Errything we need to know... which is everything Flashcards
(307 cards)
1
Q
_______ cause of lumpy jaw in cattle
A
actinomyces bovis
2
Q
______ cause of fistulous withers and poll evil in horses
A
actinomyces bovis
3
Q
actinomyces bovis is a ______ anaerobe
A
obligate
4
Q
_____ appear in tissues because the organisms produce _____ that cements them together
A
sulfur granules; glycocalyx
5
Q
_______ natural habitat is the propharynx and digestive tract
A
actinomyces bovis
6
Q
_____ is the common name for granulomatous osteomuyelitis
A
Lumpy jaw
7
Q
Lumpy jaw is associated with the entry of A, bovis through____
A
dental aveoli or trauma to gums/mucosa
8
Q
_____ and ____ are two commonly isolated organisms from fistuolus withers and poll evil in horses
A
Actionmyces bovis
Brucella abortus
9
Q
_____ is not found in most of the US except for bison in yellowstone
A
Brucella abortus
10
Q
A. bovis infections are _____ primarily, but once lesion forms it is difficult for immune system to clear the lesion and associated organisms
A
cell mediated
11
Q
Antibiotics combined with _____ intravenously or ______ locally are frequently used to treat A. bovis
A
sodium iodide; potassium iodide
12
Q
Lumpy jaw is particularly hard to tx because______
A
of the osteomyelitis
13
Q
____ is the most common cause of actinomycosis in dogs
A
Actinomyces viscous
14
Q
____ invades wounds in dogs frequently in the head/neck areas, thorax lesions can result in pyothorax
A
Actinomyces viscous
15
Q
____ infection is easier to tx than _____ because it does not metastasize
A
Actinomyces viscous; Norcardia asteroides
16
Q
____ is the cause of mammary gland lesions in sows and possibly other ; at least one report of abortion
A
Actinomyces suis
17
Q
____ natural habitat is the oropharynx of pigs
A
Actinomyces suis
18
Q
____ associated with superficial wounds of the mammar
A
Actinomyces suis
19
Q
___ associated with suppurative thoracic and subcutaneous lesions in dogs and cats
A
Norcardia asteroides
20
Q
____ sometimes occurs secondary to primary viral infection such as distemper
A
Norcardia asteroides
21
Q
____ isolated with increasing frequency from bovine mastitis cases and is observed clinically in other animals
A
Norcardia asteroides
22
Q
_____ colonies are yellow to orange and often appear dry and rough
A
Norcardia asteroides
23
Q
Norcardia asteroides produce _____ which are similar to _______ of mycobacteria
A
nocardic acids; myolic acids
24
Q
____ is a soil saphrophyte widely distibuted in nature, estimates to be 10^3 per gram
A
Norcardia asteroides
25
Norcardia asteroides is transmitted via
wounds, soilm inhalation
26
_____ infection of respiratory tract in cats and dogs resulting in pyothorax
Norcardia asteroides
27
Draining tracts are observed in subcutaneous infections, whcih tend to matastasize
Norcardia asteroides
28
Commonly associated with unhygenic antomicrobial therapy
Norcardia asteroides
29
____ is occasionally isolated form dogs and humans
Norcardia braziliensis
30
is the cause of dermatophilosis, exudative dermatitis seen in variety of animals and humas
Dermatophilus congolensis
31
Dermatophilus congolensis relases ____ from its filamest
Motile zoospores
32
infections are seen especially in tropical areas during the rainy season
Dermatophilus congolensis
33
most commonly a problem in horses stabled inside in the winter or in wet environments
Dermatophilus congolensis
34
trauma.tick bites often associated with disease
Dermatophilus congolensis
35
Key biological stain for Dermatophilus congolensis?
Geimsa
36
tx of Dermatophilus congolensis
penecillin
37
____ species cause pulmonary and extrapulmonary infections in many animals and humans
Mycobacterium
38
disease caused by these are referred to as tuberculosis
Mycobacterium
39
is the ability of bacilli to retain carbol fuchsin dye when washed with weak acid solution
Acid fastness
40
_____ is what allows mycobacteria to be acid fast
high mycolic acid (lipid) content
41
______ have longer carbon chain length (50 to 90 carbons) than Nocardia species
mycolic acids
42
mycobacteria are very resistant to _____ and ______ disinfectants
halogen; quaternary ammonium
43
mycobacteria are killed by ____
phenol and substitued cresylic compounds
44
Mycobacteria are _______ parasites
facultative intracellular
45
_____ mycobacteria are usually killed by phagocytic cells
Saprophytic
46
_____ mycobacteria multpily and eventually lyse the phagosome
pathogenic
47
_____ are formed from the granulomatous tissue that results form mycobacterium infection
tubercles
48
_____ lesions are often localized to lungs, spleen or liver
Mycobacteria
49
What are the 5 mechanisms of bacterial resistance mycobacteria employ
```
Cord factor
Phospholipids
Glycolipids
Fatty Acids
Sulfur-containing glycolipids/sulfolipids
```
50
What is cord factor?
trehalose 6-6' dimycolate is present in alls trains of pathogenic mycobacteria and also in some saphrophytes
51
How do sulfur containing glycolipids alter killing of host macrophages?
