VFD Flashcards
(163 cards)
1
Q
When would a VALVE light illuminate?
A
When the valve position disagrees with the switch position.
2
Q
True or False: The 757-300 is the longest single-aisle twin jet ever built.
A
True. 178 feet, 7 inches long.
3
Q
What is the minimum recommended pavement width for a 180° turn in the 757-200?
A
120 feet.
4
Q
What is the minimum recommended pavement width for a 180° turn in the 757-300?
A
141 feet.
5
Q
What engine brand and thrust rating is present on the 757-300?
A
Pratt and Whitney 2040 engines, rated takeoff thrust at sea level is 40,000 lbs each.
6
Q
What engine brand and thrust rating is present on the 757-200?
A
Pratt and Whitney 2037 engines, rated takeoff thrust at sea level is 37,000 lbs each.
7
Q
What is the total usable fuel capacity of the 757-300?
A
Approximately 77,000 lbs. (76,822 lbs)
8
Q
What is the minimum recommended pavement width for a 180° turn in the 767-300?
A
146 feet.
9
Q
What engine brand and thrust rating is present on the 767-300?
A
General Electric CF6-80A2 engines, rated takeoff thrust at sea level is 49,200 lbs each.
10
Q
What is the total usable fuel capacity of the 767-300?
A
112,000 lbs.
11
Q
What is the total usable fuel capacity of the 767-300ER?
A
162,400 lbs.
12
Q
What is the total usable fuel capacity of the 757-200?
A
75,400 lbs.
13
Q
What is the maximum range of the 767-300ER?
A
5,570 nm.
14
Q
True or False: Opening an entry door from the outside automatically disarms the emergency door opening system and the escape slide.
A
True.
15
Q
What is a “Grimes Light?”
A
A semi-portable utility light installed for general use.
16
Q
What function does the IND LTS TEST button on the lighting panel serve?
A
Used to identify faulty indicator lights. It also tests ADI and HSI displays if the aircraft is on the ground.
17
Q
Selecting LT OVRD on the overhead lighting panel does what?
A
Simultaneously illuminates dome, forward panel flood, glareshield, aisle stand flood, and all annunciator lights at maximum brightness.
18
Q
Which landing lights (nose or wing) are positioned for optimal illumination during approach?
A
Nose gear landing lights
19
Q
Which landing lights (nose or wing) are positioned for optimal illumination during flare and ground roll?
A
Wing landing lights
20
Q
What configuration/condition causes NO SMOKING lights to illuminate if it is in AUTO mode?
A
- ) Gear is not up and locked.
- ) Cabin altitude is above 10,000 feet.
- ) Passenger oxygen system is on.
21
Q
What configuration/condition causes SEATBELTS lights to illuminate if it is in AUTO mode?
A
- ) Gear is not up and locked.
- ) Flap lever is not up.
- ) Cabin altitude is above 10,000 feet.
- ) Passenger oxygen system is on.
22
Q
True or False: NO SMOKING signs will remain illuminated regardless of the NO SMOKING selector position.
A
True
23
Q
Where is the flight crew oxygen bottle located on the 757?
A
Forward cargo compartment
24
Q
Explain the three different flow selections on a crew oxygen mask.
A
EMER: 100% oxygen under positive pressure
100%: 100% oxygen on demand
NORM: air/oxygen mixture on demand (air/oxygen ratio depends on cabin altitude)
25
What is the minimum oxygen pressure, displayed on the EICAS STATUS page, required for dispatch?
1,000 PSI
26
Why is one crewmember required to hold the test/reset switch on the oxygen mask for 10 seconds while monitoring the OXY PRESS readout on EICAS?
A decrease in 100 PSI over a 10 second period would indicate that the crew oxygen shutoff valve is closed.
27
When will passenger oxygen masks deploy automatically?
When cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14,000 feet
28
Where is the flight crew oxygen bottle located on the 767-300?
On the right side of the E and E compartment
29
How many passenger entry doors are there on the 757-200 and 757-300?
6 (six)
30
Can the overwing exit slides be used as an additional flotation device?
No
31
Where is the inflatable life raft located in the 757-200?
Between the overhead bins in the rear of the aircraft
32
Each slide/raft has an associated survival kit, where are these located?
Normally located in an overhead bin adjacent to the door
33
True or False: Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELTs) are installed in the passenger compartment and the flight deck.
True
34
What color are crew life vests? Passenger life vests?
Crew vests are orange, passenger vests are yellow
35
A passenger's lithium ion battery in their laptop overheats and catches fire, which extinguisher is more effective: halon or water?
Water. (Halon extinguishers are very effective in fighting most fires, with the exception of combustible metals and metal alloy fires)
36
What two types of medical kits are available in the aircraft cabin?
1. ) Enhanced Emergency Medical Kit (EEMK) usually with a medical accessory pouch nearby
2. ) First aid kits
37
How many passenger entry doors are on most 767-300s?
4 (four)
38
Where is the inflatable life raft located in the 767-300?
A raft with a capacity for 46 people is located in the middle of the aircraft in a wall mounted compartment
39
What causes the EMER LIGHTS to automatically illuminate all emergency lights if the switch is in the ARMED position?
If the aircraft's normal electrical power fails or is turned off
40
True or False: the EMERGENCY LIGHTS can be activated from the flight attendant panel regardless of the flight deck switch position.
True
41
How many emergency exits are on the 757-300?
14 (fourteen)
| 2 cockpit sliding windows, 6 entry doors, 4 overwing exits, and 2 emergency doors
42
What two instances would cause illumination of the amber UNARMED indicator next to the EMER LIGHTS switch on the overhead panel?
1. ) The EMER LIGHTS system has been manually activated in the flight deck (i.e. switch in the ON position)
2. ) The EMER LIGHTS switch has been selected OFF in the flight deck
43
The pneumatics system supplies bleed air to which four systems/purposes?
1. ) Air conditioning and pressurization
2. ) Wing and engine anti-ice
3. ) Engine starting
4. ) Hydraulic reservoir head pressure
44
True or False: the ISOLATION valve on the BLEED AIR panel must always be manually selected to open or close.
True, it has no automatic function
45
How is bleed air supplied from the engines?
By a low pressure (LP) port and a high pressure (HP) port in the compressor section of the engine
46
Which bleed air port, LP or HP, is used under most conditions? When is the other used?
Low pressure (LP) bleed air is used under most conditions. However, in some situations, like low power settings, LP bleed air may be insufficient. In this situation, the HP valve opens automatically.
47
Is there any indication in the flight deck as to which engine compressor bleed air port (LP/HP) is in use?
No.
48
What would an amber L ENG HI STAGE advisory message on EICAS, along with the HI STAGE light illuminated on the BLEED AIR panel indicate?
That the HP port was in use and it over-pressed. In this situation, the HP bleed air valve automatically locks in the closed position.
49
How are bleed air valves controlled? (electrically, mechanically, hydraulically, etc.)
They are electrically controlled (i.e. electronic switch in the flight deck), and pneumatically operated (i.e. air pressure physically moves the valve)
50
What does a L or R ENG amber OFF light on the BLEED AIR panel indicate?
1. ) That the corresponding engine bleed air valve has closed automatically due to a system fault.
2. ) The switch is OFF.
3. ) The engine is not running.
51
What would an amber L ENG BLEED VAL advisory message on EICAS, along with an amber BLEED light illuminated on the BLEED AIR panel indicate?
A bleed air malfunction has occurred. (e.g. bleed air temperature became excessive)
52
Can the APU be used to supply bleed air for engine or wing anti-ice operations?
No, it does not provide sufficient bleed air for those purposes.
53
High pressure external air can be used for what two purposes?
1. ) Engine starts (two external bleed carts are required, or one cart with two separate hoses)
2. ) Air conditioning pack operation
54
How are bleed air leaks detected?
Temperature sensors mounted near ducts and manifolds.
55
What mechanism/power supply controls the outflow valve to maintain the desired cabin pressure?
2 AC powered motors, each a component of their respective automatic pressure controllers, actuate the outflow valve. In the event of a dual auto pressure controller failure, a DC powered motor provides manual control of the outflow valve.
56
The index mark on the AUTO RATE switch located on the CABIN ALTITUDE CONTROL panel represents what cabin altitude rate of change?
500 FPM Climb
| 300 FPM Descent
57
At what cabin altitude will the red CABIN ALTITUDE light on the CABIN ALTITUDE CONTROL panel illuminate, as well as the red CABIN ALT light on the forward discrete panel?
When the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet. Both annunciators will extinguish when the cabin altitude descends below 8,500 feet.
58
Where are the five negative pressure relief vent doors located on the 767-300?
Two on each cargo door (right side), and another located immediately forward of the positive pressure relief valves (forward left side of fuselage)
59
Where are the positive pressure relief valves located on the 767-300?
Forward left fuselage.
60
Where are the two negative pressure relief vent doors located on the 757?
Forward right fuselage.
61
Where is the outflow valve located?
Aft left fuselage.
62
Where are the two positive pressure relief valves located on the 757?
Aft left fuselage.
63
What three pneumatic sources can provide enough air to operate the packs?
Bleed air from the engines or APU, and high pressure air from a ground source.
64
What is the purpose of recirculation (RECIRC) fans?
To maintain overall cabin air circulation while allowing a reduction of cabin air ventilation, effectively reducing PACK workload. This reduced flow reduces bleed air demand from the engines, reducing fuel burn.
65
Conditioned air for the flight deck is also used in which 2 compartments? and for what purpose?
Forward and aft E/E compartments, equipment cooling.
66
In the event that auto pack operations fail, explain the three STBY positions (N/C/W) of the PACK controller switch
N (normal) - sets the PACK to produce a constant moderate temperature.
C (cool) - sets the PACK to full cold operation.
W (warm) - sets the PACK to full warm operation.
67
What does the acronym PACK stand for?
Pneumatic Air Conditioning Kit
68
What does a L or R PACK amber INOP light indicate?
1. ) A pack outlet overheat is detected.
| 2. ) A fault in the automatic control system.
69
What two air sources are mixed in the mix manifold?
Cold air from the PACKs, and air from the recirculation system.
70
Why is the L RECIRC FAN switch guarded on the 757?
It is an essential part of the equipment cooling system and should be left in the ON position during normal operation.
71
True or False: Both RECIRC fans will automatically be turned off if the fwd cargo fire ARMED switch is selected.
True
72
Which RECIRC FAN (L or R) automatically turns off if the aft cargo fire ARMED switch is selected?
Right
73
When would the amber INOP light located above the three (4 on the 757-300 and 767-300) temperature controller switches illuminate?
1. ) The respective compartment temperature controller is OFF.
2. ) The TRIM AIR switch is OFF.
3. ) There is a fault in the zone temperature controller.
74
True or False: The Captain and First Officer FOOT and SHOULDER HEATERS only operate in flight.
True
75
What does the amber OVHT message on the EQUIP COOLING panel, along with the associated EQPT OVHT amber advisory message on EICAS indicate?
1. ) Either supply fan has failed or is inoperative.
| 2. ) The overboard exhaust valve is closed with the L RECIRC FAN failed or switched OFF.
76
True or False: When the amber SMOKE light on the EQUIP COOLING panel is illuminated, along with the associated amber FWD EQPT SMOKE advisory message on EICAS, the system will automatically reconfigure and clear the smoke.
True. There's a bunch of fancy logic behind it, but the bottom line is, it works.
Note: there is no smoke detection for the aft equipment cooling system.
77
(767-300) When will the amber NO COOLING light on the EQUIP COOLING panel illuminate?
When the selector is in OVRD.
78
(767-300) What temperature is automatically maintained by the cargo heating system?
45°F (7°C)
79
(767-300) True or False: Contrary to logic, the normal position for the BULK CARGO HEAT selector on the accessory panel is VENT, not NORM.
True
80
(767-300) Why is the center isolation (C ISLN) switch on guarded to the OPEN position?
To protect the air source to the Air Driven Pump
81
What is displayed above the N1 gauges when ENG ANTI-ICE is selected to ON?
TAI (Thermal Anti-Icing) - in green if N1 is sufficient, amber if it is not.
82
True or False: Continuous ignition is applied to the associated engine when ENG ANTI-ICE is selected ON, as long as the ENG START selector is positioned to AUTO.
