Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Delta 7ER IQ > eSV > Flashcards

eSV Flashcards

(75 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

(757) Maximum operating altitude.

A

42,000 feet pressure altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

(767) Maximum operating altitude.

A

43,000 feet pressure altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the 767-300 maximum operating altitude?

A

43,000 feet pressure altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component?

A

10 Knots or as permitted by Delta Special Pages (Green Pages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the turbulent air penetration speed?

A

290 KIAS or .78 Mach, whichever is less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The maximum takeoff and landing crosswind for normal operations is _____ knots.

A

40 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

After takeoff, the autopilot must not be engaged below _____ feet AGL.

A

200 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False: Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maximum allowable wind speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations: Headwind of _____ Knots.

A

25 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maximum allowable wind speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations: Crosswind of _____ Knots. (Boeing’s #, not the Delta Ops Spec Limit)

A

25 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum allowable wind speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations: Tailwind of _____ Knots.

A

10 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Autoland authorized for flaps _____ or _____ landing only.

A

Flaps 25, Flaps 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The maximum altitude for flap extension is _____ feet.

A

20,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List the recall action step(s) for an ABORTED ENGINE START.

A

Step 1: FUEL CONTROL SWITCH (affected side)……CUTOFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List the recall action step(s) for a DUAL ENGINE FAILURE.

A

Step 1 : ENG START SELECTORS (both)……FLT
Step 2 : THRUST LEVERS (both)……IDLE
Step 3 : FUEL CONTROL SWITCHES (both)……CUTOFF, then RUN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List the recall action step(s) for ENGINE FIRE or SEVERE DAMAGE or SEPARATION.

A

Step 1 : A/T ARM SWITCH……OFF

Step 2 : THRUST LEVER (affected side)……Confirm….IDLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List the recall action step(s) for ENGINE LIMIT or SURGE or STALL.

A

Step 1 : A/T ARM SWITCH……OFF
Step 2 : THRUST LEVER (affected side)…..Confirm…..Retard until indications remain within normal limits or thrust lever is at idle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List the recall action step(s) for CABIN ALTITUDE or RAPID DEPRESSURIZATION.

A

Step 1 : DON THE OXYGEN MASKS

Step 2 : ESTABLISH CREW COMMUNICATIONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List the recall action step(s) for AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE.

A

Step 1 : Check the pitch attitude and thrust
Step 2 : If pitch attitude or thrust is not normal for phase of flight: 1.) Autopilot disengage switch - push 2.) Autothrottle disconnect switch - push 3.) F/D switches (both) - OFF 4.) Establish normal pitch attitude and thrust setting for phase of flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If time is critical or vision is obstructed, list the steps of an EVACUATION.

A

Step 1 : Stop
Step 2 : Configure
Step 3 : Shutdown
Step 4 : Evacuate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where is the Light Override (LT OVRD) switch located?

A

The Overhead Panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or False : Any illuminated VALVE light on the B757 and B767 indicates a disagreement with the commanded position.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False : The minimum crew oxygen pressure is 1,000 psi.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What will pushing the passenger oxygen (PASS OXY) switch on the overhead panel do?

A
  1. ) Drop the passenger cabin oxygen masks.