Interfere w/attachemnt of lysosome to phagosome
Prevent release of lysosomal ez into phagosome
Inactivate lysosomal ez
pathogen use lysosomal ez for energy
Pathogen seems to be able to resist ROS metabolites because they pdx superoxide dismutase
52
Immune response to mycobacteria is primarily_____
cellular, almost entirely macrophages
53
_____ play an important role in killing mycobacteria in combination with ______
Reactive nitrogen intermediates; ROS
54
______ immune response is not considered to important in mycobacteria infections
humoral
55
Mycobacteria can be potent _____
adjuvants
56
What is Freunds complete adjuvant?
killed mycobacterai added to mineral oil, illicits a strong immune response
57
What doe Freunds complete adjuvant usually contain?
Mycobacterium smegmatis or M. phlei
58
T/F mycobacteria are unique bc killed cells can illicit cell mediated response
True,
59
Why aren't adjuvants for mycobacteria used more commonly?
lesion development at the injection site, even research is heavily controlled
60
Mycobacteria typically induce __________ 4 to 8 weeks following infection
delayed type hypersensitivity
61
is the antigen used to induce DTH reaction
tuberculin
62
What are the standard tuberculins called
PPD- purified proteinderivative
63
are prepared by growing bacilli on synthetic media and have issues iwth non-specific reactions in cattle
Old Tuberculin
64
are prepared by growing bacilli on synthetic media, autoclaving, removing cells and precipitating the proteins, material is then assayed for biological activity
PPD
65
What is the major benefit of PPDs?
one batch can be compared to another for purposes of standardizing the material
66
The drugs used to treat mycobacterai infections usually include____ and ___
isoniazid and rifampin
67
principle cause of tuberculosis in humans and primates
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
68
incidence of this disease is ont he rise in 3rd world countries due to influence of AIDS
tuberculosis
69
has been isolated in several elephants in zoos and circuses
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
70
occasional cause of tuberculosis in dogs and pigs
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
71
____ in humans is most often pulmonary in nature
tuberculosis
72
I dont want to write this out so just read about the Tx for TB on page 87 in the manual
FUCK YOU JOE.... ya ya i know
73
_____ is the most widely used human immunziation agent in the world; only immunization agent against TB
Bacille Calmette Guerin (BCG)
74
BCG is a weakend live strain of _____
Mycobacterium bovis
75
Immunization is effective in reducing the likelihoodand severity of lethal forms of tuberculosis in _____ and ____
infants and young children
76
T/F immunization with BCG requires multiple shots
FALSE- indicates multpile shots not neccessary
77
T/F Protection from BCG does not extend into adulthood
TRUE
78
What must be used to definitively identify true TB positive individuals? WHY?
ELISA because skin test is ineffective, immunized individuals react to PDDs, false postives more of a problem if some jackass gave multiple vaccinations to kids, if you immigrate from an area that is known to immunoze w/ BCG, positive skin test is postive despite immnization history
79
causes tuberculosis in cattel, pigs, cats, horses, primates, dogs, sheep, and goats, but NOT birds
Mycobacterium bovis
80
____ is inhibitory to Mycobacterium bovis growth and cant be added to culture medium
glycerol
81
____ is destroyed by sunlight.pasteurization
Mycobacterium bovis (prob alot of things but this from the notes)
82
____ despite eradication programs has emerged w/ recent probelms in white tailed deer in MI and other states; also with farmed Elk
Mycobacterium bovis
83
Mycobacterium bovis transmission is primarily
Respiratory
84
_____ is the standard in feild test used by veterinarians to test for Mycobacterium bovis
Delayed type hypersensitivity skin test
85
What is the MAIS complex?
refers to group of organisms formerly classified as separate genera- M. avium, M. intracellulare, M. scrofulaceum
86
responsible for the majority of tuberculosis in birds, and swine
Mycobacterium avium
87
are highly resistant mycobacteria
Mycobacterium avium
88
____ are generally more virulent for birds but can produce tuberculosis in swine and other animals
Mycobacterium avium serotypes 1, 2 and 3
89
Mycobacterium avium is transmitted
ingestion of feces or soil
90
______ cause tuberculosis most commonly in swine
Mycobacterium avium serotype 1, 2, 4 and 8
91
Mycobacterium avium swine lesions typically manifest as
foci in mandibular and mesenteric lymphnodes occasionaly in inestinal tract
92
cause of leprosy in humans and armadillos
Mycobacterium leprae
93
called Hansen's bacillus
Mycobacterium leprae
94
in humans confined mainly to the skin, peripheral nerves, can be found systemicall in armadillos
Mycobacterium leprae
95
produces infrequently reported leprosy like disease in cats and rats
Mycobacterium lepraemurium
96
produces summing pool granuloma on arm and legs of humans and granulomatous lesions in cold blooded animals
Mycobacterium marinum
97
causes lymphnode lesions in cattle, deer and swine, both pulmonary and extrapulmonary lesions in humans
Mycobacterium kansasii
98
produces pulmonary disease in dogs and humans (uually immunosupressed)
Mycobacterium fortuitum
99
observed in swine lymphnode lesions and cold blooded animals
Mycobacterium chelonae
100
reported to be isolated in patients receiving heart valve trnasplants
Mycobacterium chelonae
101
major cause of johnes disease in cattle, sheep, goats, camels llamas and wild rmts
M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis
102
___ is required for primary isolation of M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis
mycobactin
103
What is mycobactin?
iron chelating compound
104
How long can M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis remain vaible in soil?
8-9 months
105
T/F M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis is not encolsed w/in the phagosome as with other Mycoplasma speceis
TRUE
106
in cattle disease in chronic and characterized by interrmittent diarrhea and emaciation
M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis
107
____ is the current definitve diagnosis of M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis
culture
108
____ is the only method that owrks well for sheep isolates of M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis
liquid culture
109
microscpic analysis of M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis stained with _____ reveal clumps of bacilli
Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast
110
is the somatic antigen; poly sacchride chains on LPS
O-Ag
111
is the capsular antigen
K-ag
112
is the fimbrial antigen
F-Ag
113
____ hemoglutinate RBC's mannose sensitive probably bind to mucus on membranes
Type-1
114
this organism makes up 50% of human nosocomial infections
Enterobacteriaceae
115
____ genes may be on plasmids, or in the chromosome and may be transfered to other species of bacteria
enterotoxin
116
is usually killed by pasteurization, but some strains resistant, destroyed readily by disinfectants and drying, can survive freezing for several months, not a sporophores
Enterobacteriaceae
117
What are the three types of resistant Enterobacteriaceae?
Extensively drug resistant XDR
Multi-Drug resistant MDR
Pandrug resistnat
118
is a common example of XDR E. coli which has become a serious problem especially in human infections
Sequence Type 131
119
are produced by strains of E. coli which carry the genes for their production
Potent enterotoxins
120
_____ is correlated directly with virulence in human strains of E. coli extraintestinal infections
Alpha hemolysin
121
is a 110 kDa protein that is thought to enhance the inflammatory reaction and compromise leukocyte mediated defense mechansims
Alpha hemolysin
122
Alpha hemolysin acts by
insertinf monomeric subunits into cell membranes and thus forming a pore through Ca++ and K+ exit the cell
123
alpha hemoylsin is a member of ____ class
RTX Class
124
is the term commonly usde for E. coli infections in domestic animals; dentoes enteritis, septicemia or both
Colibacillosis
125
casue of neonatal diarrhea in piglets 1-4 days old, perfuse yellow, diarrhea w/ dehydration and death
Eschrichia coli
126
is the most important antigen for E. coli. Why?
F-4 used be called K88.
| the fimbrae attach to receptors on the microvilli
127
ETEC
enterotixigenic E. coli
128
EPEC
enteropathogenic E.coli
129
AEEC
attaching effacing E. coli
130
EIEC
enteroinvasive E. coli
131
EHEC
enterohemorrhagic E. coli
132
is a an A-B structure toxin produced by many porcine, human and calf ETEC
Labile Toxin (LT)
133
___ and ____ can neutralize LT
anti-toxin antibody, antibody to cholera toxin
134
___ stimulates adenylcyclase increasing ___, leading to___ of CL- and ___ of Na absorption resulting in__ i
LT; cAMP, excretion; inhibition, excessive fluid loss
135
___ and ___ are the two types of ST which are ___
STa and STbm heat stable, both too small to be immunogenic
136
What is STa's mode of action?
stimulates guanylate cyclase -> increased cGMP-> lack of absorption
137
what is teh major effector of E. coli associated diarrhea?
STa
138
is most often associated with post weaning diarrhea in pigs
STb
139
these three fimbrial vaccines have led to marked decrease in morbidity and mortality
F4, F6, F7 fimbrial vaccines
140
Most E. coli strains causing post weaning diarrhea are____ while most of the strains producing neonatal diarrhea are___
hemolytic, non-hemolyitc
141
these 2 strains of E. coli cause edema disease
F18ac and F18 ab
142
this disease is usually seen in better doing swine, edema of the eyelids, facial area, stomach, and other places, but notoriously difficult to demostrate
Edema disease
143
the majority of edema disease is due to the elaboration of ____
shiga toxin
144
shiga-like toxin is a ____
vasotoxin
145
___ inhibits protein synthesis in the vascualr endothelium which leads to necrosis//edema
Shiga-like Toxin
146
How does Shiga-like toxin inhibit portien synthesis?
NAD-dependent ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2
147
__ is the most sensitive organ to shiga-like toxin
Brain
148
is the cause of white scours in cattle
Escherichia coli
149
white scours in cattle is most frequently associated ith what type of E. coli?
STa and F5 fimbrial type
150
causes enteric and septicemic disease simialr to calves in sheep
E. coli
151
this organism enters via the respiratory tract and can produce airsacculitits, acute septicemia, pericarditis, fibrinopurulent serositis, can also produce granulomatous lesions in the wall of the intestines
E. coli
152
Not part of the normal flora of the intestinal tract of fruit and seed eating birds, assocaited with severe enteritis and septicemia
E.coli
153
Why do you have to be careful when administering antibiotics to guinea pigs?
may wipe out normal flora, allowing gram negatives to move in and wreck havoc
154
this organism is the number one cause of pyometria in dogs, and can cause bacteremia in puppies
E. coli
155
most imoportant of the gram negatives that can cause mastitis in cows, especially in hot weather, in herds that do not have a strept/staph problem
E. coli
156
____ is the reason why immune response is genereally poor to E. coli
too many O-antigens
157
___ is used to protect against E. coli endotoxemia in dairy cattle
J5 immunizationn product
158
VTEC
verotoxin-producing E. coli
159
associated with diarrhea, hemorrhagic, colitis, and hemolytic uremic syndrome
VTEC
160
___ is an example of a VETC
E. coli O157:H7
161
These are the two types of shiga toxin produced by E. coli
STx-1 and STx-2
162
is the most virulent strain of Shigella
Shigella dysenteriae
163
is the major cause of infant diarrhea and mortality
shigella sp
164
the four species of shigella
dysenteriae, felxneri, sonnei, boydii
165
multiple cases of this organism occur in closed groups such as day cares, prisons, cruise ships, and on indian reservations
shigella spp
166
disease characterized by severe abdominal cramps, frequent passage of low volume bloody stool containing mucus
Bacillary dysentery (Shigella spp)
167
is the most common klebsiella organism
Klebsiella pneumoniae
168
may K. pneumoniae posses fimbriae with ____ or ___
mannose sensitive/Type 1 fimbriae OR resistant adhesins
169
in humans causes nosocomial infections, pneumonia, and septicemia
Klebsiella pneumonia
170
causes mastitis associated with sawdust as bedding
Klebsiella pneumonia
171
second most common cause of UTI ion animals and humans, repro tract infections especially in horses
Klebsiella pneumonia
172
is ALWAYS resistant to ampicillin
Klebsiella pneumonia
173
what are ESBL-producers
Extended Spectrum Beta Lactamase producers
174
Klebsiella pneumonia usually susceptible to
first generation cephalosporins
175
have been found in human population and have been the cause of several fatal nosocomial infections
Klebsiella pneumonia cabapenemase producers KPC
176
is not normally an enteric pathogen except in psittacine birds in which in can produce septicemia
Enterobacter spp
177
Relatively common isolate from mastitis in cattle and UTI in small animals
Enterobacter
178
