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Equine Medicine and Surgery > Equine Diseases > Flashcards

Equine Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

High nail

A

When acute lameness appears within a few days of shoeing

- nail in sensitive tissues

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2
Q

Ringbone

A

Degenerative disease of pastern joint

  • P1 and P2 have excessive movement
  • severe arthritis in proximal interphalangeal joint
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3
Q

Stance phase

A

Foot is on the ground and limb is bearing weight

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4
Q

Swing phase

A

Limb is swinging forward prior to becoming weightbearing

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5
Q

Stride cycle

A

1 stance and 1 swing phase

- head goes down twice

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6
Q

Horse is lowest at ______

A

Mid-stance

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7
Q

Grade 0

A

Lameness not perceptible under any circumstances

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8
Q

Grade 1

A

Lameness difficult to observe

- not consistently apparent regardless of circumstances

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9
Q

Grade 2

A

Lameness difficult to observe at a walk to trot in a straight line
- consistently apparent under special circumstances (weight-carrying, circling, inclines)

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10
Q

Grade 3

A

Lameness consistently observable at a trot under all circumstances

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11
Q

Grade 4

A

Lameness obvious

- marked nodding, hitching, shortened stride

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12
Q

Grade 5

A

Lameness obvious

- minimal weight bearing in motion or at rest

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13
Q

Effusion

A

Increased synovial fluid

  • secondary to inflammation in the joint
  • trauma, DJD, OCD
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14
Q

Most common fractured carpal bone in a race horse

A

Distal radial bone

- followed by 3rd carpal bone

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15
Q

Sole pain at the toe

A

Toe bruise or laminitis

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16
Q

Pain over the central third of the frog

A

Navicular disease

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17
Q

Pain localized to the heel region

A
  • corn
  • heel abscess
  • quarter crack
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18
Q

Degenerative joint disease

A

Arthritis or arthrosis

- deterioration of the articular cartilage

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19
Q

Sequence of nerve blocks

A
  • palmar digital: navicular and sole
  • palmar digital over the fetlock
  • low palmar block: near buttons of the splint
  • high palmar block: gets 2 palmar nerves, all soft tissues on the back of the leg and everything down
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20
Q

Conditions that produce Grade 5 nonweightbearing lameness

A
  • fractures (P1-3, cannon, radius, humerus, scapula)
  • infectious processes: septic arthritis, septic tendon sheath, cellulitis, sole abscess
  • severe laminitis
  • disruption of a tendon or ligament
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21
Q

Dimple

A

Place where articular cartilage did not form properly

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22
Q

Ankylosis

A

Stiffening and fusion of bones

  • done to reduce pain
  • seen with high load-low motion joints (pastern, distal tarsal)
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23
Q

Osteochondrosis

A

Failure or disruption of endochondral ossification

- defect on articular side of growth plate

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24
Q

Osteochondrosis dessicans

A

Formation of separate cartilage or osteochondral flap or fragment

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25
Q

Subchondral bone cyst

A

Defect in subchondral bone

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26
Q

Common OCD lesions

A
  • distal intermediate ridge of tibia (DIRT)

- lateral trochlear ridge

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27
Q

Exercise and nutrition play roles as OCD ______

A

Disease modifier

28
Q

Irregular/sporadic exercise has ______ risk compared to moderate/regular exercise

A

Increased

29
Q

Deficiencies in _____, _____, and _____ may predispose to lesion formation

A

Copper, calcium, phosphorus

30
Q

_____ is commonly the only sign in yearlings

A

Joint effusion

31
Q

OCD lesions can occur in any joint, including ______

A

Articular faucets of the spine!

32
Q

Predilection sites of the hock in order of frequency

A
  • distal intermediate trochlear ridge of tibia
  • lateral trochlear ridge of talus
  • medial malleolus of tibia
  • medial trochlear ridge of talus
33
Q

Predilection sites of fetlock in order of frequency

A
  • dorsal digital midsagittal ridge of MCP/MTP 3

- dorsal margin of P1

34
Q

Predilection site of the stifle in order of frequency

A
  • lateral trochlear ridge of femur
  • medial trochlear ridge of femur
  • distal patella
  • intertrochlear groove
35
Q

Lesions are likely permanent after:

A
  • 5 months in fetlock and hock

- 8 months in stifle

36
Q

All radiographically evident lesions are permanent after:

A

11 months

37
Q

Multiple lesions

A
  • stifle: 18-21% bilateral
  • hock: 6-`0%
  • fetlock: bilateral or all 4 affected
  • multiple lesions in 1 joint, but uncommon to have multiple joints affected
38
Q

_____ will fill the fragment defect

A

Fibrocartilage

- cannot regrow articular cartilage!!

