Micro Exam 2 old Tests Flashcards
(208 cards)
1
Q
_____ is the cause of bacillary white diarrhea in chickens
A
salmonella pullorum
2
Q
is the cause of skin ulcers, feurnculosis and septicemia in salmonoid fish
A
Aeromonas salmonicidia
3
Q
is a common cause of respiratory infections, septicemia, pericarditis, peritonitis and granulomatous lesions in the intestines of commercial poultry
A
Escherichia coli
4
Q
is an organism that made headlines recently because several humans in a single hospital were infected with an Extreme Drug Resistant (XDR) strain that resulted in the deaths of several people
A
Klebsiella pneumoniae
5
Q
is the most common cause of actinomycosis in dogs
A
Actinomyces viscosus
6
Q
is the cause of bacillary dysentery in primates
A
Shigella dysenteriae, sonnei, boydii, or flexneri
7
Q
is the organism almost always recovered from pyometra in dogs
A
Escherichia coli
8
Q
is the cause of swimming pool granuloma in humans and granulomatous lesions in cold-blooded animals
A
Mycobacterium marinum
9
Q
is the serotype of Salmonella that is adapted to mice
A
Typhimurium
10
Q
is the Salmonella serotype found in pet turtles.
A
Arizonae
11
Q
is/are the species of livestock in which Salmonella typhimurium DT104 is most virulent.
A
Cattle
12
Q
is the leukocyte that can be killed by host-adapted Salmonella
A
Macrophage
13
Q
is the nutrient inhibited by the SRP vaccine against salmonellosis
A
Iron
14
Q
is the target antigen (epitope) of most Salmonella bacterins that fail to provide good immunity
A
O-Antigen (Somatic antigen)
15
Q
is a foreign animal disease primarily found in solipeds that is characterized by encapsulated nodules in the respiratory tract and infection of cutaneous lymph vessels
A
Glanders
16
Q
is a disease of warm water fish that can result in the breakdown of the cartilagenous structure of the gills and formation of lesions on the fins and ulceration of skin
A
columnaris disease
17
Q
is the antigenic formula for Escherichia coli isolates that were first implicated in hemolytic uremic syndrome in humans
A
O157:H7
18
Q
is the mechanism of action of the STa toxin of Escherichia coli
A
Increases intracellular cGMP
19
Q
____ and ____ are the two fimbrial subtypes (variants) of E. coli involved in edema disease of swine.
A
F18ab and F18ac
20
Q
Mastitis, pneumonia, otitis, polyarthritis; cattle
A
Mycoplasma bovis
21
Q
Mastitis and septicemia; goats and sheep
A
Mycoplasma agalactiae
22
Q
Enzootic pneumonia; swine
A
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
23
Q
Contagious pleuropneumonia; Cattle, buffalo, bison
A
Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides Small Colony (SC)
24
Q
Contagious pleuropneumonia; Goats
A
Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumoniae
25
Infectious keratoconjunctivitis; Sheep and goats
Mycoplasma conjunctivae
26
Airsacculitis in newly-hatched poults; turkeys
Mycoplasma meleagridis
27
Eperythrozoonosis/ anemia; swine
Mycoplasma suis
28
pneumonia; rats and mice
Mycoplasma pulmonis
29
Explain how plants can serve as a unique source of food-borne Salmonella infections.
Salmonella can enter into and survive within plant cells which are then ingested
30
What is the molecular basis of Nocardia species being only partially acid fast while Mycobacterium species are strongly acid fast?
The nocardic acids in Nocardia are only about 50 or so carbon atoms in length compared to the 90 or so carbon atom length of the mycolic acids found in mycobacteria. The shorter fatty acids do not retain the carbol fuchsin very well
31
Why are PPD tuberculins preferred over other types of tuberculins for use in DTH testing of most domestic animals and humans?
They are standardized for potentency and are more purified to help eliminate non-specific reactions
32
Why are swine reared in confinement buildings less likely to be infected with Mycobacterium avium?