2. ) Illuminate the amber passenger oxygen “ON” light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Explain the three switch position functions of the emergency lights (EMER LIGHTS).
1. ) ARMED : All emergency lights illuminate if airplane electrical power fails or is turned off. 2. ) ON : All emergency lights illuminate. 3. ) OFF : Prevents emergency lights system operation if airplane electrical power fails or is turned off.
26
True or False : The emergency lights can be activated from the passenger cabin emergency lights (EMER LTG) switch, regardless of the flight deck EMER LTS switch position.
True
27
True or False : An illuminated emergency lights UNARMED light means the emergency lighting system has been manually activated or the emergency lights switch is OFF.
True
28
What will be the flight deck indications if an entry door is open?
You will get an ENTRY DOOR annunciator light on the overhead panel with the associated EICAS message.
29
True or False : The bulk cargo door is on the left aft fuselage of B767 aircraft.
True
30
Minimum pavement width to make a 180° turn in the 757-200, 757-300, and 767-300.
757-200 - 120 feet 757-300 - 141 feet 767-300 - 146 feet
31
Which turn radius is the largest on the B767-300? (nose, tail, or wing tip)
Wing tip
32
On the B767, which compartment temperature control can be set to MAN to allow manual operation of the trim air valve?
FLT DK
33
True or False : The ON position of the TRIM AIR switch commands the trim air valve open.
True
34
Where is GASPER air discharged?
Through gasper outlets above each passenger seat.
35
True or False : RECIRC FANs improve fuel efficiency.
True
36
What position of the B767 Equipment Cooling Selector will arm the NO COOLING light?
OVRD
37
True or False : Illumination of the PACK OFF light on the air conditioning panel indicates the PACK valve is closed.
True
38
What is indicated by the illumination of the PACK INOP light on the air conditioning panel?
1. ) A PACK is overheated. | 2. ) A fault in the automatic control
39
True or False : The illuminated gasper fan OFF light indicates the gasper fan is signaled OFF or not operating.
True
40
What is indicated by an illuminated RECIRC FAN INOP light?
1. ) The recirculation fan is failed or not operating. | 2. ) The RECIRC FAN switch is OFF
41
True or False : Selecting OFF on a PACK control selector closes the PACK valve.
True
42
Which cargo heat position provides warmer temperatures, NORM or VENT?
VENT provides warmer cargo bin temps and is the regular position of this switch on Delta flights.
43
True or False : The center isolation (C ISLN) switch on the 767 is guarded to protect the air source to the ADP.
True
44
True or False : The illumination of the engine bleed OFF light indicates the bleed valve is closed.
True
45
What are the flight deck indications of a dual pressurization controller failure?
The AUTO INOP light on the pressurization panel illuminates.
46
True or False : An illuminated CABIN ALTITUDE light on the overhead panel indicates cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet.
True
47
True or False : The NO COOLING light is only operational if EQUIP COOLING is in OVRD.
True
48
The compartment temperature INOP light(s) indicate:
1. ) The TRIM AIR switch is OFF 2. ) Fault in the temperature controller 3. ) Compartment temperature controller is OFF
49
True or False : An illuminated DUCT LEAK light is an indication of high temperature bleed air leak detected in the pneumatic duct.
True
50
True or False : An illuminated BLEED light is an indication of a bleed air malfunction.
True
51
True or False : An illuminated HIGH STAGE / OVHT light is an indication of a bleed air malfunction.
True
52
On the B757, what EICAS message will be displayed when the ice detector no longer senses ice accumulation?
Advisory message ICE DET OFF
53
When is the wing anti-ice system inhibited?
Anytime the airplane is on the ground
54
When does probe heat operate automatically?
Anytime an engine is running
55
When would the CAPT PITOT light on the overhead panel be illuminated?
1. ) The aircraft is on the ground with both engines shutdown. 2. ) The probe is not being heated
56
Engine anti-ice must be used during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temperature is below _____ °C SAT.
-40°C SAT
57
Can the APU be the bleed air source for anti-ice?
No, it isn't sufficient.
58
True or False : On aircraft equipped with anti-ice selectors, when in the AUTO position, no EICAS messages are generated and no discrete lights illuminate when in icing conditions if the anti-ice systems are functioning normally.
True
59
How long is the green box on the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) displayed when a pitch, roll, or autothrottle mode has changed?
10 seconds
60
What is the meaning of a steady amber FMC light on the center forward panel?
The CDU is displaying an operationally significant message in the scratchpad.
61
True or False : When LOC and GS are both armed, GS can always capture prior to LOC capture.
True
62
True or False : Delta recommends selecting B/C prior to LOC when flying a localizer back course approach.
True
63
The FL CH switch uses a "_____ minute rule" that prevents the autothrottles from performing a full EPR climb or flight idle descent for small altitude changes.
"2 minute rule"
64
True or False : Vertical Speed (V/S) pitch mode has no overspeed or stall protection.
True
65
True or False : Speed can be controlled in VNAV by the FMS or by using speed intervention.
True
66
Which roll mode does the bank angle limit selector apply to?
HDG only.
67
True or False : If the Flight Director switches are turned off, selecting go-around will cause the Flight Director command bars to appear.
True
68
True or False : The vertical speed selector is always active, regardless of whether or not the vertical speed window is open.
False
69
True or False : Engaging the autopilot in takeoff or go-around will result in pitch and roll modes of vertical speed and heading hold.
True
70
True or False : After LOC or G/S are captured, a new pitch mode may be engaged by selecting a different pitch mode on the MCP.
False
71
True or False : The Ground Service switch is located in the cabin.
True
72
How much time is required for IRS fast realignment?
Approximately 30 seconds
73
Which aircraft model in the 7ER category can jettison fuel?
767-300ER
74
What is the approximate rate at which fuel can be jettisoned?
1,300 pounds per minute
75
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides adequate hydraulic power at speeds above _____ knots.
130 knots

Delta 7ER IQ (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions