G nasalis) - larvae survive here for 10-12 months - pupae passed in faeces
113
what is the most common stomach tumour in horses (although rare overall)
squamous cell carcinoma. can metastasise to lungs and LNs
114
what are the signs of a gastric SCC in horses
weight loss recurrent, chronic, mild colic anorexia depression
115
how are gastric SCC diagnosed in horses
gastroscopy - can't always see | abdominal ultrasound
116
what is the prognosis of gastric SCCs in horses
no treatment - can't resect. invariably PTS.
117
what is the prognosis for EGS
80% chronic cases survive. main problems seen in first 2 months post-discharge e.g. colic, inappetence, dysphagia, sweating. variable time to return to normal bodyweight