Because there is less exposure to carrier birds and soil-borne mycobacteria
33
T/F Melioidosis is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa
False
34
T/F Salmonella typhimurium causes overt disease in poultry
False
35
T/F Burkholderia mallei is most often transmitted between horses via nasal exudate contaminating feed and water or though direct contact.
True
36
T/F Burkholderia mallei is most often transmitted to large cats and canidae via nasal exudates contaminating feed and water or through direct contact.
False
37
T/F All Enterobacteriaceae express enterotoxins but only about half of them express endotoxin
False
38
T/F Routine immunization of cows and sows with killed bacterins expressing the correct fimbrial antigens has led to a marked decrease in coliform enteritis in neonatal calves and pigs.
True
39
T/F E. coli STb is most often associated with severe enteritis in newborn calves
False
40
T/F Klebsiella pneumoniae causes mastitis in dairy cattle and urinary tract infections in a variety of animals but is not usually an enteric pathogen except in psittacine birds
True
41
T/F Enterobacter species cause mastitis in dairy cattle and urinary tract infections in a variety of animals but are not usually enteric pathogens except in psittacine birds.
True
42
T/F If correctly performed, formic acid treatment of milk and colostrum can kill Mycoplasma species.
True
43
T/F Nocardia asteroides is less common than Nocardia braziliensis as a cause of infections in the U.S
False
44
T/F Treatment of infections with Nocardia species, usually requires relatively aggressive intervention that may include surgical debridement of lesions
True
45
T/F Oddly, Actinomyces suis is a more common cause of infections in cattle than it is in pigs.
Flase
46
T/F Dermatophilus congolensis is commonly found in soil but is in highest concentrations in the soils in the desert Southwest
False
47
T/F Dermatophilus congolensis infections are more common in the desert Southwest because of a higher population of Culicoides (gnats or midges) found in this environment that bite the skin and create small lesions for the organism to colonize.
False
48
T/F Most of the bacteria covered on this exam are sensitive to penicillin.
False
49
T/F A tubercle is the same thing as an abscess.
False
50
T/F In the treatment of tuberculosis, it is the fast-growing population of organisms that is first killed off by the antibiotic(s).
True
51
T/F The incidence of Extensive Drug Resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB) is surging due to problems with treatment of bovine tuberculosis.
False
52
T/F Most cattle in the U.S. are required to be vaccinated against Mycobacterium bovis.
False
53
T/F Calves in Johne’s disease positive herds in the U.S. are required to be vaccinated against Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis.
False
54
It is thought that repeat infections with Mycoplasma pneumoniae often cause more severe clinical disease than earlier infections because
The organism stimulates a hypersensitivity response that becomes more pronounced with repeat infections.
55
For diagnosis of which of the following would a hand-held, rapid (a few minutes) PCR system be most valuable to a practicing veterinarian?
Johne’s disease in cattle
56
is an obligate parasite of the oropharynx and digestive tract of cattle.
Actinomyces bovis
57
is the cause of severe anemia in young pigs.
Mycoplasma suis
58
causes enterocolitis and mesenteric lymphadenitis in humans.
Yersinia enterocolitica
59
is the cause of skin ulceration, furunculosis and septicemia in a variety of coldwater fish.
Aeromonas salmonicida
60
is the cause of necrotic lesions (cold water disease) of freshwater salmon and trout.
Flavobacterium psychrophilum
61
is the cause of a serious infection in warmwater fish where the cartilaginous structure of the gills is broken down
Flavobacterium columnare
62
is an organism that is more common in tropical areas of the world, is carried in rodents and causes the formation of multiple, small, caseous nodules in almost any tissue.
Burkholderia pseudomallei
63
is an organism that is very common in soil that occasionally causes suppurative and granulomatous infections usually only in immunocompromised hosts.
Nocardia asteroides
64
is the cause of feline infectious anemia.
Mycoplasma haemofelis
65
is a verotoxin-producing organism that was involved in multiple cases of human disease in Europe this past summer that was linked to eating sprouts.
