ET Vol 4 Flashcards
(115 cards)
1
Q
On an AO class ship, what radar is used as the primary surface search and navigation radar?
A
- AN/SPS-67(V)1 5450-5825 mhz, prf 75-, 1200,2400 ddg-51
2
Q
Which of the following radars replaces a variety of small commercial radars?
A
AN/SPS-64(V)9, min dectect 40yrds, 3ft above water, 2d nav surface surce
3
Q
Which of the following radars was developed to detect small surface targets from a range of 50 yards to the radar horizon?
A
. AN/SPS-55 MAX 50 NAUTICAL MILES
4
Q
A technician must have formal training to work on which of the following equipments,
A
NONE
5
Q
If you were unable to isolate a fault in your radar system, you could request assistance from which of the following sources?
A
- NAVSEACEN 2. MOTU 3. A tender
6
Q
Which of the following radars performs navigation, station keeping, and general surface search functions on the DDG 51 class ship?
A
AN/SPS-67(V)3
7
Q
An AN/SPS-67(V) radar operating in a short pulse mode will have what pulse repetition frequency?
A
2400
8
Q
what are the pulse repetition freqs for sps-67
A
- Long 750 2. Meduim 1200 .25%sec 3. Short 2400 110%
9
Q
The AN/SPS-10 antenna and pedestal assembly on your ship has just been replaced with a low-profile, nuclear-survivable antenna assembly. What new radar has been installed?
A
AN/SPS-67(V)3
10
Q
At which unit of an AN/SPS-67(V) will the dummy load be mounted?
A
Receiver-transmitter unit
11
Q
The AN/SPS-67(V)1 radar will NOT interface with which of the following systems?
A
AN/USQ-82(V)
12
Q
Use of BIT circuitry in the AN/SPS–67(V) radar will have which of the following results?
A
It will locate 95% of failures to four possible modules within the receiver– transmitter and video processor
13
Q
What Navy Enlisted Classification code, if any, applies to the AN/SPS–64(V)9 radar?
A
none
14
Q
Which of the following information/support is available for the AN/SPS–64(V)9 technician?
A
Formal maintenance training
15
Q
A radar video converter (RVC) modification of the AN/SPS–55 was developed for which class of ship
A
FFG–61
16
Q
Which of the following missions is NOT supported by the AN/SPS–55 radar?
A
AAN
17
Q
The AN/SPS–55 radar, without any modifications, will interface with which of the following systems?
A
AN/SLA–10
18
Q
An operating AN/SPS–55 radar (NEC=1504) goes into standby mode and an indicator is activated at the RSC. What is the probable cause?
A
The magnetron has exceeded safe operating parameters
19
Q
What is the primary function of an AN/SPS–49(V) radar?
A
Support AAW
20
Q
Which of the following functions is/are collateral to the AN/SPS-49(V) radar’s primary function?
A
- ATC Air Traffics Control 2. AIC Air Intercept Control 3.ASAS Antisubmarine Aircraft Control
21
Q
You are on an AEGIS cruiser and your 2D air search radar has been modified to have a direct digital interface with the AEGIS combat system. What is the nomenclature of your radar after the modification is complete?
A
AN/SPS–49(V)8
22
Q
The AN/SPS–49(V) radar has how many variant configurations?
A
9 but 7 major units
23
Q
If the AN/SPS–49(V) radar on your ship has ATD and no cooling system, which variant configuration is installed?
A
(V) 8
24
Q
Which of the following variant configurations of the AN/SPS-49(V) radar interface(s) with the AN/SYS–2(V) IADT system?
A
(V)7
25
Which of the following Navy Enlisted Classification codes applies to the AN/SPS–49(V)1, (V)2, (V)3, (V)4, and (V)6 radars?
1503
26
Which of the following Navy Enlisted Classification codes applies to the AN/SPS–49(V) 5,7,8,9
1510
27
The AN/SPS–40B/C/D/E radar operates at what antenna rate for (a) high data rate capabilities and (b) long-range mode?
(a) 15 rpm (b) 7.5 rpm
28
What Navy Enlisted Classification code applies to the AN/SPS–40B/C/D radar with field change 11?
1511
29
How often will antenna and pedestal restoration be performed on the AN/SPS–40B/C/D/E radar?
Every 10–15 years
30
The AN/GPN–27 radar antenna group provides constant radiation altitude coverage of how many degrees above the peak of the beam?
30 degrees
31
In the AN/GPN–27, which of the following video signals are provided to the processor unit by the receiver?
1. Normal video 2. Log video 3. Moving target indicator video
32
Which of the intercommunication system stations are located in the transmitter building group of the AN/GPN–27 radar?
One master station and one slave station
33
Where is the 16–inch maintenance ppi for the AN/GPN–27 located?
Transmitter building
34
The operator of which type of radar is able to control the antenna when searching in a target sector?
3D air search
35
Which of the following statements describes the radiated frequency of a 3D air search radar during electronic scanning?
It changes in discrete steps at each elevation angle
36
Which of the following radars is a Precision Approach Landing System (PALS)?
AN/SPN–46(V)
37
Which of the following systems iss installed at naval air stations for PALS training of flight crews, operators, and maintenance personnel
AN/SPN–46(V)2
38
How many aircraft can the AN/SPN–46(V) control simul– taneously and automatically during the final approach and landing phase of carrier recovery operations?
2
39
In which mode(s) of operation does the AN/SPN-46(V) transmit command and error signals via Link 4A for automatic control?
MODE 1
40
In which mode(s) of operation does the AN/SPN-46(V) provide manual control of the aircraft?
Mode 2 and 3
41
During Mode II operation of the AN/SPN–46(V), the pilot receives command and error information via what medium?
Cockpit display
42
Which of the 26 units in the AN/SPN–46(V)1 is/are not used by the AN/SPN-46(V)2?
MK 16 stable elements (units 17 and 18)
43
Which unit of the AN/SPN–46(V) automatically switches the AN/TPX–42(V)8 into a master computer configuration of the CCS?
Central computer group (unit 12)
44
Which unit of the AN/SPN-46(V) provides a maintenance intercom for troubleshooting purposes?
PRI-FLI indicator control (unit 5)
45
Which of the following units of the AN/SPN–46(V) is NOT designed to test the system or to aid in troubleshooting?
MLV (unit 13)
46
Of the following radars, which would be used at a naval air station to replace the PAR portion of the AN/CPN–4 family of equipment?
1.AN/FPN-63(V) 2.AN/MPN–23(V)
47
Which of the following items are generated by the AZ–EL range indicator of the AN/FPN–63(V)?
1. Cursors 2. Range marks 3. Internal map
48
Which of the following radar repeaters, if any, has range–only capability?
A scope
49
Which of the following inputs is/are required for a radar repeater to be able to display a detected target at the correct range and bearing?
1. Video 2. Triqger 3. Antenna position
50
A printed–circuit board in the CV–3989/SP Signal Data Converter is faulty. The replacement value of the PCB is $627.00. Who, if anyone, will repair the PCB?
Depot level maintenance personnel ($500 or more)
51
The electronic bearing circle displayed around the AN/SPA–25G has bearing markers labeled numerically at what points?
Every 10°
52
The AN/SPA-25G will interface with which of the following systems?
Any Navy air search radar system . Any Navy surface search radar system (any search)
53
The CV–3989/SP provides a RADDS data stream containing which of the following data?
1. Ship’s heading 2. Stabilized radar antenna azimuth 3. Dead–reckoning information
54
The SB/4229/SP Switchboard can accept many signal inputs. Which of the following statements is most correct about its input capabilities?
It can accept aignals from 16 radar sets and 5 interrogator sets
55
SB-4229/SP can accept RADDS data stream inputs from how many separate signal data converters?
16
56
A total of how many different operators can select input sensors from the SB-4229/SP for display at their indicator?
9
57
Which of the following radar indicators is used to obtain altitude information?
RHI range height indicator
58
On an rhi, which of the following is an indication of a target?
A vertical blip
59
How do you determine the target height when using an rhi?
Adjust height line; then read it from the altitude counters
60
You are on an NTDS–equipped ship. What function, if any, does the AN/SPA-25G perform
Backup radar indicator
61
Which radar repeater is used primarily by maintenance personnel to evaluate the operation of a radar?
A-scope
62
Which of the following radar display and distribution system configurations will be found on 90% of Navy ships?
AN/SPA–25G, CV–3989/SP, SB–4229/SP
63
Of the following information, which could be provided by modern IFF systems?
1. Mission of the target 2. What squadron the target belongs to 3. The altitude of an aircraft (side number)?
64
What are the three basic steps of the IFF identification process
Challenge, reply, and recognition
65
The spacing between IFF interrogation pulse pairs is determined by which of the following factors?
Mode of IFF operation
66
When you use IFF, a dashed line just beyond the target on your radar screen indicates which of the following craft?
A friendly craft
67
The Mark XII IFF aystem is capable of how many modes of operation?
5
68
Which IFF unit provides the control signals that determine the MK XII mode of operation?
Video decoder
69
Which of the following modes of IFF operation is NOT a selective identification feature (SIF) mode?
C
70
The transponder of a pilotless aircraft, responding to a SIF mode interrogation, would send which of the following replies?
X-pulse
71
Which of the following codes could be selected as an IFF transponder reply code for mode 1 operation?
4300 (first 0-7) (second 0-3) (remaining 2 digits 0's)
72
A major failure in your radio room has knocked your communications off the air. Which of the following codes should you set in the IFF transponder for mode 3/A replies?
7600
73
What reply code in IFF is 7700?
civilian emergency
74
what reply code in IFF is 7777?
interceptors on active ait defense missions
75
what reply code in 3/A mode withh trigger FAA towers?
7500,7600,7700,7777
76
Which of the following IFF mode 3/A reply codes may your ship use in U.S. national air space?
5011, (50XX, 54XX,61XX,64XX
77
Which of the following IFF mode C reply codes will your ship use?
0000
78
A commercial airliner using TCAS could mistake your ship’s IFF mode C reply for which of the following structures?
A small aircraft flying at about 10,000 feet
79
general aircaft fly below how many feet
12,500?
80
Under which of the following circumstances may you operate IFF in mode C when your ship is in or near port?
When testing with the antenna disconnected
81
The MK XII IFF system requires triggers to initiate interro– gations. Where do they come from?
The pulse generator of the IFF interrogator
82
You would find direct altitude readouts for IFF mode C replies on which of the following displays?
Intratarget data indicator
83
All the indicators on your ship that are interfaced with IFF have ring-around. Which of the following places will the problem most likely be found?
Primary radar antenna
84
The antenna pedestal assembly is being rotated at 21 rpm. To what mode of operation is your IFF manual pedestal set?
Slave (2-30 rpm)
85
What are the different Mode of operations for the manual pedestal set?
1. Free-Run (15RPM) 2.Slave(2-30RPM) 3.Manual (any Azimuth)
86
Which of the following modes of IFF operation does/do NOT require that reply codes be set by thumbwheel switches?
4
87
You would need written permission from the Skipper to work on which of the following units without formal training?
KIT–1A/TSEC, ,KIR-1,KIK-18
88
Which of the following agencies is/are involved in agreements made under the AIMS program?
1. The Air Force 2. The Navy 3. The FAA
89
You are at a shore installation and your DAIR system alarms when the target strays ±300 feet from the controller–assigned altitude. What type of DAIR system do you have?
type-10 radar
90
What are the different types of DAIR(direst altitude and identify readout)
Type 8 CArrier Type 10 Radar Type 12 Amphibous
91
A controller using a CATCC DAIR system has which of the following information available at his/her console?
1. Flight identity 2. Flight altitude 3. Ship’s barometric pressure
92
As an aircraft leaves the CATCC controller’s area of respon– sibility, it is passed to which of the following controllers?
1. Another CATCC control position 2. CIC 3. ACLS/PALS
93
Which type of DAIR system would be used for amphibious operations?
Type 12
94
Each DAIR system provides information to allow control of aircraft within a given area. Which type has a responsibility area of 50 nautical miles surrounding the ship?
Type 8 catcc pair cv18
95
Which type of DAIR system has the AOA as its responsibility area?
Type 12 AATC (V)12
96
On board your carrier you have just updated your AN/TPX–42A(V)8 to a (V)12. Which additional system can now interface with your DAIR?
ITAWDS (Integrated Tactical Amphibous Warfare Data System) SDMS(Shipboard Data Muliplex System)
97
A technician trained to maintain a RATCF DAIR system will have what NEC?
ET-1578
98
A technician trained to maintain an AIMS Mk XII IFF system will have what NEC?
ET–1572
99
A technician trained to maintain an AATC DAIR system will have what NEC?
ET-1576
100
Which of the following systems, if any, integrates other systems and subsystems to perform detection and entry functions?
NTDS(Naval Tactical Data Systems)
101
What are combat system functions controlled by NTDS?
1. Tracking and identification 2. Threat evaluation and weapon assignment 3. Engagement and engagement assessment
102
As an ET you are responsible for maintenance on which of the following NTDS-related equipment?
Video and sync amps, Radar, Antenna, Radar Switch Boards
103
What publication, if any, provides information on radar and NTDS as an integrated system on your ship?
CSTOM Combat Systems Technical Operation Manual
104
The Combat Systems Technical Operations Manual provides information required to take which of the following actions?
1. Define the limitations of the NTDS system 2. Operate the NTDS system 3. Maintain the material readiness of the NTDS system
105
Which of the following are CRT safety hazards?
1. Violent implosion if broken 2. Toxic phosphor coating 3. Very high voltage
106
what are the electrical safety rubber gloves ratings?
Class 0 (750 Watts) Class I (3000 watts) Class II (4000 Watts) Class III (5000 watts)
107
In which section of the tag-out log would you place a tag-out record sheet that has been cleared after completion of radar PMS
section 5
108
RADHAZ labels indicate an RF electromagnetic field intense enough to do which of the following damage?
1. Cause spark ignition of fuel 2. Produce harmful biological effects in humans 3. Actuate electroexplosive devices
109
When you are in port, who must give you permission to test operate your radar system?
The supervisor in charge of operations
110
Which of the following hazard conditions is most critical during a refueling operation?
HERF (Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuels)
111
Which of the following hazard conditions is most critical when a person is working aloft?
HERP (Hazards of Electromagnetic Personal)
112
Which of the following hazard conditions is most critical during an ammunition off–loading operation?
HERO (Hazards of Electromagnetic of Ordnance)
113
What parameter(s) is/are used to determine safe limits associated with electronic equipment?
1. Power density of the radiation beam 2. Exposure time of the human body
114
Which of the following requirements pertain(s) to a safety observer for a technician working on energized equipment?
1. Must be CPR qualified 2. Must know the location of all cut–off switches 3. Must have a nonconductive device to pull the technician from a circuit
115
How often is the required PMS performed on a safety harness?
Each time it is used
