ESWS OPS Flashcards

1
Q

List the 5 functions of CIC
G:
P:
D:
E:
D:

A

Gathering
Processing
Display
Evaluation
Dissemination

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2
Q

What are the 2 functions of JIC?

Provides ___ ____ to Commander Expeditionary Strike Group, CATF, CLT, & CO.
Provides __ ___ for receipt, stowage, retrieval, processing, & dissemination of intelligence.

A

PROVIDE OPERATIONAL SUPPORT to Commander Expeditionary Strike Group, CATF, CLT, & CO.
PROVIDES SECURE FACILITY for receipt, stowage, retrieval, processing, & dissemination of intelligence.

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3
Q

Main function of SSES (ships signal exploitation space)?

Collects info & receives ___ (___) from outside sources to disseminate to __ & __ __.

A

COLLECTS INFO & RECEIVES Signals Intelligence (SIGINT) from outside sources to disseminate to CC & Flag Plot.

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4
Q

Who gives the call “Land the Landing Force” 3 times?

A

Commander Amphibious Task Force (Commodore)

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5
Q

Who is the MEU Colonel?

A

Commander Lander Force

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6
Q

Name the suitably marked offshore coordinating LINE that assists in landing of landing crafts & amphibious vehicles on beaches at scheduled times?

A

Line of Departure

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7
Q

What’s the maneuver that’s ordered by PCS to hold WAVES of amphibious craft prior to LOD?

A

Wave Forming Circles

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8
Q

4 types of operations:

(DRAW)

A

Assault
Raid
Demonstration
Withdrawal

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9
Q

Define demonstration:

Amphibious op conducted to __ enemy by __ ___ __, hoping to ___ them into ___ results.

A

Amphibious op conducted to DECEIVE enemy by show of force, hoping to fool them into unfavorable results.
(think decoy)

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10
Q

What are the 5 phases?

(PERMA)

A

Planning
Embarkation
Rehearsal
Movement
Action

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11
Q

Responsibilities of Tactical Action Officer:

Safe maneuvering of __, manages employment of ___ w/ ___ release authority, & ___ direction of ship.

A

Safe maneuvering of ship, manages employment of weapons w/ weapon release authority, & tactical direction of ship.

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12
Q

Responsibilities of Air Intercept Controller:

OS that assists w/ ______ warfare Commander using _____ _____ to intercept _______ air contacts.

A

OS that assists w/ Anti-Air Warfare Commander using friendly fighters to intercept unknown air contacts.

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13
Q

Responsibilities of PDWC:

A

Assigns weapon system to destroy threats. (Hard Kill)

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14
Q

Responsibilities of Shipping Officer:

Close in surface p____, close to __.

Manned during sea & anchor to avoid __.

A

Close in surface picture, close to shore. Manned during sea & anchor to avoid collision.

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15
Q

Responsibilities of Piloting Officer:

Assists bridge w/ ___.

A

Manned during sea & anchor. Assists bridge w/ navigation.

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16
Q

Primary & secondary purposes of Digital Dead Reckoning Tracer? (DDRT)

Primary: True ________
Secondary: ___ ____

A

Primary: True geographic plot
Secondary: Man overboard

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17
Q

How many SPA 25G Radar Repeaters onboard?

A

4 onboard.

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18
Q

Purpose of GCCS-M?

Provides broad overview of __ contact location around world.

A

Global Command & Control System Maritime provides broad overview of surface contact location around world.

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19
Q

What’s the electronic chart that keeps ships position?
(VMS)

A

Voyage Management System

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20
Q

What’s electronic warfare?

Action involving _____ spectrum to ___ or ____ enemy.

A

Action involving electromagnetic spectrum to attack or impede enemy.

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21
Q

Define electronic support (ES):

Gathering intelligence w/ ____sensors

A

Gathering intelligence w/ electronic sensors.

22
Q

Define electronic attack (EA):

EM energy or anti-_____ weapons to attack ___, ___, or ____.

A

EM energy or anti-radiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities, or equipment.

23
Q

Define EMCON:

Selectively managing own f___ emissions to gain __ over __.

A

Emissions control. Selectively managing own force emissions to gain advantage over adversary.

24
Q

6 conditions of EMCON:
A: Total ___
A1: Modified ____ for ___.
A2: Modified for L__ or a__ safety
B: Satellite ____
C: High value u___ protection
D: Essential ____

A

A - total silence
A1 - Modified safety navigation
A2 - Modified for link or aircraft safety
B - Satellite vulnerability
C - High value unit protection
D - Essential emissions

25
What does ASMD stand for?
Anti-Ship Missile Defense
26
How many decoy launchers onboard to blanket entire ship?
6 launchers
27
What are the 2 types of rounds carried onboard? S G
MK 214 SEDUCTION MK 245 GIANT JR
28
What does the Sexy-1 provide? Specific e____ identification c___y
Specific emitter identification capability
29
What does the joint tactical terminal maritime provide? A tool for b___ missile defense early ___.
A tool for ballistic missile defense early warning
30
What 3 evasion tactics are employed during countermeasure? (B M R)
Base-zag MAD MAGGIE RAGING BULL
31
Define Air warfare (AW) Deny enemy use of __ & ___ assets
Deny enemy use of air & ground assets
32
Define Surface Warfare (SUW) Destroy/neutralize enemy naval surface f____s & m____t vessels
Destroy/neutralize enemy naval surface forces & merchant vessels
33
Define Undersea Warfare (USW) Deny enemy access use of ___
Deny enemy effective use of submarines
34
Define Strike Warfare (STW) Destroy/neutralize enemy targets __
Destroy/neutralize enemy targets ashore
35
Define Information Warfare (IW) Decrease adversary’s __ & __ systems capabilities
Decrease adversary's info & info systems capabilities
36
List the 4 Maritime Operations: Maritime I____ Ops Non-combatant E___ nOps S&R Humanitarian A____& D____ response
Maritime Interdiction Ops Non-Combatant Evacuation Ops Search & Rescue Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Response
37
Define OPREP-3 Pinnacle A r__ where situation of __ level has been d___
A report where situation of national level has been determined.
38
Define OPREP-3 Navy Blue Significant situation of h___ navy interest occurred, potentially d____ to c____/n___.
significant situation of high navy interest occurred, potentially detrimental to command/navy.
39
Define CASREP Reporting status of ship experiencing d____ combat readiness p___.
Reporting status of ship experiencing diminished combat readiness posture.
40
Define the following categories of CASREP CAT 2:____ degradation of primary mission CAT 3:____ degradation w/o loss of primary mission CAT 4: Loss of at least _ primary mission
Cat. 2: Minor degradation of primary mission & major degradation to secondary mission. Cat. 3: Major degradation w/o loss of primary mission. Cat. 4: Loss of at least 1 primary mission.
41
Define unclassified & what color it is:
Green. Freely available for public consumption.
42
Define confidential & what color it is:
Blue. Can cause damage to national security.
43
Define secret & what color it is: Can cause ___ damage to national security
Red. Can cause serious damage to national security.
44
Define top secret & what color it is:
Orange. Can cause exceptionally grave damage to national security.
45
Define AATCC
Amphibious Air Traffic control center
46
Define IFF Identifies s___ & a___ contacts
Identification Friend or Foe ID surface & air contacts
47
5 rates that work in CIC O F C A G
OS FC CTT (EW) AO GM
48
Modes ( MR SNAP BB) M- M_ I_ C_ R- Tri-____ S-_____ N-__ A-___ P-____ BB-___
M- magnetically influenced countermeasure R- tri-random S- swept N- noise A- alternating P- pulsating BB- broad blast
49
Max cable length for NIXIE Combat streamed at __ ft.
Max length: 2350 ft Combat streamed at 1800 ft
50
What’s the NXIE known as? T_____ C______ How many nixie rooms onboard?
Torpedo countermeasure 2 nixie rooms port & stbd