39
Q

How do subchondral cystic lesions differ from OCD?

A
  • causes lameness, or effusion
  • occur in any joint
  • diagnose with nerve/joint blocks and radiographs (sclerotic rim)
40
Q

Common site for subchondral cystic lesions

A
  • medial femoral condyle (concurrent with medial meniscal injury)
  • phalanges, carpal bones
41
Q

Most common cause of lameness?

A

Navicular disease!

42
Q

Equine navicular syndrome

A

Chronic, progressive disease affecting the navicular bone, navicular bursa, DDFT and associated soft tissue structures of the navicular apparatus

43
Q

_____ border has foramena lined with synovium

A

Distal

44
Q

_____ surface is common for problems

A

Palmar flexor

- covered by fibrocartilage, smooth surface for DDFT

45
Q

Enthesiophyte formation is seen with

A

Suspensory and impar ligaments

- radiographic sign of navicular dz

46
Q

What is the #1 risk factor for navicular dz?

A

Long toe, low heel

47
Q

Hoof testing navicular dz

A
  • positive response across frog and across heels
48
Q

Disadvantages of radiographs

A

Does not allow evaluation of soft tissue structures

bone changes w/ navicular dz happen in end stages, can diagnose earlier

49
Q

When trying to see changes in flexor surface, take a ______

A

45 degree PP-PD oblique

  • navicular skyline
  • loss of corticomedullary distinction (earliest sign) and sclerosis
50
Q

Fractures of navicular bone can occur ______ navicular disease

A

Without

51
Q

Most common lesion of navicular bone is _____

A

Deep digital flexor surface lesion

52
Q

Medications in the ______ will freely diffuse to the navicular joint

A

Coffin joint

53
Q

Palmar digital neurectomy

A

Desensitizes heel and sole

- only lasts 6 months to 2 years

54
Q

Factors affecting tendon sheath prognosis

A
  • which tendon is affected (flexor tendon has worse prognosis)
  • infection
  • chronicity
  • if the sheath is involved
55
Q

Flexor tendon laceration 7 weeks post surgery

A

Apply elevated heel-fetlock sling support shoe after granulation tissue fills wound
- gradually lower heel height

56
Q

Femoropatellar joint sac communicates with ______

A
  • medial femorotibial 80%
  • lateral femorotibial 20%
  • medial and lateral femorotibial do not communicate *
57
Q

OCD fragment lesions often cause ______

A

Effusion

58
Q

Fibularis tertius rupture has ____ prognosis

A

Good

  • when horse stands, ends come together
  • seen in horses recovering from full leg cast
59
Q

Unable to extend hock =

A

Superficial digital flexor/gastrocnemius rupture

- prognosis fair in foals and grave in adults

60
Q

Upward fixation of patella

A

Leg locks in extension

- due to laxity or stretching of middle/medial patellar ligaments

61
Q

Stringhalt

A

Hyperflexion of hindlimb as each stride is iniitated

  • faulty input from stretch receptors in lateral digital extensory
  • secondary to scarring of lateral extensor tendon sheath
  • trauma to dorsal MT3
  • ingestion of Hypochoeris radicata
62
Q

Fibrotic myopathy

A

Hindlimb hovers and then slaps ground caudally

  • affects semitendinosus and fascia
  • limited stifle extension
63
Q

Bone spavin

A

DJD of distal intertarsal and tarsometatarsal joints

- bony swelling of distal medial tarsus

64
Q

Bog spavin

A

Effusion of tibiotarsal joint

- young horses with OCD

65
Q

Curb

A

Inflammation of long plantar ligament

- seen in horses with sickle hock formation

66
Q

Thoroughpin

A

Effusion of tarsal sheath

- not uniform due to flexor retinaculum

Equine Medicine and Surgery (2 decks)

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