Escherichia coli
66
is the major infectious agent that causes cranio-ventral consolidation in the lungs of pigs.
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
67
is the main cause of a dry, hacking cough in lambs that usually starts around 5 to 10 weeks of age.
Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae
68
is the cause of Aswimming pool granulomas in humans.
Mycobacterium marinum
69
is the serotype of Salmonella that children contract by handling pet turtles.
Arizonae
70
is the main route by which glanders is transmitted to carnivores.
Ingestion
71
is a collective term used to group the Mycoplasma species that specifically attack red blood cells.
Hemoplasma
72
is the host to which Salmonella dublin is adapted.
Cattle
73
is the phenotypic characteristic conferred by integrons in Salmonella DT104.
Antibiotic resistance
74
is the intestinal cell type preferred by Salmonella.
M-cell
75
is the serotype of Salmonella most often associated with raw chicken.
Typhimurium
76
is the major type of cell that responds to a Mycobacterium bovis infection.
Macrophage
77
is the major type of cell that responds to a Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae infection.
Lymphocyte
78
List two common diseases caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae and the host(s) in which those diseases occur.
Mastitis ->Dairy cows
Enteritis and septicemia -> Psittacine birds
Urinary tract infections -> Dogs, humans
79
List three major diseases caused by Escherichia coli in swine.
Mastitis
Edema Disease
Enteritis
Joint infections
80
Why are pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma species usually chronic infections?
Because they often destroy the tracheal cilia and it takes a relatively long time for the cilia to regenerate. (A number of students thought it was because the organisms grow slowly; however, they may be slower growing than an E. coli for instance, but most of them grow sufficiently rapid that this would not account for chronicity.)
81
List two organisms that cause part of the mycoplasmal pneumonia complex in goats.
a. _Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumoniae, M. mycoides subsp. mycoides LC
b. M. mycoides subsp. capri
82
List two common methods for killing mycoplasma in ruminant colostrum and milk
formic acid treatment
pasteurization
83
If the U.S. had an outbreak of disease caused by Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides SC, why would we not vaccinate to prevent the spread of the disease?
Because the vaccine does not prevent infection. It can mask infection, result in chronic carriers and shedders and lead to spread of the organism
84
Explain how the toxin in scombroid poisoning is formed.
Morganella morganii produces histidine decarboxylase that breaks down histidine in the tissues of some fish to form histamine. Histamine is the toxin
85
Why are clinical samples contaminated with members of the genus Proteus often difficult to work with?
The Proteus species swarm all over the surface of the agar media and contaminate any other colonies that grow
86
T/F Development of the delayed-type hypersensitivity response to Mycobacterium bovis occurs within a few days of infection and this rapid response is why the DTH reaction is the basis of the major diagnostic test.
False
87
T/F Transmission of Burkholderia mallei in equidae is usually by a respiratory route.
False
88
T/F Enteric septicemia of catfish and columnaris disease are thought to be the two most important diseases of pond-reared catfish.
True
89
T/F An organism that retains the staining of carbol-fuchsin when washed with acid-alcohol is referred to as acid-fast.
True
90
T/F Acid-fast organisms are more likely to be phagocytosed but are often resistant to many of the killing mechanisms of phagocytic cells.
True
91
T/F Nocardia asteroides is a short, fat, gram-negative rod.
False
92
T/F The expression of exotoxin A and elastase in Pseudomonas aeruginosa is controlled by the concentration of calcium and the temperature in which the organism grows.
Flase
93
T/F Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause necrotic stomatitis, pneumonia and septicemia in snakes and turtles
True
94
T/F Pseudomonas aeruginosa is always resistant to penicillin-class antimicrobials.
False
95
T/F Pyocyanin is bactericidal (kills other bacteria).
True
96
T/F Dipping a cool egg in a warm solution of an antibiotic is used to eliminate salmonella from the egg
False
97
T/F Mycoplasma conjunctivae is the main organism causing conjunctivitis in sheep and goats in the U.S
False
98
T/F The bubonic and pneumonic forms of plague are transmitted by different routes.
True
99
T/F Human Salmonella infections associated with raw chicken are the result of eating the raw chicken
False
100
T/F Shigella sonnei is the most virulent of the Shigella species
False
101
T/F Shigella species usually require a high infectious dose and that is why disease caused by these organisms is usually seen where heavy fecal-oral contamination occurs such as in daycares and on cruise ships
False
102
T/F The main focus of the Voluntary Johne=s Disease Control Program is to vaccinate as many calves as possible to decrease the herd incidence.
False
103
T/F Cattle that become infected with Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis after one to two years of age are more prone to develop severe disease.
False
104
T/F Organisms in the MAIS Complex are usually transmitted by a respiratory route
False
105
T/F Klebsiella pneumoniae commonly causes respiratory infections in domestic animals
False
106
T/F Klebsiella pneumoniae commonly causes respiratory infections in domestic animals
False
107
T/F Klebsiella pneumoniae commonly causes respiratory infections in domestic animals
False
108
Which of the following is a host-restricted serotype of Salmonella?
a. Typhimurium
b. Choleraesuis variety Kunzendorf
c. Enteritidis
d. Only a and b
e. Only b and c
Choleraesuis variety Kunzendorf
109
Which of the following is true regarding Salmonella immunizing products?
a. The SRP vaccine works by blocking iron release by Salmonella.
b. The Agood@ Salmonella vaccines stimulate primarily humoral immunity.
c. Salmonella O-antigens are immunodominant but yet not protective.
d. No vaccines are available
Salmonella O-antigens are immunodominant but yet not protective.
110
is the cause of glanders in solipeds, humans and others.
Burkholderia mallei
111
is an organism present in the oral cavity of piglets and which causes draining granulomas in the mammary glands of sows
Actinomyces suis
112
is a partially acid-fast organism that is common in soil.
Nocardia asteroides
113
is the cause of columnaris disease of pond-reared catfish and other warm water fish.
Flavobacterium columnare
114
is the cause of chronic proliferative interstitial or atypical pneumonia in sheep and goats.
Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae
115
is an important predisposing bacterial agent for the development of pinkeye in cattle.
Mycoplasma bovoculi
116
is the bacterial organism that is almost always found in pyometra in dogs
Escherichia coli
117
is the area of the digestive tract attacked by Shigella species.
large intestine
118
List the species (and subspecies, etc., where appropriate) of Mycoplasma that cause each of the following:
______ Tracheobronchitis and pneumonia in humans
______ Respiratory infections in rats
______ Chronic respiratory disease of chickens
______ Contagious agalactia and arthritis of sheep and goats
______ Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
______ Mastitis, respiratory disease, otitis in calves
M.pneumoniae
M. pulmonis
M. gallisepticum
M. agalactiae
M. mycoides subspecies mycoides SC
M. bovis
119
List a relatively common disease or infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa in each of the following:
___________ Snakes and turtles
____________Cattle
___________ Dogs
Necrotic stomatitis, pneumonia,
Mastitis
Urinary tract infection, Otitis externa, wound infection
120
List one relatively common disease or infection caused by Escherichia coli in each of the following:
_________ Chickens and turkeys
________ Psittacine birds
_________Dogs
Respiratory disease, septicemia
Septicemia, enteritis
Urinary tract infection, pyometra
121
Successful vaccines against diseases caused by E. coli have targeted what two bacterial components as antigens?
Fimbriae
Core antigens (J5)
122
Stable toxins a and b of Escherichia coli are important in the production of enteric disease. Why do we not have immunizing products aimed at inducing antibody production to Sta and Stb?
The toxin molecules are too small to stimulate an immune response
123
List two toxins or virulence factors other than endotoxin that are produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa and briefly describe their mechanism of action
a. Exotoxin A: Inhibits protein synthesis by NAD-dependent ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2. Phospholipase C, Exoenzyme S: Inhibits protein function, Elastase A and B: Breaks down elastin, immunoglobulins, complement and other factors
b. Extracellular slime: Antiphagocytic, facilitates microcolony formation, Pyocyanin: acquisition of inorganic phosphate.
124
_______ is the serotype of Salmonella causing almost all the clinical disease in swine
Choleraesuis
125
Why is Salmonella typhimurium DT 104 infection so difficult to treat?
Because it is resistant to multiple antimicrobials
126
One of your friends asks you to culture the water in her fish tank. She has been having fish die recently and want to know if there is a problem with the water. You spread 0.1 ml of the water on a blood agar plate. After incubation you observe about 5 colonies that look like Aeromonas hydrophila. Are 5 colonies of A. hydrophila (50 colonies per ml) a significant finding that you can relate to the cause of the fish mortality? Explain your answer. pick one
Significant Not significant
Not significant
Aeromonas hydrophila is found in normal fish tank water and other open water sources. This is a relatively low concentration
127
is the cause of typhoid fever in humans.
Salmonella typhi
128
What is the main advantage of a siderophore receptor protein vaccine over any other killed immunizing product for prevention of salmonellosis?
The vaccine stimulates antibody production against the siderophore receptor of essentially all salmonella serotypes
129
Host adaptation in Salmonella is determined by what two factors?
Specific attachment to host intestinal epithelial cells
Ability to survive in macrophages
130
Describe or diagram and label the cycle of infection of Yersinia pestis in both animal and human populations.
Sylvatic plague: Yersinia pestis is transmitted to a rodent usually from the bite of a flea. The rodent develops septicemia and other fleas feed on it and ingest the Yersinia. The rodent dies and the fleas jump onto another host, bite that host and transmit the organism. Yersinia pestis cycles through rodent populations and is maintained in nature by this method.
Bubonic plague: Infected fleas feed on humans and transmit Yersinia pestis. The organism multiplies in the draining lymph nodes causing them to markedly enlarge (buboes). A septicemia ensues. Alternatively a septicemic form by-passes the bubo stage. Ordinarily, bubonic plague does not transmit readily between individuals.
Pneumonic plague: Transmitted among humans by a respiratory route. Not commonly seen
131
In order to isolate Actinomyces bovis from cases of lumpy jaw in cattle, material from the lesions must be washed in sterile saline because:
a. The organism is found in microcolonies (granules) that need to be isolated and cultured.
b. The lesions are usually highly contaminated with other, faster-growing bacteria that are removed by washing in saline.
c. The living organism is only present inside of neutrophils and can only be isolated from large aggregations of pus.
d. Sterile saline stimulates the growth of the organism.
e. Only a and b above
f. Only a and c above
e. Only a and b above
132
Infections with Dermatophilus congolensis are often associated with:
a. Tick and other insect bites
b. Excessively dry environmental conditions
c. Excessively cold environmental conditions
d. All the above
e. Only a and b above
Tick and other insect bites
133
Flavobacterium psychrophilum
a. Is the cause of Acold water disease@ in freshwater salmon and trout
b. Is the cause of rainbow trout fry syndrome.
c. Is the cause of enteric septicemia of catfish
d. All the above
e. Only a and b above
f. Only b and c above
e. Only a and b above
134
Burkholderia pseudomallei
a. Has a natural habitat in soil and water in S.E. Asia and other tropical and subtropical areas.
b. Commonly infects rodents.
c. Infection is manifested as small caseous nodules in almost any tissue.
d. All the above
e. None of the above
d. All the above
135
T/F Glanders in humans is most commonly the cutaneous form.
True
136
T/F Edema disease of swine is manifested primarily as a CNS disease.
True
137
T/F Edema disease of swine is caused by F18 ab and F18ac fimbrial types
True
138
T/F Klebsiella pneumoniae is a common cause of respiratory infections in domestic animals.
False
139
T/F Extended spectrum beta lactamase resistance is primarily a problem in Serratia species
Flase
140
T/F Mycolic acids and nocardic acids are similar in composition but the latter are larger and therefore better retain the carbol fuchsin of the acid-fast stain.