____ and ___ may be effective against Enterobacter spp
Second and third gen cephalosporins
| Resistant to 1st gen
179
The three most common species of Enterobacter:
cloacae, aerogenes, agglomerans
180
associated with plants as pathogens and saprophytes
Erwina corotovera (double check spelling)
181
causes proliferative oseomyelitis in dogs, mastitis, germ warfare studies
Serratia marcescens
182
these three organisms make up what was formerly known as the Proteus group
Proteus, Morganella, Providencia
183
are the two most common species of proteus
mirables, vulgaris
184
causes urinary tract infections in dogs, otitis externa in dogs, as a secondary invader in snake bites
Proteus spp
185
associated with cases of neonatal meningitis, fasiciitis, arthritis, skin infections, bactermia, and CNS infections
Morgenella morgani
186
organism is commonly found in the mouths of snakes
Morganella morgani
187
____ is produced by Morgenella morgani in infected fish, which when eaten can cause an anaphylaxis like syndrome in humans that eat it. This is known as ____
histidine decarboxylase;
Scrombroid poisoning
188
three most common Providencia species:
stuarti, rettgeri, alcalifaciens
189
menigitis in salt water crocodiles
Providencia stuarti
190
most commonly associated with disease in fish, enteric speticemia of catfish, do not grow at 37
Edwardsiella ictaluri
191
occasional cause of extraintetinal disease in humans most commonly hospitals in pateints with chronic diseases or on antimicrobial therapy
Hafnia alvei
192
causes UTI, neonatal meningitis, septicemia in humans, biochemically looks the same as salmonella, but does not decarboxylate lysine
Citrobacter
193
cause of the bubonic plague
Yersinia pestus
194
has decimated many praire dog colonies
Yersinia pestus
195
___ is the rodent cycle of Yersinia pestus
sylvatic plague
196
what is the bubonic form of Yersinia pestus?
organisms enters the dermal lymphatics and then the draining lymph nodes usually in the groin area, tremendously enlarged and swollen lymph nodes
197
when Yersinia pestus is present in high numbers in the lungs it can spread via droplet, this is know as:
pneumonic form
198
What are the three routes of transmission of Yersinia pestus, aka the black plague?
Slyvatic plague (rodent-rodent)
Bubonic (via fleas)
Pneumonic (via droplet)- 100% fatality
199
T/F penecillin is the drug of choice for Yersinia pestus
FALSE, its worthless, levofloxacin has been approved for humans, tetracycline, chloramphenicolm and kanamycin work well
200
Is seen in epizootics in nearly all species but especially in rodents, causes a mesenteric lymphanditis in humans, mimics appendicitis and also diarrhea
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
201
is pathogenic for humans, monkeys, chinchillas, 1-3% of bacterial enteritis in humans, arthritis, septicemia, acute gastroenteritis, cause of a lot of appendicectomies
Yersinia enteroclitica
202
____ and ___ are both important causes of enteritis and mesenteric lymphanditis in humans, they are not found in absence of the diesease
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis and entercolitica
203
List the 7 general characteristics of Mycoplasma spp
smallest living structure capable of growth in cell free medium
lack a cell wall
pleomorphic, coccoid to filamentous
specialized termina structures
most facultative anearobes
Very small colonies
lack genetic code for cell wall
204
what is the one thing micoplasmas require for growth?
Cholesterol- ie SERUM in media
205
T/F mycoplasmas are susceptible to beta lactams
FALSE, no peptioglycan
206
What are the routinely used drugs for mycoplasma
Tilmicosin, tulathromycin, Zuprevo, other long acting macrolides
207
this organism is the cause of contagious bovine plueopneumonia, one of the most serious diseases of cattle in africa
Mycoplasma mycoides
208
causes broncopneumonia with 2-8 week course, recovery or death, limited to lungs with involvement of intrapulmonary lymphatics and thoracic lymph nodes
Mycoplasma mycoides
209
What are the 4 ways Mycoplasma mycoides is diagnosed?