True.
83
Boeing anti-ice systems logic inhibits wing anti-ice on the ground, what happens if a landing is made with the switch ON?
The wing anti-ice valves automatically close at touchdown.
84
What does the EICAS message ICE DET OFF indicate?
The ice sensor no longer detects ice.
85
Which flight deck windows are electrically heated for anti-icing and also utilize anti-fogging airflow?
Only the forward windows. The side windows are only electrically heated to provide anti-fogging.
86
True or False: Each windshield wiper is independently powered.
True. Each have a separate electrical source; failure of a component or power source in one system should not affect the other wiper.
87
Probe heat control for TAT, pitot probes, and AOA vanes is automatic, what logic do they depend on?
Heat control is based on engine operation (at least one engine running on the ground) and air/ground logic.
88
Which aircraft in the 7ER category does not have an ice detection system or an ICING light?
757-300
89
(767-300) Will the ice detection system display the ICING light when ice is detected with the anti-ice system functioning properly?
No, if the anti-ice selectors are set to AUTO and the system is working properly, there will be no indication.
90
Do not operate wing anti-ice when the TAT is above ____ degrees C.
10°C
91
What position must the ANTI-ICE selector be placed on the 767-300ER to achieve engine anti-ice on the ground with an engine operating?
ON
92
What are the two major components of the autoflight system?
1. ) AFDS - Autopilot Flight Director System
| 2. ) A/T - Autothrottle
93
How many FCCs are required to engage the autopilot?
At least 2
94
Normally only one autopilot can be engaged at a time, what is the exception?
When APP (approach) mode is selected, any other autopilots that are operable will automatically engage.
95
What are the default roll and pitch modes of the autopilot with the F/D switches OFF? (also in TO or GA modes)
Roll mode: HDG HOLD
| Pitch mode: V/S
96
Will manually over-riding autothrottle commanded thrust lever position disengage autothrottles?
No.
97
What three ways can you disconnect autothrottles?
1. ) Moving the A/T ARM switch to OFF.
2. ) Pushing either thrust lever autothrottle disconnect switch.
3. ) Selecting reverse thrust.
98
Will setting a bank limit affect bank angles in any roll mode?
No, it only applies to HDG SEL.
99
What does a green box surrounding an active FMA mean?
The green box signifies a change in the FMA and is displayed for 10 seconds.
100
What conditions must be met for the green LAND 3 annunciator to be illuminated on the ASA (Autoland Status Annunciator)?
1. ) The aircraft is below approximately 1,500 feet RA.
2. ) The APP mode is active.
3. ) The ASA shows the aircraft systems are acceptable for CAT III operations.
Note: other factors and equipment requirements must be considered to comply with operational policies and procedures when conducting CAT II or III operations.
101
What is the correct way to prepare for and fly a localizer backcourse?
1. ) Front course selected in the ILS control head.
2. ) Select B/CRS mode on the MCP.
3. ) Select LOC mode on the MCP.
102
When is ROLLOUT mode armed? When does it become active?
It's automatically armed below 1,500 feet RA, and becomes active below 5 feet RA.
103
When/how is GA (Go Around) mode armed?
On an approach when the flaps are out of the up position, or at glideslope capture.
104
How can you deselect G/S mode once the glideslope is captured and active?
Only by switching the autopilots and flight directors off, or by selecting GA mode.
105
When is FLARE mode armed, activated, and deactivated?
Armed and annunciated below 1,500 feet RA.
Active at approximately 45 feet RA.
Deactivated at main wheel touchdown.
Note: FLARE mode requires at least two flight directors.
106
When does IDLE engage when FLARE is active?
25 feet RA.
107
In reference to autothrottle modes, what is the 2 minute rule? Which A/T mode does it apply to?
The 2 minute rule is derived from a calculated climb or descent within 125 seconds. If a climb or descent to a preselected altitude is predicted to take less than 2 minutes, the FLCH mode becomes active.
108
The LOC mode cannot capture if the intercept angle exceeds ____°
120°
109
What does the FMA "CMD" on the ADI indicate?
An autopilot is engaged.
110
After a Go-Around has been initiated, selecting a new pitch or roll mode is inhibited below _____ feet RA.