False
141
T/F Phenolic disinfectants are more active against mycobacteria because they are better able to penetrate the cell wall lipids of the organisms.
False
142
T/F Replacement dairy heifers that are infected with Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis around the time they have their first calf are more likely to develop severe disease compared to animals infected before 1 month of age.
False
143
T/F There is a national Johne=s disease eradication program in the U.S.
False
144
T/F Infections with Nocardia asteroides are uncommon because the organism has a relatively restricted natural habitat.
False
145
T/F Mycobacterium bovis infections have been decreased to the point that most states are considering abandoning the state-federal cooperative eradication program.
False
146
T/F Cattle are routinely vaccinated against Mycobacterium bovis in many other countries.
False
147
T/F The Bacille Calmette Guerin (BCG) is used to vaccinate infants in the U.S
false
148
T/F Swine reared in confinement buildings are less likely to be infected with Mycobacterium avium
True
149
T/F Mycobacteria utilize fimbriae to attach to target cells.
False
150
T/F Mycoplasa species routinely use fimbriae to attach to target cells
False
151
T/F Yersinia enterocolitica and Yersinia pseudotuberculosis are commonly found in the intestinal tracts of normal humans
False
152
T/F ELISA and bacteriologic culture are the two most common methods used for diagnosis of Johne=s disease
True
153
T/F Johne=s disease does not occur in sheep and goats.
Flase
154
T/F Although usually thought of as a non-pathogen, Citrobacter species has been isolated routinely from a variety of infections in domestic animals.
False
155
T/F Scromboid poisoning is mostly a problem in cats.
False
156
T/F Scromboid poisoning is caused when cats become colonized with Morganella morganii.
False
157
T/F F4 fimbriae are important for adherence of enterotoxigenic E. coli to mucosa of the anterior small intestine of neonatal pigs.
True
158
T/ F18 fimbriae are responsible for adherence of E.coli to the anterior small intestine of neonatal calves and lambs.
False
159
T/F Some species of mycoplasma are known to induce immediate hypersensitivity responses.
True
160
T/F the "sulfur granules" found in lesions of actinomyces bovis are composed primarily of sulfur
False
161
T/F The real-time quantitative PCR test for Mycobacteruum subspecies paratuberculosis is thought to be highly sensitive, especially for animals that are high shedders
True
162
T/F Escherichia coli must have F18 fimbrae and produce vasotoxin in order to cause edema disease in swine
True
163
T/F Escherichia coli Stb toxin triggers a cascade of events inside target cells resulting in the opening of ion channels through which ions and water are lost
True
164
T/F Stx-1 and Stx-2 are Shiga toxins produced by hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) isolates of E. coli
True
165
T/F The USDA zero tolerance policy for certain E. coli in meat/poultry is based only on the O-antigens of those organisms
True
166
T/F Species of Shigella only cause disease in humans
False
167
T/F Proteus species are the most heavily encapsulated members of the family Enterobacteriae
False
168
T/F Klebsiella pneumonia has several toxins that are essential for production of disease
False
169
T/F Non host adapted serotypes of Salmonella are also considered to be non pathogenic
False
170
T/F Bubonic plague does not occur in the US
False
171
T/F Mycoplasma species are common cause of enteritis in domestic animals
False
172
T/F Mycoplasma species require cholesterol (serum) in their culture media
True
173
T/F Immunization against contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is required for farm raised bison in the US
false
174
T/F Contagious caprine plueropneumonia tends to be a relative mild disease with low morbidity and case fatality rates
False
175
T/F Mycoplasma pneumoniae us the major cause of chronic respiratory disease in rates
False- pulmonis
176
T/F Feline infectios anemia can be transmitted by any method that transfers blood from one cat to another
True
177
T/F Pseudomonas aeruginosa is common skin contaminant that has little to no ability to invade tissues
True
178
T/F Psuedomonas aeruginosa pdx a number of proteases that are thought to be important to the destruction of host tissues
False
179
____ is the cause of glanders in horses
Burkholderia mallei
180
____ is a Mycoplasma species that causes airsacculitis in turkeys only
B. meleagridis
181
____ is the complete name of the mist important organism causing contagious caprine pleuropneumonia
Mycoplasma capricolum sub species capripneumoniae
182
____ is the major cause of tuberculosis in captive primates
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
183
____ is the major cause of tuberculosis in birds
Mycobacterium avium
184
____ is the major cause of tuberculosis in swine
Mycobacterium avium
185
____ is an important cause of mesenteric lymphanditis and enteritis in humans
Yersinia entercolitica
186
____ is the cause of pullorum disease
Salmonella pullorum
187
____ is the cause of feline infectious anemia
Mycobacterium haemofelis
188
____ us the only member of the family Enterobacteriaceae that casues respiratory disease and septicemia in commercial poultry
Escherchia coli
189
____ and ____ are the two most common serovars of salmonella causing disease in calves
dublin and typhimurium
190
____ and ____ are the two Salmonella serovars most commonly associated with food poisoning in the US
typhimurium and enteridis
191
____ is the cause of a granulomatous osteomyelitis most often seen in cattle
Actinomyces bovis
192
____ is the cause of actinomycotic mammary gland lesions in sows
Actinomyces suis
193
____ is the full name of the organism that causes contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides SC
194
____ produces large thick scabs on the skin of domestic animals, scabs are composed of the organism, serum, and cellular debris.
Dermatophilus congolensis
195
____ is the cause of contagious agalactiae arthritis and septicemia in sheep/goats
Mycoplasma algalactiae
196
____ is an organsim that has been a problem recently in white tailed deer w/ subsequent transmission to cattle
Mycobacterium bovis
197
____ is the cause of "enteric septicemia" in catfish
Edwardsiella ictaluri
198
____ and ____ are two diseases of dogs that are most often caused by Escherichia coli
pyometria and UTI
199
____ and ____ are the two animals most commonly infected with Salmonella arizonae
reptiles/turtles and Turkeys
200
Explain breifly the molecular basis for Nocardia asteroides being partially acid fast and Mycobacterium species being completely acid fast
Mycobacterium-> mycolic acid 50-90 Carbon acids hold stain much better that the smaller nocardic acid of N. asteroides
201
How does acid fast stain relate to the ability of macrophages to ingest mycobacteria
Those that acid fast stain are more hydrophobic and and are more cabable of being phagocytized and living w/in macrophage? (double check this one)
202
```
List the main natural habitat for the following organisms:
Dermatophilus congolensis
Slmonella enteritidis
Yersinia enterocolitica
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
BUrkholderia pseudomallei
```
Dermatophilus congolensis; mosit soil
Slmonella enteritidis: intestinal tract of chickens
Yersinia enterocolitica: intsetinal tract of some animals
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae: upper respiratory tract of pigs
Burkholderia pseudomallei: in soil, water, and rodents in SE asia
203
LIst 3 gram negative organsims that have recently developed extreme drug resistance (XDR)
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Psuedomonas aeruginosa
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
204
Explain breifly the mechanism of action of the heat stable toxin STa of E. coli... how does it cause diarrhea in neonatal animals
Increases cyclic GMP, results in inability to retain sodium, increases chloride retention, net result is increased fluid loss- diarrhea
205
Why is the DT104 salmonella typhimurium considered to be such a problem
it has the genes for extensive drug resistance and has been replacing susceptible strains
206
Briefly describe the genesis of scromboid poisoning
Morgnalla morgano- produces histidine decarboxylase, which reacts with histidine in the fish muscle creating histmine, human eats fish result is anaphylactic response
207
Describe the transmission of the bubonic plague in 25 words or less
flea feeds on infected rodent, flea feeds on human, transmits Yersinia pestus, organism replicates in lymph nodes forming nodules that can disseminate
208
Explain how cell fusion can benefit mycoplasma species
Mycoplasma can trade cellular material and shield itself from the host immune system