CLinical signs- air hunger
PCR testing
Isolation
Complement fixation test
210
causes mastitis, pneumonia, otitis poly arthritis, abortion subcutaneous abscesses, and meninigitis
Mycoplasam bovis
211
___ produces a glycoprotein toxin which has been shown to produce inflammation in mammary tissue and this toxin may induce necrosis of lung tissue
Mycoplasma bovis
212
Once a cow get mastitis from this organism it is almost impossible to cure it
Mycoplasma bovis
213
These two practices are best to prevent transmission of Mycoplasma bovis to calves
pateurization of milk, addtion of formic acid to milk
214
this organism is important predisposing infection of Morexella bovoculi in production of pink eye, occurs as sublcinical infection in cattle
Mycoplasma bovoculi
215
very common in the bovine resp tract and can often be isolated from calves w/ pneumonia, hard to isolate, results of immunosupression to M. bovis
Mycoplasma dispar
216
cause of granular vulvo-vaginitis and infertility in cows, isolated from prepuce/semen of males,
Ureaplasma diversum
217
may cause seminal vesiculitis, epididymitis, orchitis, urethritis
Mycoplasma bovigenitalium
218
cause of contagious agalctiae and arthiritis in sheep and goats
Mycoplasma agalctiae
219
cause of contagious caprine pleuropneumonia, most serious disease world wide in goats, edemic in africa
Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumonia
220
___ is the virulence factor of Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumonia
capsular polysacchride
221
organism is more agressive than most mycoplasmas, limited to thte thoracic cavity involving the lungs, pleura and reginal lymphnodes, no bacteremic phase, but the capsular polysacchride can be dtencted in the serum of infected animals
Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumonia
222
Is there a vaccination for Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumonia
yes attenuated live cultures formalinized suspension of lunglesions has been effective
223
causes acute septiecemia polyarthritis, menigitis, possibly mastitis
Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capricolum
224
has atleast 80% DNA homology with Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumonia
Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capricolum
225
causes chronic pneumonia in sheep and goats, proliferative interstitial or atypical pneumonia, found in austraila, new zealand, US
Mycoplasma ovepnuemoniae
226
___ is the virulence factor of Mycoplasma ovipneumonia
capsule
227
sporadically occuring in generalized disease characterized by arhtritis, keratitis, mastitis, peritonitis, pnuemonia
Mycoplasma mycoides subsp mycoides LC
228
___ is used for Tx of Mycoplasma mycoides subsp mycoides LC
tylosin
229
causes infectious caprine and infectious ovine keratoconjunctivitis, infections seen in free range Caprinae- alpine ibez and chamois in the Alps, can be so severe sheep become blind
Mycoplasma conjunctivae
230
common genus in the urogenital tract of sheep/goats, causes granular vulvo-vaginitis in shee, associated with urethral calculi in sheep
Ureaplasmas
231
cause of mycoplamsa pneumonia in pigs, cranio ventral lung consolidation
Mycoplasma hypopeumoniae
232
causes chronic pneumonia of 6-10 weeks with reduced growth, feed conversion, especially prevalent in confinement raised animals,
Mycoplasma hypopneumoniae
233
____ is the best approach to curing Mycoplasma hypopneuomniae
improvement of management and the environment
234
___ is almost always subclinical but causes sporadic polyserositis in young pigs 3-10 wks, occasionally in naive highly susceptible young adutl animals, more common in pigs w/ PRRS
Mycoplasma hyorhinis
235
causes polyarthritis in grwoing and finisher animlas (older animals), sudden onset
Mycoplasma hyosynoviae
236
casue of eperthrozoonosis in swine, pigs under 5 days of age, skin palor icterus,
Mycoplasma suis
237
this organism attacks RBC in hogs
Mycoplasma suis
238
diagnosis of this organism s made by demonstration of organisms on blood smears from febrile pigs
Mycoplasma suis
239
cause of chronic respiratory disease of chickens, and infectious sinusitis of turkeys, conjunctivitis in wild birds
Mycoplasma gallispeticum
240
____ is a modified life vaccine that reduces loss in egg pdx in laying hens, not used in broilers, too virulent for tureys
F strain- vaccine agains Mycoplasma gallisepticum
241
T/F vaccine against Mycoplasma gallisepticum prevents infection of the upper respiratory tract in the face of heavy challenge
FALSE neither vacc does this
242
____ is the proces of placing a cool egg in a warm solution of antibiotic allowing the gg to absorp the antibiotic, and is used to prevent ____
Egg dipping, Mycoplasma gallisepticum
243
T/F there are no side effects assocaited with egg dipping
False, heating the eggs reduces their hatchability
244
causes of infectious synovitis and airsacculitis in chickens and turkeys in US, acute generalized repiratory progressing to arthritis, synovitis of joints keel, buram tendonitis, airsacculitis
Mycoplasma synoviae
245
___ in the feed is used to treat Mycoplasma synoviae
Chloretetracyline
246
causes air sacculitis in turkeys only, eggs are infected and airsacculitis can be seen in newly hatched poults
Mycoplasma meleagridis
247
causes reduced hatchability of chicken and turkey embryos, airsacculitism tenosynovitis, arthiritis and digital flexor tendon
Mycoplasma iowae
248
combines with infectious bronchitis virus and causes more severe bronchitis
Mycoplasma gallinarum
249
causes airsacculitis, meningitis, serositis and pneumonia in ducklings
Mycoplasma anatis
250
very important cause of respiratory disease, genital infections in rats and mice, also causes chronic polyarthritis, may cause repro problems, priblem in research colonies
Mycoplasma pulmonis
251
implicated as cause of plueritis in foals
Mycoplasma felis
252
cause of feline infectious anemia, produces disease only in cats, increased frequency in FeLV positive cats, splenectomized cats are very susceptible
Mycoplasma haemofelis
253
What are the four stages of Mycoplasma haemofelis
Preparasitic
Aute- cyclic parasitemia
Recovery
Carrier
254
WHat is the main cause of anemia associated with Mycoplasma haemofelis
splenic erthyrophagocytosis- attachment of organsim to RBC damages membrane, spleen removes these RBC from circualtion, macrophages eat them
255
clinical signs of Mycoplasma haemofelis infection
cats 4-6 years of age, depression, weight loss, anorexia, weakness, pale mucous membranes
256
___ and ___ are used to diagnose Mycoplasma haemofelis
blood smear, PCR test
257
____ is used to treat Mycoplasma haemofelis, but doesnt treat the carrier state, ____ is also used
doxycycline; enerofloxin
258
only infects dogs, usually no clincal signs, transmitted via the brown tick, anemia can be seen in splenectomized dogs, or dogs with concurretn infection
Mycoplasma haemocanis
259
primary cause of walking pneumonia in humans, tracheobronchitis, pharyngitis
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
260
___ is contained on the specialized tip structure of Mycoplasma pneumonia, it is an important virulence factor
P1 antigen
261
____ is the ability of Mycoplasma pneumonia to fuse its plasma membrane w/ host cell membranes
Cell fusion
262
____ is a_____ type drug that is most effective for tx of Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Azithromax, long acting macrolide
263
cause of non-gonococcal urethritis in human males, maybe associated w/ prostatitis, low birth weights of infants w/ infected mothers, and possible chorioamnionitis
Ureaplasma urealyticum
264
most common mycoplasma involved in disease in aids patients
Mycoplasma fermentans
265
is known as the green pus bacillus
Pseudomonas aeroginosa
266
___ is the pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeroginosa that gives it the green color
pyocyanin
267
Pseudomonas aeroginosa is able to use_____ and be able to grow under anearobic conditions
nitrate as terminal electron accepter
268
T/F Pseudomonas aeruginosa can life inside disinfectants
TRUE
269
organism can be isolated from intravenous solutions, endotrach tubes, surgical instruments, water in hot tubs, swimming pools, surgical scrubs,etc
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
270
_____ causes beta hemolysis, paralysis, death, dermonecrosis and vascular permeability inmice
phospholipase C
271
____ is the target organ of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
liver
272
___ this Pseudomonas aerigonsa toxin serves to enhance the severity of infection and has been shown to damgae alot of cell types
Exoezyme S
273
these two enzymes play important roles in corneal infections and in pulmonary infections
Elastase A and B
274
______ degrades immunoglobulin G and A complement, airway lysozyme, and coagualtion factors, inhibits gamma interferon and NK cell activity
Elastase B
275
____ is important in the generation of P. aeruginosa microcolonies in tissues ie lungs, restricts access of immunoglobulins to o antigen polysacchrides
Extracellular slime
276
____ is produced by P. aeruginosa, it is toxic for other bacteria nd interfers witht eh tracheal cilliary function
pyocyanin
277
____ in high concentration will prevent expression of Exotoxin A, elastase, alkaline protease
iron
278
__ is the cause of UTI assocaited w/ catheter, otitis exteran, post surgical infection and a giant ass list of other bs diseases on page 122
Psuedomonas aeruginosa
279
immunization for P aeruginosa in only successful for _____ in mink adn chinchillas
hemorrhagic pneumonia
280
____ and ____ have shown promising results for tx of P aeruginosa
Fluoroquinolones and carbapenems
281
imprtant infectious agent especially in amphibians, reptiles and fish, causes a septicemia in frogs known as red leg, causes necrotic stomatitis in turtles
Aeromonas hydrophilia
282
Aeromonas hydrophilia produces alot of _____ which cause tissue destruciton
extracellular enzymes
283
cause of skin ulceration, furunculosis, and septecemia in a variety of cold water fish species- trout, salmon, grayling , etc
Aeromonas salmonicidia subspecies salmoncidia
284
cause of glanders primarily in horses and solipeds, humans and occasionally other animals, one of the oldest diseases known as described by the greeks
Burkholderia mallei
285
What are the three types of disease caused by Burkholderia mallei
Pulmonary- encapsulated noduels w/ cheesy puffs
Nasal- nodules in nasal mucous membranes which rupture, release exudate and form ulcers
Farcy of Cutaneous ganders- nodules along the cutaneous lymph channels
286
produces meliodosis a ganders like disease
Burkholderia pseudomallei
287
sometimes referred to as the Vietnamese time bomb
Burkholderia pseudomallei- some one call MIKE NELSON
288
cause of columnaris disease in warm water fish, disease is said to be the second leading casue of mortality in pond raised catfish in SE US second only to_____
Flavobacterium columnare; Edwardsiella ictaluri
289
_____ usually manifest as brown to yellow lesions of the gills, skin and or fins, bacteria attach to the surface of the gills, grow in spreading patches and erode the gill surface through production of _____
Flavobacterium coulmnare; proteolytic enzymes
290
treatment of water with _____ is successful in helping eliminate external disease of F. columnare
potassium permanganate
291
______ in the feed is helpful if tx is initiated early
terramycin
292
causes a devastating disease in freshwater salmon and trout characterized by necrotic lesions known as _____, young fish suffer severe mortality associated hemorrhagic septicemia referred to as_____
Flavobacterium psychrophilum; fresh water disease; rainbow trout fry syndrome
293
Flavobacterium psychrophilum pdx ______ that hydrolyze fish tissues
proteases
294
Name the Salmonella serovars that are adapted to humans, swine, cattle, and poultry
```
Humans= Salmonella typhi and typhoid fever in humans
Swine= Salmonella choleraesuis
Cattle= Salmonella dublin
Poultry= Salmonella pullorum
```
295
What is the difference between host-adapted and host-restriced?
Host adapted means its able to produce profound dz in that particular host species
Host restricted means its only able or is restricted to one host species thus only causes dz in that host species
296
Button ulcers” are characteristic of which Salmonella-host combination?
S. choleraesuis and swine (associated with respiratory dz and button ulcers)
297
Name the Salmonella serotype from amphibians and why is this serotype relevant to livestock?
Salmonella arizonae- causes septicemia in turkeys, is normal flora of reptiles esp. turtles and is not from the enterica subspecies (has different metabolic chars)
298
Name two major determinants of host adaptation/host restriction
1. Adherence to host epithelial cells
| 2. Macrophage survival
299
Why is S. typhimurium commonly associated with foodborne outbreaks?
S. typhimurium is normal gut flora of poultry and does not cause dz in poultry, however it does cause dz in humans.
Common cause of salmonellosis in mammalian hosts, mainly foodborne infections in humans
300
What intestinal cells does Salmonella prefer and why?
Salmonella prefers the M-cells or dome cells because they have a shorter glycocalyx and its easier to colonize these cells vs enterocytes with a thick glycocalyx.
301
In general terms how does Salmonella get into intestinal cells?
```
Adherence to M-cells/doem cells
Injection of bacterial proteins through the cell membrane (needle-like action)
Rearrangement of actin
Disorganized and ruffled membrane
Bacterial entry
Exit basal side of cell
Enters the systemic circulation
Endotoxemia
```
302
How is this cellular penetration process relevant to recent vegetable-borne outbreaks of salmonellosis?
With invasion of plant cells the bacteria don’t exit the cells (so they are not an issue for plants) but rather co-exist and then get ingested by a mammal or bird and cause infection.
303
Explain the importance of normal gut flora in regards to salmonella colonization of the intestines
Normal gut flora will compete for the receptor binding sites and hide the binding sites from the salmonella.
Normal flora will produce compounds that inhibit Salmonella and kill them
304
Explain how the SRP vaccine works
- SRP (siderophore receptor protein vaccine from S. newport) is an anti-Salmonella vaccine given to cattle (oral IN, IM, SC) and antibodies are made against the SRP.
- SRP brings Iron into the environment and cattle make antibodies against this so there will be an anamnestic response during an infection stopping the iron intake into the Salmonella. The lack of iron kills the salmonella and the antibody leads to CMI.
305
Why are killed bactrins usually ineffective versus Salmonella?
Killed bactrins do not elicit a CMI response the epitopes are usully the O antigen
- O-antigens are serogroup specific so bacterins are monovalent and don’t carry over to other serotypes
- Salmonella can also readily shed its O-antigens if needed so it gets away from the vaccine anyways.
306
Name two reasons why S. typhimurium DT 104 is of concern.
1. DT104 has multiple antibiotic resistance (this includes: ampicillin, chloramphenicol, streptomycin, sulfonamides, and tetracycline)
2. It is more virulent in cattle due to the presence of rumen protozoa harboring the Salmonella and the virulence factors of DT104 once the protozoa reach abomasum and are destroyed the bacteria is then released
307
Name the two major determinants of Salmonella virulence
1. Intestinal colonization
| 2. Invasion of intestinal cells