400 feet
111
Where do ground personnel plug in headsets to communicate with the flight deck?
Through a jack located on the APU ground control panel (nose gear).
112
Is it possible to erase all recorded data on the CVR by pressing ERASE?
Only on the ground with the parking break set.
113
Where is the HF antenna located?
Leading edge of the vertical stabilizer.
114
True or Fasle: There is no way to isolate the flight deck interphone from the cabin interphone on the 767-300.
True. The FLT INT switch interconnects the flight deck and cabin interphone systems into one system - all audio on the FLIGHT and CABIN interphone systems can be heard by all listeners.
115
What are the three sources for AC power?
1. ) Engine driven Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs)
2. ) APU generator
3. ) External power - located aft of the nosewheel
116
What two components make up the IDGs?
1. ) Generator
| 2. ) Constant Speed Drive (CSD)
117
What is the function of a CSD?
To maintain the generator at a constant speed, so that it can produce consistent electrical output through all engine power settings.
118
What two conditions would cause the amber DRIVE light to illuminate on the overhead panel, along with the L or R GEN DRIVE EICAS advisory message to be displayed?
1. ) High IDG oil temperature
| 2. ) Low IDG oil pressure
119
When will the ENG START selector trip from GND to AUTO?
50% N2
120
What converts AC electrical power to provide DC power to the DC distribution system?
Transformer Rectifiers (TRs)
121
(757-200) The MAIN battery provides power to the standby AC and DC busses for a minimum of ____ minutes.
30
122
(757-300) In the event of a failure of normal power, the two batteries, designated MAIN and APU, are paralleled to provide ____ minutes of power.
90
123
(757-300) What is an HDG? When is it activated? Which hydraulic system powers it?
The Hydraulic Driven Generator activates automatically when both the L and R main AC busses are unpowered. The HDG is powered by the Left hydraulic system.
124
How long is standby power available on the 767-300?
30 minutes.
Note: if standby power is depleted, the flaps and gear cannot be extended.
125
Both the 757-300 and the 767-300 have Hydraulic Driven Generators (HDG) which activate automatically when both the L and R main AC busses are unpowered, but what is the main difference between the HDGs on the two aircraft?
757-300: HDG is powered by the Left hydraulic system
| 767-300: HDG is powered by the Center hydraulic system.
126
Where is the GROUND SERVICE switch located in the airplane?
In the cabin on the forward flight attendant panel.
127
True or False: The galley power can load shed without illumination of the UTILITY BUS off lights.
True
128
In what four situations would both utility busses be shed?
1. ) Starting engines with the APU providing electrical power.
2. ) Both thrust levers advanced on the ground with a single power source.
3. ) Single generator operations in flight.
4. ) Overload.
129
How are desired thrust modes selected manually?
By using the Thrust Mode Select Panel (TMSP)
130
True or False: The Electronic Engine Control units (EECs) protect against engine overspeed, overboost, and overtemp.
False. EECs do provide protection against overspeed and overboost, but NOT against overtemp.
131
What minimum oil quantity is recommended for engine start?
17 quarts.
Note: If the OIL QTY is less than 17 quarts prior to engine start, the engine may be started, but after engine warm-up a minimum quantity of 8 quarts must be verified.
132
To start an engine, you push in and rotate the engine start selector to GND, opening the start valve and engaging the air driven starter. At what point do you select the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN?
At 25% N2 or at maximum motoring speed, whichever occurs first (but not less than 18% N2), and oil pressure increasing
767-300 - minimum N2 for fuel introduction is 15%
Note: on all aircraft, a magenta bug will display on the N2 gauge indicating the minimum N2 for fuel introduction.
133
True or False: The APU can provide electrical power up to the aircraft service ceiling.
True
134
Will there be a flight deck indication (caution or warning) if one of the two detector loops in the engine nacelle senses a fire or overheat?
No. Both loops must sense a fire or overheat condition before there is any indication in the flight deck.
135
How do utilize the stabilizer brake system in the event of an UNSCHED STAB TRIM (runaway)?
Pulling or pushing a control column in the direction opposite the runaway.
136
True or False: In the event of a LE SLAT DISAGREE, LE SLAT ASYM, TE FLAP DISAGREE, or TE FLAP ASYM, hydraulic power to both slats and flaps is automatically shut off.
True
137
Can flaps and slats be extended without hydraulic power?
Yes, an alternate drive system uses electric motors to move both flaps and slats.
138
(767-300ER) True or False: A Flap Load Relief system retracts flaps from 30 or 25 to 20 when airspeed exceeds flap limit speed.
True
139
What does the STAB TRIM light on the overhead panel indicate?
Electric or alternate trim rate is one-half the normal rate.
140
What is indicated when the RUDDER RATIO light is illuminated?
1. ) The left hydraulic system pressure is not available.
| 2. ) The rudder ratio system is failed.
141
What is the meaning of an illuminated SPEED BRAKES light on the center forward panel?
1. ) The speedbrakes are extended and the RA is 800 feet or below.
2. ) The speedbrakes are extended and the flaps are in a landing position.
142
When is the Pitch Limit Indicator (PLI) displayed on the ADI and what does it represent?
PLI is a function of the stall warning computer and appears when the flaps are extended, it indicates pitch limit or stick shaker activation point for the existing flight conditions.
143
How long does full alignment of the IRS take?
Approximately 10 minutes.
144
True or False: The calculated fuel value does not consider APU fuel burn into its calculations.
True.
145
Where is the fuel temperature sensor located?
Right main tank.
146
How many AC powered fuel pumps are there?
6 (six)
147
(767-300ER) At what rate can fuel be jettisoned from the center tank?
Approximately 1,300 pounds per minute.
148
True or False: Center tank pumps always override main tank pumps due to their higher output pressure.
True.
149
What type of hydraulic pumps provide pressure to the L and R systems? Which are primary, and which are backup?
L and R hydraulic systems each have an engine driven pump as a primary, and an ELEC (electric) pump as a backup or DEMAND.
150
What type of hydraulic pumps provide pressure to the C system?
Two ELEC (electric) motor-driven pumps and a RAT (Ram Air Turbine) as a backup or DEMAND.
151
What is the hydraulic Power Transfer Unit (PTU)?
Hydraulic motor pump that transfers hydraulic power from the R system to the L system. The PTU uses reserve fluid from the hydraulic reservoir.
152
What two things cause the hydraulic PTU to automatically activate?
1. ) Left engine fails (<50% N2)
2. ) Left ENG pump output pressure is low.
Note: the above logic assumes the right engine is operating normally
153
The L, C, and R hydraulic systems all operate at ______ psi.
3,000 psi.
154
With the gear handle selected UP, what holds the gear up in the retracted position?
Hydraulic pressure.
155
What does the OFF position on the gear handle do?
Hydraulic pressure is removed from the system, the nose gear is held up by an overcenter lock and the mains are held up by a gear uplock.
Note: 767 main gear rests on the gear doors.
156
What configuration/flight condition causes the gear warning to sound?
Flaps are in a landing configuration (25 or 30)
or
Either thrust lever is at idle at a RA below 800 feet.
157
How many levels of redundancy exist for the braking system?
Normal, Alternate, Reserve, and Accumulator
158
A deviation of ____ feet from the selected altitude will result in an ALTITUDE ALERT caution.
250 feet
Note: 300 feet in the 757-300
159
A GPWS "CAUTION, TERRAIN" alert sounds when the projected path of the aircraft is ___ to ___ seconds from a terrain impact.
40-60 seconds.
160
A GPWS "TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP" aural warning sounds when the projected path of the aircraft is ___ to ___ seconds from a terrain impact.
20-30 seconds.
161
A TCAS TA (traffic alert), with an aural "TRAFFIC, TRAFFIC" occurs when a conflict is predicted within ___ to ___ seconds.
35-40 seconds.
162
A TCAS RA (resolution advisory) is a warning with aural resolution guidance and occurs when a conflict is predicted within ___ to ___ seconds.
20-30 seconds.
163
The Fire Bell and Master WARNING are inhibited from nose gear extension during rotation through ____ feet AGL or ___ seconds elapsed time, whichever occurs first.
400 feet AGL, 20 seconds
